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• LINQ Query Returning Multiple Copies Of First Result

  - by Mike G

  I'm trying to figure out why a simple query in LINQ is returning odd results. I have a view defined in the database. It basically brings together several other tables and does some data munging. It really isn't anything special except for the fact that it deals with a large data set and can be a bit slow. I want to query this view based on a long. Two sample queries below show different queries to this view. var la = Runtime.OmsEntityContext.Positions.Where(p => p.AccountNumber == 12345678).ToList(); var deDa = Runtime.OmsEntityContext.Positions.Where(p => p.AccountNumber == 12345678).Select(p => new { p.AccountNumber, p.SecurityNumber, p.CUSIP }).ToList(); The first one should hand back a List. The second one will be a list of anonymous objects. When I do these queries in entities framework the first one will hand me back a list of results where they're all exactly the same. The second query will hand me back data where the account number is the one that I queried and the other values differ. This seems to do this on a per account number basis, ie if I were to query for one account number or another all the Position objects for one account would have the same value (the first one in the list of Positions for that account) and the second account would have a set of Position objects that all had the same value (again, the first one in it's list of Position objects). I can write SQL that is in effect the same as either of the two EF queries. They both come back with results (say four) that show the correct data, one account number with different securities numbers. Why does this happen??? Is there something that I could be doing wrong so that if I had four results for the first query above that the first record's data also appears in the 2-4th's objects??? I cannot fathom what would/could be causing this. I've searched Google for all kinds of keywords and haven't seen anyone with this issue. We partial class out the Positions class for added functionality (smart object) and some smart properties. There are even some constructors that provide some view model type support. None of this is invoked in the request (I'm 99% sure of this). However, we do this same pattern all over the app. The only thing I can think of is that the mapping in the EDMX is screwy. Is there a way that this would happen if the "primary keys" in the EDMX were not in fact unique given the way the view is constructed? I'm thinking that the dev who imported this model into the EDMX let the designer auto select what would be unique. Any help would give a haggered dev some hope!

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• How could I send live video stream to remote server from my phone !!!

  - by poc

  Hello , I have a problem about streaming my video to server in real-time from my phone. that is , let my phone be a IP Camera , and server can watch the live video from my phone I have googled many many solutions, but there is no one can solve my problem. I use MediaRecorder to record . it can save video file in the SD card correctly. then , I refered this page and used some method as followings skt = new Socket(InetAddress.getByName(hostname),port); pfd =ParcelFileDescriptor.fromSocket(skt); mediaRecorder.setOutputFile(pfd.getFileDescriptor()); now it seems I can send the video stream while recording however, I wrote a receiver-side program to receive the video stream from Android , but it doesn't work . is there any error? I can receive file , but I can not open the video file . I guess the problem may caused by file format ? there are outline of my code. in android side Socket skt = new Socket(hostIP,port); ParcelFileDescriptor pfd =ParcelFileDescriptor.fromSocket(skt); .... .... mediaRecorder.setAudioSource(MediaRecorder.AudioSource.MIC); mediaRecorder.setVideoSource(MediaRecorder.VideoSource.DEFAULT); mediaRecorder.setOutputFormat(MediaRecorder.OutputFormat.MPEG_4); mediaRecorder.setOutputFile(pfd.getFileDescriptor()); ..... mediaRecorder.setAudioEncoder(MediaRecorder.AudioEncoder.DEFAULT); mediaRecorder.setVideoEncoder(MediaRecorder.VideoEncoder.MPEG_4_SP); ..... mediaRecorder.start(); in receiver side (my ACER notebook) // anyway , I don't think the file extentions will do any effect File video = new File (strDate+".3gpp"); FileOutputStream fos; try { fos = new FileOutputStream(video); byte[] data = new byte[1024]; int count =-1; while( (count = fin.read(data,0,1024) ) !=-1) { fos.write(data,0,count); fos.flush(); } fos.close(); fin.close(); I confused a long time.... thanks in advance

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• Struggling with ASP.NET MVC auto-scaffolder template

  - by DanM

  I'm trying to write an auto-scaffolder template for Index views. I'd like to be able to pass in a collection of models or view-models (e.g., IQueryable<MyViewModel>) and get back an HTML table that uses the DisplayName attribute for the headings (th elements) and Html.Display(propertyName) for the cells (td elements). Each row should correspond to one item in the collection. Here's what I have so far: <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl" %> <% var items = (IQueryable<TestProj.ViewModels.TestViewModel>)Model; // How do I make this generic? var properties = items.First().GetMetadata().Properties .Where(pm => pm.ShowForDisplay && !ViewData.TemplateInfo.Visited(pm)); %> <table> <tr> <% foreach(var property in properties) { %> <th> <%= property.DisplayName %> </th> <% } %> </tr> <% foreach(var item in items) { HtmlHelper itemHtml = ????; // What should I put in place of "????"? %> <tr> <% foreach(var property in properties) { %> <td> <%= itemHtml.Display(property.DisplayName) %> </td> <% } %> </tr> <% } %> </table> Two problems with this: I'd like it to be generic. So, I'd like to replace var items = (IQueryable<TestProj.ViewModels.TestViewModel>)Model; with var items = (IQueryable<T>)Model; or something to that effect. A property Html is automatically created for me when the view is created, but this HtmlHelper applies to the whole collection. I need to somehow create an itemHtml object that applies just to the current item in the foreach loop. I'm not sure how to do this, however, because the constructors for HtmlHelper don't take a Model object. How do I solve these two problems?

