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• EAGLContext, EAGLSharegroups, RenderBuffers, FrameBuffers, oh my!

  - by quixoto

  Hi all, I'm trying to wrap my head around the OpenGL object model on iPhone OS. I'm currently rendering into a few different UIViews (build on CAEAGLayers) on the screen. I currently have each of these as using separate EAGLContext, each of which has a color renderbuffer and a framebuffer. I'm rendering similar things in them, and I'd like to share textures between these instances to save memory overhead. My current understanding is that I could use the same setup (some number of contexts, each with a FBO/RBO) but if I spawn the later ones using the EAGLShareGroup of the first one, then I can simply use the texture names (GLuints) from the first one in the later ones. Is this accurate? If this is the case, I guess the followup question is: what's the benefit to having it be a "sharegroup"? Could I just reuse the same context, and attach multiple FBOs/RBOs to that context? I think I'm struggling with the abstraction layer of a sharegroup, which seems to share "objects" (textures and other named things) but not "state" (matrices, enabled/disabled states) which are owned by the context. What's the best way to think of this? Thanks for any enlightenment!

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• Implementing Operator Overloading with Logarithms in C++

  - by Jacob Relkin

  Hello my friends, I'm having some issues with implementing a logarithm class with operator overloading in C++. My first goal is how I would implement the changeBase method, I've been having a tough time wrapping my head around it. My secoond goal is to be able to perform an operation where the left operand is a double and the right operand is a logarithm object. Here's a snippet of my log class: // coefficient: double // base: unsigned int // number: double class _log { double coefficient, number; unsigned int base; public: _log() { base = rand(); coefficient = rand(); number = rand(); } _log operator+ ( const double b ) const; _log operator* ( const double b ) const; _log operator- ( const double b ) const; _log operator/ ( const double b ) const; _log operator<< ( const _log &b ); double getValue() const; bool changeBase( unsigned int base ); }; You guys are awesome, thank you for your time.

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• Getting a variable into another class through properties or button tags with Iphone SDK?

  - by MarcZero

  Hello. I have been pounding my head against a wall trying to figure out what I think is a simple thing to do, but I have, so far, been unable to figure it out with the iPhone SDK. I have a view with 4 buttons. When I push the buttons, I have another view called and come up to take over the screen. I want to have a simple variable passed from the old view to the new view. The purpose of this is to know what button was pressed out of the four identical ones. (trying to get an int value of 1 through 4) Here is what I have tried so far: I initially tried to call the variable from the class itself. My understanding was that my new view was only sitting on top of the old view, so it should not have been released. I could not get access to the variable as the variable was said to not be declared. I then tried to create a method that would return the int value. Again, the view class was not seen and was being declared as a "first use" of it. I then attempted to follow another similar post on here that suggested to try and send the button tag number to some part of the new view. I attempted to do this by setting the new views button title but I still cannot figure out a way to code it without coming up with errors. I am just looking for what method would be the best for me to pursue. I have no problem going back and reading the books on Objective-C, but I'm just trying to figure out which way I should concentrate on. Thank you for any insight.

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• How to Bind Data and manipulate it in a GridView with MVP