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• jquery ui autocomplete does't close options menu if there is no focus when ajax returns

  - by Uri

  I'm using jquery ui autocomplete widget with ajax, and on noticed the following problem. Background: In order for the user to be able to focus on the autocomplete and get the options without typing anything, I use the focus event: autoComp.focus(function() { $(this).autocomplete("search", "");} However this produces the following effect: when the user clicks, an ajax request is being sent. While waiting for the response, the user then clicks elsewhere and the autocomplete is blurred. But as soon as the response returns, the options menu pops out, even though the autocomplete has no focus. In order to make it go away the user has to click once inside, and again outside the autocomplete, which is a bit annoying. any ideas how I prevent this? EDIT: I solved this in a very ugly way by building another mediator function that knows the element's ID, and this function calls the ajax function with the ID, which on success check the focus of the element, and returns null if it's not focused. It's pretty ugly and I'm still looking for alternatives. EDIT#2: Tried to do as Wlliam suggested, still doesn't work.. the xhr is undefined when blurring. Some kind of a problem with the this keyword, maybe it has different meanings if I write the getTags function outside of the autocomplete? this.autocomplete = $('.tab#'+this.id+' #tags').autocomplete({ minLength: 0, autoFocus: true, source: getTags, select: function(e, obj) { tab_id = $(this).parents('.tab').attr('id'); tabs[tab_id].addTag(obj.item.label, obj.item.id, false); $(this).blur(); // This is done so that the options menu won't pop up again. return false; // This is done so that the value will not stay in the input box after selection. }, open: function() {}, close: function() {} }); $('.tab#'+this.id+' #tags').focus(function() { $(this).autocomplete("search", ""); }); $('.tab#'+this.id+' #tags').blur(function() { console.log('blurring'); var xhr = $(this).data('xhr'); // This comes out undefined... :( if (xhr) { xhr.abort(); }; $(this).removeClass('ui-autocomplete-loading'); }); and this is the getTags function copied to the source keyword: function getTags(request, response) { console.log('Getting tags.'); $(this).data('xhr', $.ajax({ url: '/rpc', dataType: 'json', data: { action: 'GetLabels', arg0: JSON.stringify(request.term) }, success: function(data) { console.log('Tags arrived:'); tags = []; for (i in data) { a = {} a.id = data[i]['key']; a.label = data[i]['name']; tags.push(a); } response(tags); } })); console.log($(this).data('xhr')); }

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• measure rendered html in javascript without affecting the measurement

  - by drawnonward

  I am doing pagination in javascript. This is typographic pagination, not chopping up database results. For the most part it works, but I have run into a heisenberg issue where I cannot quite measure text without affecting it. I am not trying to measure text before it is rendered. I want the actual position it shows up at on screen, so I can paginate to where it is naturally wrapped. I am measuring the vertical position of characters, not the horizontal width of strings. The way I do this is similar to this answer in that I am applying a style to a block of text, then measuring the position of the newly created span. If the span does not reach the end of the page, I clear it and make a new span in a linear search. The problem is that the anti-aliased sub-pixel text layout is different when the span is applied. In rare cases, this causes the text to wrap differently when I measure it. I have only seen this when wrapping at a hyphen, and I assume it would not happen when wrapping at white space. As a concrete example, "prepared-he" is the string I am having trouble with. When I measure up to "prepare" it appears, as expected, to be within the current page. When I measure "prepared" the whole phrase wraps down to the next line, moving it to the next page, so it looks like the "d" is the character to break at. I break the text between "prepare" and "d-he" and that is wrong. Trying to evaluate individual characters opens a whole can of worms I would rather avoid. The wrapping changes because, with the new span, the line is 1 pixel wider. A solution to my problem could either be a better way to measure text using javascript, or a way to wrap text in a new element without affecting layout. I have tried setting margin-right:-1px for the class of the span being created to wrap the text. This had no noticeable effect. I am doing this in a UIWebView on the iPhone. There are some measurement related calls that are available in normal WebKit that are not available here. For example, Range does not have getBoundingClientRect or support setting an offset other than 0 in setStart or setEnd. Thank you

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• HTML5 Video Tag in Chrome - Why is currentTime ignored when video downloaded from my webserver?

  - by larson4

  I want to be able to play back video from a specific time using the HTML5 video tag (and currently only need to worry about Chrome). This is possible by setting the currentTime property of a video element. That works fine in Chrome with a video sourced from html5rocks.com, but is ignored when the same file is loaded from my own local webserver. Using the sample code from http://playground.html5rocks.com/#video_tag, I have arrived at the following HTML: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <body> <video id="video1" width="320" height="240" volume=".7" controls preload=true autobuffer> <source src="http://playground.html5rocks.com/samples/html5_misc/chrome_japan.webm" type='video/webm; codecs="vp8, vorbis"'/> </video> <input type=button onclick="play()" value="play"> <input type=button onclick="setTime()" value="setTime"> <input type=button onclick="pause()" value="pause"> <script> var play=function() { document.getElementById("video1").play(); } var setTime=function() { document.getElementById("video1").currentTime=2; } var pause=function() { document.getElementById("video1").pause(); } </script> </body> </html> Using Chrome, if you Wait for the video to download for a bit (until the progress bar is about 10% in) Press setTime - you should notice the time jump to 2 seconds press play ...the video will start at 2 seconds in. But if I download the webm file in the source src to my local webserver, and change src to point locally: <source src="chrome_japan.webm" type='video/webm; codecs="vp8, vorbis"'/> ...then setting currentTime is complete ignored. No errors are showing in the developer tools console. Now, my webserver is serving this with mime type "video/webm", but it will be served like any old file -- not streamed. Do I need a webserver that streams in some specific way? What else could be at fault here? Note: The webserver is a proprietary platform and won't have any of the same exact settings or controls one might expect of Tomcat or some other commonly used webserver, though there may be other ways to achieve the same effect.

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• The best way to separate admin functionality from a public site?

  - by AndrewO

  I'm working on a site that's grown both in terms of user-base and functionality to the point where it's becoming evident that some of the admin tasks should be separate from the public website. I was wondering what the best way to do this would be. For example, the site has a large social component to it, and a public sales interface. But at the same time, there's back office tasks, bulk upload processing, dashboards (with long running queries), and customer relations tools in the admin section that I would like to not be effected by spikes in public traffic (or effect the public-facing response time). The site is running on a fairly standard Rails/MySQL/Linux stack, but I think this is more of an architecture problem than an implementation one: mainly, how does one keep the data and business logic in sync between these different applications? Some strategies that I'm evaluating: 1) Create a slave database of the public facing database on another machine. Extract out all of the model and library code so that it can be shared between the applications. Create new controllers and views for the admin interfaces. I have limited experience with replication and am not even sure that it's supposed to be used this way (most of the time I've seen it, it's been for scaling out the read capabilities of the same application, rather than having multiple different ones). I'm also worried about the potential for latency issues if the slave is not on the same network. 2) Create new more task/department-specific applications and use a message oriented middleware to integrate them. I read Enterprise Integration Patterns awhile back and they seemed to advocate this for distributed systems. (Alternatively, in some cases the basic Rails-style RESTful API functionality might suffice.) But, I have nightmares about data synchronization issues and the massive re-architecting that this would entail. 3) Some mixture of the two. For example, the only public information necessary for some of the back office tasks is a read-only completion time or status. Would it make sense to have that on a completely separate system and send the data to public? Meanwhile, the user/group admin functionality would be run on a separate system sharing the database? The downside is, this seems to keep many of the concerns I have with the first two, especially the re-architecting. I'm sure the answers are going to be highly dependent on a site's specific needs, but I'd love to hear success (or failure) stories.

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• CSS Rollovers: how to main "hit area" size when hidden image is larger than anchor area

  - by nukefusion

  I have a small problem and I don't think what I want to do can be achieved with just pure CSS, but I figured I'd ask anyway. Basically, I have one DIV which contains a hyperlinked element that is smaller in size to it's parent DIV. So in effect I have a square within a square with the inner square being the "hit area". When I mouse over this inner square I want the background of the outer square to change. I know it's not possible to change the parent DIV's background on a:hover, but I figured I could give the illusion of it happening by nesting a hidden image inside the anchor. This works great until I want to "roll off". The problem is that I want the image to disappear when I leave the area of the anchor tag, not the larger hidden image. Is this possible? For the benefit of everyone I've provided an example to demonstrate what I mean: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta content="text/html; charset=utf-8" http-equiv="Content-Type" /> <title>Test Rollover</title> <link href="main.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> </head> <body> <div id="d1"> <a href="#nogo"> <b id="b1"></b> <b id="b2"></b> </a> </div> </body> And the css: #b1 { width: 200px; height: 200px; top: 100px; left: 100px; background-color:aqua; position: absolute; } #b2 { width: 400px; height: 400px; background-color:lime; position: absolute; display: none; } #d1 { width: 400px; height: 400px; background-color:fuchsia; position: relative; } #d1 a:hover #b2 { display: block; } In this example I want the green outer square to disappear when I leave the bounds of the hidden inner blue square.

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• Measure width() with jQuery after DOM refresh

  - by o_O Tync

  My script dynamically creates a <ul> width left-floating <li>s inside: it's a paginator. Afterwards, the script measures width of all <li>s and summs them up. The problem is that after the nodes are injected into the document — the browser refreshed DOM and applies CSS styles which takes a while. It has a negative effect on my script: when these operations are not complete before I measure the width — my script gets a wrong value. If I perform the measure in a second — everything is ok. The thing I'm looking for is a way to detect the moment when the <ul> is fully drawn, styles applied and the width has stabilizes. Or at least a way to detect every dimensions changes. Of course I can use setTimeout(..., 100) but it's ugly and I guess — not a solution at all. If there's a way to detect width stabilization — I would do the measuring right after it to get the correct values. HTML code generated by the DOM <div> <ul> <li><a href="...">1</a></li> <li><a href="...">2</a></li> .... </ul> </div> P.S. Why I need this. My paginator's left-floating <li> items tend to move to the next line when the <ul> tries to become wider than the page itself. Even though most of <li>s are invisible because of parent <div>'s width restriction: div { width: 500px; overflow: hidden; } div ul { width: 100%; white-space: nowrap; } div ul li { display: block; float: left; } they still go down unless I specify the actual summed width of the <ul> with the script.

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• Symfony : ajax call cause server to queue next queries

  - by Remiz

  Hello, I've a problem with my application when an ajax call on the server takes too much time : it queue all the others queries from the user until it's done server side (I realized that canceling the call client side has no effect and the user still have to wait). Here is my test case : <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.4.1.min.js"></script> <a href="another-page.php">Go to another page on the same server</a> <script type="text/javascript"> url = 'http://localserver/some-very-long-complex-query'; $.get(url); </script> So when the get is fired and then after I click on the link, the server finish serving the first call before bringing me to the other page. My problem is that I want to avoid this behavior. I'm on a LAMP server and I'm looking in a way to inform the server that the user aborted the query with function like connection_aborted(), do you think that's the way to go ? Also, I know that the longest part of this PHP script is a MySQL query, so even if I know that connection_aborted() can detect that the user cancel the call, I still need to check this during the MySQL query... I'm not really sure that PHP can handle this kind of "event". So if you have any better idea, I can't wait to hear it. Thank you. Update : After further investigation, I found that the problem happen only with the Symfony framework (that I omitted to precise, my bad). It seems that an Ajax call lock any other future call. It maybe related to the controller or the routing system, I'm looking into it. Also for those interested by the problem here is my new test case : -new project with Symfony 1.4.3, default configuration, I just created an app and a default module. -jquery 1.4 for the ajax query. Here is my actions.class.php (in my unique module) : class defaultActions extends sfActions { public function executeIndex(sfWebRequest $request) { //Do nothing } public function executeNewpage() { //Do also nothing } public function executeWaitingaction(){ // Wait sleep(30); return false; } } Here is my indexSuccess.php template file : <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.4.1.min.js"></script> <a href="<?php echo url_for('default/newpage');?>">Go to another symfony action</a> <script type="text/javascript"> url = '<?php echo url_for('default/waitingaction');?>'; $.get(url); </script> For the new page template, it's not very relevant... But with this, I'm able to reproduce the lock problem I've on my real application. Is somebody else having the same issue ? Thanks.

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• XmlHttpRequest bug?

  - by valdo

  Hello all. I'm writing a program that among other things needs to download a file given its URL. I'm too lazy to implement the Http/Https protocols manually, so that I needed some library/object/function that'll do the job. Critical requirement: The download must be asynchronous. That is, the thread that issued the download must be able to do something else "while" downloading the file, plus the download must be able to be aborted anytime without any barbaric side effects (such as internal call to TerminateThread). Nice-to-have requirements: Should be able to download the file "into memory". Means - read the contents of the file as they arrive, not necessarily save it into some "file system" file. It'd be nice to have some convenient Win32 progress notification mechanism (waitable event, semahpore, completion port, etc.), rather than just periodically polling the download status. I've chosen the XmlHttpRequest COM object to do the work. It seemed to work fine enough, plus it supported asynchronous mode. However I noticed that after some period it just stops working. That is, after several successful file downloads it stops downloading anything. I periodically poll it to get its status, it reports "in-progress", but nothing actually happens, and there's no network activity. Moreover, when the same process creates another instance of XmlHttpRequest object to perform new downloads - the effect is the same. The object reports "in progress", whereas it doesn't even try to connect to the server (according to network sniffers and system TCP state). The only way to make this object work back is to restart the process. This makes me suspect that there's a sort of a bug (sorry, I meant undocumented feature) in the object. Also it's not a bug at the level of an individual object, since the problem persists when the object is destroyed and another one is created. It's probably some global state of the DLL that implements this object. Does anyone know something about this? Is this a known bug? I'm pretty sure there's no chance that I have another bug in my code, because of which it seems to me to be the bug is in the XmlHttpRequest. I've done enoughtests and spent time with the debugger to conclude without reasonable doubt that it's just the object stops working. BTW, while the object should work, I do all the waiting via MsgWaitXXXX API calls. So that if this object needs the message loop to work properly (for instance, it may create a hidden notification window and bind it to a socket via WSAAsyncSelect) - I give it the opportunity.