  - by DotNetDan

  I am new to the whole MVP thing and slowly getting my head around it all. The a problem I am having is how to stay consistent with the MVP methodology when populating GridViews (and ddls, but we will tackle that later). Is it okay to have it connected straight to an ObjectDataSourceID? To me this seems wrong because it bypasses all the separation of concerns MVP was made to do. So, with that said, how do I do it? How do I handle sorting (do I send over handler events to the presentation layer, if so how does that look in code)? Right now I have a GridView that has no sorting. Code below. ListCustomers.aspx.cs: public partial class ListCustomers : System.Web.UI.Page, IlistCustomer { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { //On every page load, create a new presenter object with //constructor recieving the // page's IlistCustomer view ListUserPresenter ListUser_P = new ListUserPresenter(this); //Call the presenter's PopulateList to bind data to gridview ListUser_P.PopulateList(); } GridView IlistCustomer.UserGridView { get { return gvUsers; } set { gvUsers = value; } } } Interface ( IlistCustomer.cs): is this bad sending in an entire Gridview control? public interface IlistCustomer { GridView UserGridView { set; get; } } The Presenter (ListUserPresenter.cs): public class ListUserPresenter { private IlistCustomer view_listCustomer; private GridView gvListCustomers; private DataTable objDT; public ListUserPresenter( IlistCustomer view) { //Handle an error if an Ilistcustomer was not sent in) if (view == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("ListCustomer View cannot be blank"); //Set local IlistCustomer interface view this.view_listCustomer = view; } public void PopulateList() { //Fill local Gridview with local IlistCustomer gvListCustomers = view_listCustomer.UserGridView; // Instantiate a new CustomerBusiness object to contact database CustomerBusiness CustomerBiz = new CustomerBusiness(); //Call CustomerBusiness's GetListCustomers to fill DataTable object objDT = CustomerBiz.GetListCustomers(); //Bind DataTable to gridview; gvListCustomers.DataSource = objDT; gvListCustomers.DataBind(); } }

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• Audio playback, creating nested loop for fade in/out.

  - by Dave Slevin

  Hi Folks, First time poster here. A quick question about setting up a loop here. I want to set up a for loop for the first 1/3 of the main loop that will increase a value from .00001 or similar to 1. So I can use it to multiply a sample variable so as to create a fade-in in this simple audio file playback routine. So far it's turning out to be a bit of a head scratcher, any help greatfully recieved. for(i=0; i < end && !feof(fpin); i+=blockframes) { samples = fread(audioblock, sizeof(short), blocksamples, fpin); frames = samples; for(j=0; j < frames; j++) { for (f = 0; f< frames/3 ;f++) { fade = fade--; } output[j] = audioblock[j]/fade; } fwrite(output,sizeof(short), frames, fpoutput); } Apologies, So far I've read and re-write the file successfully. My problem is I'm trying to figure out a way to loop the variable 'fade' so it either increases or decreases to 1, so as I can modify the output variable. I wanted to do this in say 3 stages: 1. From 0 to frames/3 to increace a multiplication factor from .0001 to 1 2. from frames 1/3 to frames 2/3 to do nothing (multiply by 1) and 3. For the factor to decrease again below 1 so as for the output variable to decrease back to the original point. How can I create a loop that will increase and decrease these values over the outside loop?

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• Coda Slider and Fancybox Conflict

  - by Jings

  Hey there, i have some issues with Coda Slider and Fancybox. I use Fancybox to load an external Site within an Iframe and Coda Slider is for the Content Slider on the Startpage. If i have the jquery-easing Plugin called in my Head fpr the Coda Slider, the Fancybox doesn't work. When i delete the link to jquery-easing-1.3 the Coda Slider throws an Exception but the Fancybox works perfectly Here is some Code: <script type="text/javascript" src="<?php bloginfo('template_directory') ?>/js/jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="<?php bloginfo('template_directory') ?>/fancybox/jquery.fancybox-1.3.4.pack.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="<?php bloginfo('template_directory') ?>/js/coda-slider.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="<?php bloginfo('template_directory') ?>/js/jquery.easing.1.3.js"></script> <script> $(document).ready(function(){ $(".book a").fancybox({ 'width' : '75%', 'height' : '75%', 'speedIn' : 600, 'speedOut' : 200, 'overlayShow' : true, 'type' : 'iframe', 'autoscale' : false, 'hideOnOverlayClick' : true }); $('#coda-slider').codaSlider({ autoSlide: true, autoSlideInterval: 5500, autoHeightEaseDuration: 2500, autoHeightEaseFunction: "easeInOutElastic", slideEaseDuration: 2500, slideEaseFunction: "easeInOutElastic", dynamicArrows: false, dynamicTabs: false }); }); </script> Don't know why this doesn't work as it should :) Hope you Guys know =)

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• Why does the OnDeserialization not fire for XML Deserialization?