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• How to create 2 different scripts for 2 browsers (IE+all the rest)

  - by Barnabas Nagy

  I'm trying to solve an IE CSS issue by using conditional tags. My jQuery that does the job of tabbed box effect calls an id that is inside the conditional tags. I've given new ids to IE so on IE the jQuery is not working. I tried to duplicate the script with the new id in one of the script but the 2 scripts seems to get in conflict. My jQuery (in between the head tags) is (for all all browsers except IE): <script> var currentTab = 0; // Set to a different number to start on a different tab. function openTab(clickedTab) { var thisTab = $(".tabbed-box .tabs a").index(clickedTab); $(".tabbed-box .tabs li a").removeClass("active"); $(".tabbed-box .tabs li a:eq("+thisTab+")").addClass("active"); $(".tabbed-box .tabbed-content").hide(); $(".tabbed-box .tabbed-content:eq("+thisTab+")").show(); currentTab = thisTab; } $(document).ready(function() { $(".tabs li:eq(0) a").css("border-left", "none"); $(".tabbed-box .tabs li a").click(function() { openTab($(this)); return false; }); $(".tabbed-box .tabs li a:eq("+currentTab+")").click() }); </script> And I would need this for IE: <script> var currentTab = 0; // Set to a different number to start on a different tab. function openTab(clickedTab) { var thisTab = $(".tabbed-box .tabs a").index(clickedTab); $(".tabbed-box ie-.tabs li a").removeClass("active"); $(".tabbed-box ie-.tabs li a:eq("+thisTab+")").addClass("active"); $(".tabbed-box .tabbed-content").hide(); $(".tabbed-box .tabbed-content:eq("+thisTab+")").show(); currentTab = thisTab; } $(document).ready(function() { $(".ie-tabs li:eq(0) a").css("border-left", "none"); $(".tabbed-box .ie-tabs li a").click(function() { openTab($(this)); return false; }); $(".tabbed-box .ie-tabs li a:eq("+currentTab+")").click() }); </script> Having the 2 scripts in the head conflicts with each other. Maybe there is a way to combine them?

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• Simplest way to flatten document to a view in RavenDB

  - by degorolls

  Given the following classes: public class Lookup { public string Code { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class DocA { public string Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public Lookup Currency { get; set; } } public class ViewA // Simply a flattened version of the doc { public string Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public string CurrencyName { get; set; } // View just gets the name of the currency } I can create an index that allows client to query the view as follows: public class A_View : AbstractIndexCreationTask<DocA, ViewA> { public A_View() { Map = docs => from doc in docs select new ViewA { Id = doc.Id, Name = doc.Name, CurrencyName = doc.Currency.Name }; Reduce = results => from result in results group on new ViewA { Id = result.Id, Name = result.Name, CurrencyName = result.CurrencyName } into g select new ViewA { Id = g.Key.Id, Name = g.Key.Name, CurrencyName = g.Key.CurrencyName }; } } This certainly works and produces the desired result of a view with the data transformed to the structure required at the client application. However, it is unworkably verbose, will be a maintenance nightmare and is probably fairly inefficient with all the redundant object construction. Is there a simpler way of creating an index with the required structure (ViewA) given a collection of documents (DocA)? FURTHER INFORMATION The issue appears to be that in order to have the index hold the data in the transformed structure (ViewA), we have to do a Reduce. It appears that a Reduce must have both a GROUP ON and a SELECT in order to work as expected so the following are not valid: INVALID REDUCE CLAUSE 1: Reduce = results => from result in results group on new ViewA { Id = result.Id, Name = result.Name, CurrencyName = result.CurrencyName } into g select g.Key; This produces: System.InvalidOperationException: Variable initializer select must have a lambda expression with an object create expression Clearly we need to have the 'select new'. INVALID REDUCE CLAUSE 2: Reduce = results => from result in results select new ViewA { Id = result.Id, Name = result.Name, CurrencyName = result.CurrencyName }; This prduces: System.InvalidCastException: Unable to cast object of type 'ICSharpCode.NRefactory.Ast.IdentifierExpression' to type 'ICSharpCode.NRefactory.Ast.InvocationExpression'. Clearly, we also need to have the 'group on new'. Thanks for any assistance you can provide. (Note: removing the type (ViewA) from the constructor calls has no effect on the above)

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• Java app makes screen display unresponsive after 10 minutes of user idle time

  - by Ross

  I've written a Java app that allows users to script mouse/keyboard input (JMacro, link not important, only for the curious). I personally use the application to automate character actions in an online game overnight while I sleep. Unfortunately, I keep coming back to the computer in the morning to find it unresponsive. Upon further testing, I'm finding that my application causes the computer to become unresponsive after about 10 minutes of user idle time (even if the application itself it simulating user activity). I can't seem to pin-point the issue, so I'm hoping somebody else might have a suggestion of where to look or what might be causing the issue. The relevant symptoms and characteristics: Unresponsiveness occurs after user is idle for 10 minutes User can still move the mouse pointer around the screen Everything but the mouse appears frozen... mouse clicks have no effect and no applications update their displays, including the Windows 7 desktop I left the task manager up along the with the app overnight so I could see the last task manager image before the screen freezes... the Java app is at normal CPU/Memory usage and total CPU usage is only ~1% After moving the mouse (in other words, the user comes back from being idle), the screen image starts updating again within 30 minutes (this is very hit and miss... sometimes 10 minutes, sometimes no results after two hours) User can CTRL-ALT-DEL to get to Windows 7's CTRL-ALT-DEL screen (after a 30 second pause). User is still able to move mouse pointer, but clicking any of the button options causes the screen to appear to freeze again On some very rare occasions, the system never freezes, and I come back to it in the morning with full responsiveness The Java app automatically stops input scripting in the middle of the night, so Windows 7 detects "real" idleness and turns the monitors into Standby mode... which they successfully come out of upon manually moving the mouse in the morning when I wake up, even though the desktop display still appears frozen Given the symptoms and characteristics of the issue, it's as if the Java app is causing the desktop display of the logged in user to stop updating, including any running applications. Programming concepts and Java packages used: Multi-threading Standard out and err are rerouted to a javax.swing.JTextArea The application uses a Swing GUI awt.Robot (very heavily used) awt.PointerInfo awt.MouseInfo System Specs: Windows 7 Professional Java 1.6.0 u17 In conclusion, I should stress that I'm not looking for any specific solutions, as I'm not asking a very specific question. I'm just wondering if anybody has run into a similar problem when using the Java libraries that I'm using. I would also gladly appreciate any suggestions for things to try to attempt to further pinpoint what is causing my problem. Thanks! Ross PS, I'll post an update/answer if I manage to stumble across anything else while I continue to debug this.

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• UIScrollView Infinite Scrolling

  - by Ben Robinson

  I'm attempting to setup a scrollview with infinite (horizontal) scrolling. Scrolling forward is easy - I have implemented scrollViewDidScroll, and when the contentOffset gets near the end I make the scrollview contentsize bigger and add more data into the space (i'll have to deal with the crippling effect this will have later!) My problem is scrolling back - the plan is to see when I get near the beginning of the scroll view, then when I do make the contentsize bigger, move the existing content along, add the new data to the beginning and then - importantly adjust the contentOffset so the data under the view port stays the same. This works perfectly if I scroll slowly (or enable paging) but if I go fast (not even very fast!) it goes mad! Heres the code: - (void) scrollViewDidScroll:(UIScrollView *)scrollView { float pageNumber = scrollView.contentOffset.x / 320; float pageCount = scrollView.contentSize.width / 320; if (pageNumber > pageCount-4) { //Add 10 new pages to end mainScrollView.contentSize = CGSizeMake(mainScrollView.contentSize.width + 3200, mainScrollView.contentSize.height); //add new data here at (320*pageCount, 0); } //*** the problem is here - I use updatingScrollingContent to make sure its only called once (for accurate testing!) if (pageNumber < 4 && !updatingScrollingContent) { updatingScrollingContent = YES; mainScrollView.contentSize = CGSizeMake(mainScrollView.contentSize.width + 3200, mainScrollView.contentSize.height); mainScrollView.contentOffset = CGPointMake(mainScrollView.contentOffset.x + 3200, 0); for (UIView *view in [mainContainerView subviews]) { view.frame = CGRectMake(view.frame.origin.x+3200, view.frame.origin.y, view.frame.size.width, view.frame.size.height); } //add new data here at (0, 0); } //** MY CHECK! NSLog(@"%f", mainScrollView.contentOffset.x); } As the scrolling happens the log reads: 1286.500000 1285.500000 1284.500000 1283.500000 1282.500000 1281.500000 1280.500000 Then, when pageNumber<4 (we're getting near the beginning): 4479.500000 4479.500000 Great! - but the numbers should continue to go down in the 4,000s but the next log entries read: 1278.000000 1277.000000 1276.500000 1275.500000 etc.... Continiuing from where it left off! Just for the record, if scrolled slowly the log reads: 1294.500000 1290.000000 1284.500000 1280.500000 4476.000000 4476.000000 4473.000000 4470.000000 4467.500000 4464.000000 4460.500000 4457.500000 etc.... Any ideas???? Thanks Ben.

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• vim plugin to show current Perl subroutine

  - by Andrew

  I'm trying to make a vim plugin that will split the window on load and simulate a info bar at the top of my terminal. I've got it sorta working but I think I've either reached limits of my knowledge of vim syntax or there's a logic problem in my code. The desired effect would be to do a reverse search for any declaration of a Perl subroutine form my current location in the active buffer and display the line in the top buffer. I'm also trying to make it skip that buffer when I switch buffers with <C-R>. My attempt at that so far can be seen in the mess of nested if statements. Anyway, here's the code. I would greatly appreciate feedback from anyone. (pastebin pastebin.com/8cuMPn1Q) let s:current_function_bufname = 'Current\ Function\/Subroutine' function! s:get_current_function_name(no_echo) let lnum = line(".") let col = col(".") if a:no_echo let s:current_function_name = getline(search("^[^s]sub .$", 'bW')) else echohl ModeMsg echo getline(search("^[^s]sub .$", 'bW')) "echo getline(search("^[^ \t#/]\{2}.[^:]\s$", 'bW')) echohl None endif endfunction let s:previous_winbufnr = 1 let s:current_function_name = '' let s:current_function_buffer_created = 0 let s:current_function_bufnr = 2 function! s:show_current_function() let total_buffers = winnr('$') let current_winbufnr = winnr() if s:previous_winbufnr != current_winbufnr if bufname(current_winbufnr) == s:current_function_bufname if s:previous_winbufnr < current_winbufnr let i = current_winbufnr + 1 if i total_buffers let i = 1 endif if i == s:current_function_bufnr let i = i + 1 endif if i total buffers let i = 1 endif exec i.'wincmd w' else let i = current_winbufnr - 1 if i < 1 let i = total_buffers endif if i == s:current_function_bufnr let i = i - 1 endif if i < 1 let i = total_buffers endif try exec i.'wincmd w' finally exec total_buffers.'wincmd w' endtry endif endif let s:previous_winbufnr = current_winbufnr return 1 endif if s:current_function_buffer_created == 0 exec 'top 1 split '.s:current_function_bufname call s:set_as_scratch_buffer() let s:current_function_buffer_created = 1 let s:current_function_bufnr = winnr() endif call s:activate_buffer_by_name(s:current_function_bufname) setlocal modifiable call s:get_current_function_name(1) call setline(1, s:current_function_name) setlocal nomodifiable call s:activate_buffer_by_name(bufname(current_winbufnr)) endfunction function! s:set_as_scratch_buffer() setlocal noswapfile setlocal nomodifiable setlocal bufhidden=delete setlocal buftype=nofile setlocal nobuflisted setlocal nonumber setlocal nowrap setlocal cursorline endfunction function! s:activate_buffer_by_name(name) for i in range(1, winnr('$')) let name = bufname(winbufnr(i)) let full_name = fnamemodify(bufname(winbufnr(i)), ':p') if name == a:name || full_name == a:name exec i.'wincmd w' return 1 endif endfor return 0 endfunction set laststatus=2 autocmd! CursorMoved,CursorMovedI,BufWinEnter * call s:show_current_function() (pastebin pastebin.com/8cuMPn1Q) similar to VIM: display custom reference bar on top of window and http://vim.wikia.com/wiki/Show_current_function_name_in_C_programs