  - by Jonathan

  I have a problem which I have been bashing my head against for the better part of three hours. I am almost certain that I've missed something blindingly obvious... I have a simple XML file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <WeightStore xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <Records> <Record actual="150" date="2010-05-01T00:00:00" /> <Record actual="155" date="2010-05-02T00:00:00" /> </Records> </WeightStore> I have a simple class structure: [Serializable] public class Record { [XmlAttribute("actual")] public double weight { get; set; } [XmlAttribute("date")] public DateTime date { get; set; } [XmlIgnore] public double trend { get; set; } } [Serializable] [XmlRoot("WeightStore")] public class SimpleWeightStore { [XmlArrayAttribute("Records")] private List<Record> records = new List<Record>(); public List<Record> Records { get { return records; } } [OnDeserialized()] public void OnDeserialized_Method(StreamingContext context) { // This code never gets called Console.WriteLine("OnDeserialized"); } } I am using these in both calling code and in the class files: using System.Xml.Serialization; using System.Runtime.Serialization; I have some calling code: SimpleWeightStore weight_store_reload = new SimpleWeightStore(); TextReader reader = new StringReader(xml); XmlSerializer deserializer = new XmlSerializer(weight_store.GetType()); weight_store_reload = (SimpleWeightStore)deserializer.Deserialize(reader); The problem is that I am expecting OnDeserialized_Method to get called, and it isn't. I suspect it might have something to do with the fact that it's XML deserialization rather than Runtime deserialization, and perhaps I am using the wrong attribute name, but I can't find out what it might be. Any ideas, folks?

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• Windows Batch file to echo a specific line number

  - by Lee

  So for the second part of my current dilemma, I have a list of folders in c:\file_list.txt. I need to be able to extract them (well, echo them with some mods) based on the line number because this batch script is being called by an iterative macro process. I'm passing the line number as a parameter. @echo off setlocal enabledelayedexpansion set /a counter=0 set /a %%a = "" for /f "usebackq delims=" %%a in (c:\file_list.txt) do ( if "!counter!"=="%1" goto :printme & set /a counter+=1 ) :printme echo %%a which gives me an output of %a. Doh! So, I've tried echoing !a! (result: ECHO is off.); I've tried echoing %a (result: a) I figured the easy thing to do would be to modify the head.bat code found here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/130116/dos-batch-commands-to-read-first-line-from-text-file except rather than echoing every line - I'd just echo the last line found. Not as simple as one might think. I've noticed that my counter is staying at zero for some reason; I'm wondering if the set /a counter+=1 is doing what I think it's doing.

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• Translate XSD element names to English

  - by Coov

  I have an XML Schema Definition file .XSD who's elements are in Spanish. I have an XML data file that is also in Spanish that matches the schema definition. I created a dataset from the xsd using xsd.exe and I'm loading the XML into the dataset. I want to translate the element names to English. I can think of two options off the top of my head. Either scrape the XSD & XML files and translate the elements prior to generating the dataset with esd.exe, or iterate the dataset after I have loaded it with the xml, and translate my objects. I do have a written document that provides the English names for every element name in Spanish. The problem is there are hundreds of elements and I was trying to avoid coding that manually. Getting precise translations is not that important, it just needs to be readable by an English speaking person. Here is an example of what an element may look like "Apellidos": <xs:element name="Apellidos" type="xs:string"/> that I will translate to "SirName": <xs:element name="SirName" type="xs:string"/> I'm looking for ideas and or opinions on a quick way to do this. It's a one time deal so I'm not working about it scaling or being functional for things other than this single xml file. I'll be taking this dataset and writing out a flat file for English speaking users to read.

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• Changing CSS Rules using JavaScript or jQuery

  - by Praveen Kumar

  Initial Research I am aware of using .css() to get and set the CSS rules of a particular element. I have seen a website with this CSS: body, table td, select { font-family: Arial Unicode MS, Arial, sans-serif; font-size: small; } I never liked Arial Unicode as a font. Well, that was my personal feel. So, I would use Chrome's Style Inspector to edit the Arial Unicode MS to Segoe UI or something which I like. Is there anyway, other than using the following to achieve the same? Case I $("body, table td, select").css("font-family", "Segoe UI"); Recursive, performance intensive. Doesn't work when things are loaded on the fly. Case II $('<style>body, table td, select {font-famnily: "Segoe UI";}</style>') .appendTo("head"); Any other better method than this? Creates a lot of <style> tags!