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• Infinite loop when adding a row to a list in a class in python3

  - by Margaret

  I have a script which contains two classes. (I'm obviously deleting a lot of stuff that I don't believe is relevant to the error I'm dealing with.) The eventual task is to create a decision tree, as I mentioned in this question. Unfortunately, I'm getting an infinite loop, and I'm having difficulty identifying why. I've identified the line of code that's going haywire, but I would have thought the iterator and the list I'm adding to would be different objects. Is there some side effect of list's .append functionality that I'm not aware of? Or am I making some other blindingly obvious mistake? class Dataset: individuals = [] #Becomes a list of dictionaries, in which each dictionary is a row from the CSV with the headers as keys def field_set(self): #Returns a list of the fields in individuals[] that can be used to split the data (i.e. have more than one value amongst the individuals def classified(self, predicted_value): #Returns True if all the individuals have the same value for predicted_value def fields_exhausted(self, predicted_value): #Returns True if all the individuals are identical except for predicted_value def lowest_entropy_value(self, predicted_value): #Returns the field that will reduce <a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Entropy_%28information_theory%29">entropy</a> the most def __init__(self, individuals=[]): and class Node: ds = Dataset() #The data that is associated with this Node links = [] #List of Nodes, the offspring Nodes of this node level = 0 #Tree depth of this Node split_value = '' #Field used to split out this Node from the parent node node_value = '' #Value used to split out this Node from the parent Node def split_dataset(self, split_value): fields = [] #List of options for split_value amongst the individuals datasets = {} #Dictionary of Datasets, each one with a value from fields[] as its key for field in self.ds.field_set()[split_value]: #Populates the keys of fields[] fields.append(field) datasets[field] = Dataset() for i in self.ds.individuals: #Adds individuals to the datasets.dataset that matches their result for split_value datasets[i[split_value]].individuals.append(i) #<---Causes an infinite loop on the second hit for field in fields: #Creates subnodes from each of the datasets.Dataset options self.add_subnode(datasets[field],split_value,field) def add_subnode(self, dataset, split_value='', node_value=''): def __init__(self, level, dataset=Dataset()): My initialisation code is currently: if __name__ == '__main__': filename = (sys.argv[1]) #Takes in a CSV file predicted_value = "# class" #Identifies the field from the CSV file that should be predicted base_dataset = parse_csv(filename) #Turns the CSV file into a list of lists parsed_dataset = individual_list(base_dataset) #Turns the list of lists into a list of dictionaries root = Node(0, Dataset(parsed_dataset)) #Creates a root node, passing it the full dataset root.split_dataset(root.ds.lowest_entropy_value(predicted_value)) #Performs the first split, creating multiple subnodes n = root.links[0] n.split_dataset(n.ds.lowest_entropy_value(predicted_value)) #Attempts to split the first subnode.

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• .NET and C# Exceptions. What is it reasonable to catch.

  - by djna

  Disclaimer, I'm from a Java background. I don't do much C#. There's a great deal of transfer between the two worlds, but of course there are differences and one is in the way Exceptions tend to be thought about. I recently answered a C# question suggesting that under some circstances it's reasonable to do this: try { some work } catch (Exeption e) { commonExceptionHandler(); } (The reasons why are immaterial). I got a response that I don't quite understand: until .NET 4.0, it's very bad to catch Exception. It means you catch various low-level fatal errors and so disguise bugs. It also means that in the event of some kind of corruption that triggers such an exception, any open finally blocks on the stack will be executed, so even if the callExceptionReporter fuunction tries to log and quit, it may not even get to that point (the finally blocks may throw again, or cause more corruption, or delete something important from the disk or database). May I'm more confused than I realise, but I don't agree with some of that. Please would other folks comment. I understand that there are many low level Exceptions we don't want to swallow. My commonExceptionHandler() function could reasonably rethrow those. This seems consistent with this answer to a related question. Which does say "Depending on your context it can be acceptable to use catch(...), providing the exception is re-thrown." So I conclude using catch (Exception ) is not always evil, silently swallowing certain exceptions is. The phrase "Until .NET 4 it is very bad to Catch Exception" What changes in .NET 4? IS this a reference to AggregateException, which may give us some new things to do with exceptions we catch, but I don't think changes the fundamental "don't swallow" rule. The next phrase really bothers be. Can this be right? It also means that in the event of some kind of corruption that triggers such an exception, any open finally blocks on the stack will be executed (the finally blocks may throw again, or cause more corruption, or delete something important from the disk or database) My understanding is that if some low level code had lowLevelMethod() { try { lowestLevelMethod(); } finally { some really important stuff } } and in my code I call lowLevel(); try { lowLevel() } catch (Exception e) { exception handling and maybe rethrowing } Whether or not I catch Exception this has no effect whatever on the excution of the finally block. By the time we leave lowLevelMethod() the finally has already run. If the finally is going to do any of the bad things, such as corrupt my disk, then it will do so. My catching the Exception made no difference. If It reaches my Exception block I need to do the right thing, but I can't be the cause of dmis-executing finallys

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• Windows splash screen using GDI+