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• How should a one-man development shop document their code?

  - by CKoenig

  Hi, please let me first describe my situation. I work in an IT department for a small-to-medium sized industrial-company and basically I'm the only real developer (sometimes a second guy joins in for his own projects). I programm mostly in C#/.net. Of course I only programm for internal need (Intranet, reporting, data-driven apps, some mobile apps, ...). My question is how should I document my work? It's a highly dynamic environment (the features and bug fixes I implement are tested by me during production, and go live, often within a day. If I technical documentation like MSDN or even overview diagramms those would take me more time to sync than the whole programming process. Also I feel it's a waste of time because I would be the only one who ever read it. I do understand that if I get sick, leave, or forget this documentation would be valuable. PS:well of course you are right - the quesion is how much and how/where. I try using the XML-docu comments for the public exposed parts but as I'm a believer in self-documenting code the comments mostly restates in plain text what you can read from the method-head itself :(Maybe using the remarks section is the key but if you have 30 lines of code with a 15 line xml-comment in front it just looks dirty (sorry for posting it here but our firewall rejects JSON :( )

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• setInterval works only the first time

  - by Neil

  Hi, I am trying to use setTimer to animate a slide show using straightforward jQuery. I provide the user with a button (in the form of a "DIV" with a button background image) that he clicks to start the show and which then turns into a pause button. The slides are supposed to change every 3 seconds. Here is the relevant code: playLink = $('<div id="lbPlayLink" />').click(function(){ $(playLink).hide(); $(pauseLink).show(); slideInterval = setInterval(function(){next()}, 3000) })[0]; pauseLink = $('<div id="lbPauseLink" />').click(function(){ $(playLink).show(); $(pauseLink).hide(); clearInterval(slideInterval); }).hide()[0]; The next() function call does the work of replacing the slide with the next one. I have checked out this function and it works perfectly if I call it directly (synchronously), however, when it gets called asonchronously by the "setInterval", it works fine the first time (3 seconds after I click on the button), but is never called again, even though it should be called 3 seconds later. I know it's never called as I put an "alert" call at the beginning and end of the function. If I replace the "next()" call in the "setInterval" by "alert('test')" then I can see the setInterval is doing what it is supposed to. I can't for the life of me see why "alert()" is OK but "next()" isn't, unless it has something to do with "scope" of functions, but in that case why does it work the first time? I've tried debugging the code with firebug, but it can't really help with timeout functions like this. Neither Firefox nor IE8 show any error messages. I've looked through the various posts here and elsewhere on setInterval, but can't see anything relevant that I haven't tried already. I've been experimenting now for about 3 hours and it's doing my head in. Can anyone suggest what I can try next? Thanks in advance Neil

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• Access ADP - For/Against?

  - by webworm

  I have been tasked with taking an Access 97 application and moving the back-end data to SQL Server while moving the front end to Access 2003 (using Access Data Projects). In the process of this migration the back-end data structures will be changed significantly to support new functionality. If I had my wish we would not be using Access as the front end. I think our application would be much better served by WinForms, WPF, or a web application. We have the time needed to properly plan a business logic layer and implement an excellent solution but powers above me want to stay with Access because that is what they are familiar with. What I could use help with is pros/cons of continuing down this path of Access development. What are some legitimate arguments for and against using Access 2003? Here is what I have come up with so far. Pro Access: Already own Access 2003 licenses Easy GUI development Reports look nice Against Access Having to use VBA (Visual Basic for Applications) ADO vs DAO. Didn't Microsoft change things from Access 2002 to Access 2003? Not tied to Access runtime Choice in front end (WPF, WinForms, even ASP.NET) Maintainability True separation of logic from UI not possible Does Microsoft still support Access ADP? Perhaps there are other issues I am not aware off both for and against Access for application development. I am trying to keep an open mind while at the same time trying to maintain my sanity. I have been using C# since .NET was released and the thought of going back to VBA for six months makes my head hurt. Especially when I feel I could offer so much more if allowed to develop with modern languages and tools?