  - by Luther

  The eventual aim of this is to have a splash screen in windows that uses transparency but that's not what I'm stuck on at the moment. In order to create a transparent window, I'm first trying to composite the splash screen and text on an off screen buffer using GDI+. At the moment I'm just trying to composite the buffer and display it in response to a 'WM_PAINT' message. This isn't working out at the moment; all I see is a black window. I imagine I've misunderstood something with regards to setting up render targets in GDI+ and then rendering them (I'm trying to render the screen using straight forward GDI blit) Anyway, here's the code so far: //my window initialisation code void MyWindow::create_hwnd(HINSTANCE instance, const SIZE &dim) { DWORD ex_style = WS_EX_LAYERED ; //eventually I'll be making use of this layerd flag m_hwnd = CreateWindowEx( ex_style, szFloatingWindowClass , L"", WS_POPUP , 0, 0, dim.cx, dim.cy, null, null, instance, null); SetWindowLongPtr(m_hwnd ,0, (__int3264)(LONG_PTR)this); m_display_dc = GetDC(NULL); //This was sanity check test code - just loading a standard HBITMAP and displaying it in WM_PAINT. It worked fine //HANDLE handle= LoadImage(NULL , L"c:\\test_image2.bmp", IMAGE_BITMAP, 0, 0, LR_LOADFROMFILE); m_gdip_offscreen_bm = new Gdiplus::Bitmap(dim.cx, dim.cy); m_gdi_dc = Gdiplus::Graphics::FromImage(m_gdip_offscreen_bm);//new Gdiplus::Graphics(m_splash_dc );//window_dc ;m_splash_dc //this draws the conents of my splash screen - this works if I create a GDI+ context for the window, rather than for an offscreen bitmap. //For all I know, it might actually be working but when I try to display the contents on screen, it shows a black image draw_all(); //this is just to show that drawing something simple on the offscreen bit map seems to have no effect Gdiplus::Pen pen(Gdiplus::Color(255, 0, 0, 255)); m_gdi_dc->DrawLine(&pen, 0,0,100,100); DWORD last_error = GetLastError(); //returns '0' at this stage } And here's the snipit that handles the WM_PAINT message: ---8<----------------------- //Paint message snippit case WM_PAINT: { BITMAP bm; PAINTSTRUCT ps; HDC hdc = BeginPaint(vg->m_hwnd, &ps); //get the HWNDs DC HDC hdcMem = vg->m_gdi_dc->GetHDC(); //get the HDC from our offscreen GDI+ object unsigned int width = vg->m_gdip_offscreen_bm->GetWidth(); //width and height seem fine at this point unsigned int height = vg->m_gdip_offscreen_bm->GetHeight(); BitBlt(hdc, 0, 0, width, height, hdcMem, 0, 0, SRCCOPY); //this blits a black rectangle DWORD last_error = GetLastError(); //this was '0' vg->m_gdi_dc->ReleaseHDC(hdcMem); EndPaint(vg->m_hwnd, &ps); //end paint return 1; } ---8<----------------------- My apologies for the long post. Does anybody know what I'm not quite understanding regarding how you write to an offscreen buffer using GDI+ (or GDI for that matter)and then display this on screen? Thank you for reading.

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• LinearLayout as custom button, OnClickListener never called

  - by ohra

  I've been using the common Android Button with both icon (drawableTop) and text. It works really poorly if you want to have a non-standard size button, so I decided to make a custom button with a LinearLayout having the following layout: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" style="@style/ButtonHoloDark" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:gravity="center" android:clickable="true" android:focusable="true" android:orientation="vertical" > <ImageView android:id="@+id/buttonIcon" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:duplicateParentState="true" /> <TextView android:id="@+id/buttonText" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:duplicateParentState="true" android:gravity="center" android:textColor="@color/white" /> </LinearLayout> The layout is used by a custom class: public class CustomIconButton extends LinearLayout { public CustomIconButton(Context context, AttributeSet attrs) { super(context, attrs); setAttributes(context, attrs); LayoutInflater.from(context).inflate(R.layout.custom_icon_button, this, true); } ... But when I set an OnClickListener on my button in its parent layout it never gets called. I can only receive clicks if a set the listener to the ImageView and/or TextView. This leads to two possible effects when the button is clicked: The click is inside the ImageView or the TextView. The click is registered ok, but the buttons state drawable doesn't change i.e. it doesn't appear depressed. The click is inside the "empty area" of the button. The click is not registered, but the state drawable works ok. Neither of these is feasible. I've played around with the following attributes on the LinearLayout or its children, but none really seem to have any effect whether true or false: duplicateParentState clickable focusable There doesn't seem to be any reasonable way to get the LinearLayout parent receive clicks instead of its children. I've seen some possible solutions overriding dispatchTouchEvent or onInterceptTouchEvent on the custom component itself, but that really seems like a big mess if I have to start analyzing touch events to identify proper clicks. So OnClickListener on a LinearLayout with children = no go?

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• JSF 2.0: Preserving component state across multiple views

  - by tlind

  The web application I am developing using MyFaces 2.0.3 / PrimeFaces 2.2RC2 is divided into a content and a navigation area. In the navigation area, which is included into multiple pages using templating (i.e. <ui:define>), there are some widgets (e.g. a navigation tree, collapsible panels etc.) of which I want to preserve the component state across views. For example, let's say I am on the home page. When I navigate to a product details page by clicking on a product in the navigation tree, my Java code triggers a redirect using navigationHandler.handleNavigation(context, null, "/detailspage.jsf?faces-redirect=true") Another way of getting to that details page would be by directly clicking on a product teaser that is shown on the home page. The corresponding <h:link> would lead us to the details page. In both cases, the expansion state of my navigation tree (a PrimeFaces tree component) and my collapsible panels is lost. I understand this is because the redirect / h:link results in the creation of a new view. What is the best way of dealing with this? I am already using MyFaces Orchestra in my project along with its conversation scope, but I am not sure if this is of any help here (since I'd have to bind the expansion/collapsed state of the widgets to a backing bean... but as far as I know, this is not possible). Is there a way of telling JSF which component states to propagate to the next view, assuming that the same component exists in that view? I guess I could need a pointer into the right direction here. Thanks! Update 1: I just tried binding the panels and the tree to a session-scoped bean, but this seems to have no effect. Also, I guess I would have to bind all child components (if any) manually, so this doesn't seem like the way to go. Update 2: Binding UI components to non-request scoped beans is not a good idea (see link I posted in a comment below). If there is no easier approach, I might have to proceed as follows: When a panel is collapsed or the tree is expanded, save the current state in a session-scoped backing bean (!= the UI component itself) The components' states are stored in a map. The map key is the component's (hopefully) unique, relative ID. I cannot use the whole absolute component path here, since the IDs of the parent naming containers might change if the view changes, assuming these IDs are generated programmatically. As soon as a new view gets constructed, retrieve the components' states from the map and apply them to the components. For example, in case of the panels, I can set the collapsed attribute to a value retrieved from my session-scoped backing bean.

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• AJAX, same-origin Policy and working XML Requests

  - by Joern

  Hello guys, so, currently I develop Widgets for Smartphones and am going a bit more advanced into fields of data exchange between client and server applications. My problem is: For my current project I want my client file to request data from a PHP script with the help of AJAX XmlHttpRequest and the POST method: function xmlRequestNotes() { var parameter = 'p=1234'; xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.open("POST", url, true); // Http Header xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-length", parameter.length); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { json = JSON.parse(xmlhttp.responseText); // Doing Stuff with the Response } }; xmlhttp.send(parameter); } This works perfectly fine on my local server set up in XAMPP and the local Widget emulator. But if it gets onto the device (also with access to the target network) I receive the 101 Network Error. And as far as I have read, this is due to the "Same-Origin Policy" of XmlHttpRequests? My problem is to really understand that. Although the idea of this policy is clear to me, I'm a bit confused by the fact that another XmlHttpRequest for a Yahoo Weather XML Feed works fine. Now, could anyone be so helpful to enlighten me? Here is the request that returns a city name from Yahoo's weather feed: function getCityName() { xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.open("GET", "http://weather.yahooapis.com/forecastrss?w=645458&u=c", true); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { xmlhttp.responseXML; var yweather = "http://xml.weather.yahoo.com/ns/rss/1.0"; alert(xmlhttp.responseXML.getElementsByTagNameNS(yweather, "location")[0].getAttribute("city")); } }; xmlhttp.send(null); } Obvious differences are the POST and GET methods for once, but seeing that the Same-Origin Policy takes effect no matter what method, I can't really make much sense of it. Why does the latter request work but not the first? I would really appreciate some help here. Greetings and a merry Christmas to you guys!

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• java multipart POST library

  - by tom

  Is there a multipart POST library out there that achieve the same effect of doing a POST from a html form? for example - upload a file programmingly in Java versus upload the file using a html form. And on the server side, it just blindly expect the request from client side to be a multipart POST request and parse out the data as appropriate. Has anyone tried this? specifically, I am trying to see if I can simulate the following with Java The user creates a blob by submitting an HTML form that includes one or more file input fields. Your app sets blobstoreService.createUploadUrl() as the destination (action) of this form, passing the function a URL path of a handler in your app. When the user submits the form, the user's browser uploads the specified files directly to the Blobstore. The Blobstore rewrites the user's request and stores the uploaded file data, replacing the uploaded file data with one or more corresponding blob keys, then passes the rewritten request to the handler at the URL path you provided to blobstoreService.createUploadUrl(). This handler can do additional processing based on the blob key. Finally, the handler must return a headers-only, redirect response (301, 302, or 303), typically a browser redirect to another page indicating the status of the blob upload. Set blobstoreService.createUploadUrl as the form action, passing the application path to load when the POST of the form is completed. <body> <form action="<%= blobstoreService.createUploadUrl("/upload") %>" method="post" enctype="multipart/form-data"> <input type="file" name="myFile"> <input type="submit" value="Submit"> </form> </body> Note that this is how the upload form would look if it were created as a JSP. The form must include a file upload field, and the form's enctype must be set to multipart/form-data. When the user submits the form, the POST is handled by the Blobstore API, which creates the blob. The API also creates an info record for the blob and stores the record in the datastore, and passes the rewritten request to your app on the given path as a blob key.

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• dynamic module creation

  - by intuited

  I'd like to dynamically create a module from a dictionary, and I'm wondering if adding an element to sys.modules is really the best way to do this. EG context = { a: 1, b: 2 } import types test_context_module = types.ModuleType('TestContext', 'Module created to provide a context for tests') test_context_module.__dict__.update(context) import sys sys.modules['TestContext'] = test_context_module My immediate goal in this regard is to be able to provide a context for timing test execution: import timeit timeit.Timer('a + b', 'from TestContext import *') It seems that there are other ways to do this, since the Timer constructor takes objects as well as strings. I'm still interested in learning how to do this though, since a) it has other potential applications; and b) I'm not sure exactly how to use objects with the Timer constructor; doing so may prove to be less appropriate than this approach in some circumstances. EDITS/REVELATIONS/PHOOEYS/EUREKAE: I've realized that the example code relating to running timing tests won't actually work, because import * only works at the module level, and the context in which that statement is executed is that of a function in the testit module. In other words, the globals dictionary used when executing that code is that of main, since that's where I was when I wrote the code in the interactive shell. So that rationale for figuring this out is a bit botched, but it's still a valid question. I've discovered that the code run in the first set of examples has the undesirable effect that the namespace in which the newly created module's code executes is that of the module in which it was declared, not its own module. This is like way weird, and could lead to all sorts of unexpected rattlesnakeic sketchiness. So I'm pretty sure that this is not how this sort of thing is meant to be done, if it is in fact something that the Guido doth shine upon. The similar-but-subtly-different case of dynamically loading a module from a file that is not in python's include path is quite easily accomplished using imp.load_source('NewModuleName', 'path/to/module/module_to_load.py'). This does load the module into sys.modules. However this doesn't really answer my question, because really, what if you're running python on an embedded platform with no filesystem? I'm battling a considerable case of information overload at the moment, so I could be mistaken, but there doesn't seem to be anything in the imp module that's capable of this. But the question, essentially, at this point is how to set the global (ie module) context for an object. Maybe I should ask that more specifically? And at a larger scope, how to get Python to do this while shoehorning objects into a given module?

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• Where are the function literals in c++?

  - by academicRobot

  First of all, maybe literals is not the right term for this concept, but its the closest I could think of (not literals in the sense of functions as first class citizens). The idea is that when you make a conventional function call, it compiles to something like this: callq <immediate address> But if you make a function call using a function pointer, it compiles to something like this: mov <memory location>,%rax callq *%rax Which is all well and good. However, what if I'm writing a template library that requires a callback of some sort with a specified argument list and the user of the library is expected to know what function they want to call at compile time? Then I would like to write my template to accept a function literal as a template parameter. So, similar to template <int int_literal> struct my_template {...};` I'd like to write template <func_literal_t func_literal> struct my_template {...}; and have calls to func_literal within my_template compile to callq <immediate address>. Is there a facility in C++ for this, or a work around to achieve the same effect? If not, why not (e.g. some cataclysmic side effects)? How about C++0x or another language? Solutions that are not portable are fine. Solutions that include the use of member function pointers would be ideal. I'm not particularly interested in being told "You are a <socially unacceptable term for a person of low IQ>, just use function pointers/functors." This is a curiosity based question, and it seems that it might be useful in some (albeit limited) applications. It seems like this should be possible since function names are just placeholders for a (relative) memory address, so why not allow more liberal use (e.g. aliasing) of this placeholder. p.s. I use function pointers and functions objects all the the time and they are great. But this post got me thinking about the don't pay for what you don't use principle in relation to function calls, and it seems like forcing the use of function pointers or similar facility when the function is known at compile time is a violation of this principle, though a small one.

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