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• Exception Handling in ASP.NET MVC and Ajax - [HandleException] filter

  - by Graham

  All, I'm learning MVC and using it for a business app (MVC 1.0). I'm really struggling to get my head around exception handling. I've spent a lot of time on the web but not found anything along the lines of what I'm after. We currently use a filter attribute that implements IExceptionFilter. We decorate a base controller class with this so all server side exceptions are nicely routed to an exception page that displays the error and performs logging. I've started to use AJAX calls that return JSON data but when the server side implementation throws an error, the filter is fired but the page does not redirect to the Error page - it just stays on the page that called the AJAX method. Is there any way to force the redirect on the server (e.g. a ASP.NET Server.Transfer or redirect?) I've read that I must return a JSON object (wrapping the .NET Exception) and then redirect on the client, but then I can't guarantee the client will redirect... but then (although I'm probably doing something wrong) the server attempts to redirect but then gets an unauthorised exception (the base controller is secured but the Exception controller is not as it does not inherit from this) Has anybody please got a simple example (.NET and jQuery code). I feel like I'm randomly trying things in the hope it will work Exception Filter so far... public class HandleExceptionAttribute : FilterAttribute, IExceptionFilter { #region IExceptionFilter Members public void OnException(ExceptionContext filterContext) { if (filterContext.ExceptionHandled) { return; } filterContext.Controller.TempData[CommonLookup.ExceptionObject] = filterContext.Exception; if (filterContext.HttpContext.Request.IsAjaxRequest()) { filterContext.Result = AjaxException(filterContext.Exception.Message, filterContext); } else { //Redirect to global handler filterContext.Result = new RedirectToRouteResult(new RouteValueDictionary(new { controller = AvailableControllers.Exception, action = AvailableActions.HandleException })); filterContext.ExceptionHandled = true; filterContext.HttpContext.Response.Clear(); } } #endregion private JsonResult AjaxException(string message, ExceptionContext filterContext) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(message)) { message = "Server error"; //TODO: Replace with better message } filterContext.HttpContext.Response.StatusCode = (int)HttpStatusCode.InternalServerError; filterContext.HttpContext.Response.TrySkipIisCustomErrors = true; //Needed for IIS7.0 return new JsonResult { Data = new { ErrorMessage = message }, ContentEncoding = Encoding.UTF8, }; } }

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• Detect IE version in Javascript

  - by Chad Decker

  I want to bounce users of our web site to an error page if they're using a version of Internet Explorer prior to v9. It's just not worth our time and money to support IE pre-v9. Users of all other non-IE browsers are fine and shouldn't be bounced. Here's the proposed code: if(navigator.appName.indexOf("Internet Explorer")!=-1){ //yeah, he's using IE var badBrowser=( navigator.appVersion.indexOf("MSIE 9")==-1 && //v9 is ok navigator.appVersion.indexOf("MSIE 1")==-1 //v10, 11, 12, etc. is fine too ); if(badBrowser){ // navigate to error page } } Will this code do the trick? To head off a few comments that will probably be coming my way: [1] Yes, I know that users can forge their useragent string. I'm not concerned. [2] Yes, I know that programming pros prefer sniffing out feature-support instead of browser-type but I don't feel this approach makes sense in this case. I already know that all (relevant) non-IE browsers support the features that I need and that all pre-v9 IE browsers don't. Checking feature by feature throughout the site would be a waste. [3] Yes, I know that someone trying to access the site using IE v1 (or = 20) wouldn't get 'badBrowser' set to true and the warning page wouldn't be displayed properly. That's a risk we're willing to take. [4] Yes, I know that Microsoft has "conditional comments" that can be used for precise browser version detection. IE no longer supports conditional comments as of IE 10, rendering this approach absolutely useless. Any other obvious issues to be aware of? Thanks.

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• why does b'(and sometimes b' ') show up when I split some HTML source[Python]

  - by Oliver

  I'm fairly new to Python and programming in general. I have done a few tutorials and am about 2/3 through a pretty good book. That being said I've been trying to get more comfortable with Python and proggramming by just trying things in the std lib out. that being said I have recently run into a wierd quirk that I'm sure is the result of my own incorrect or un-"pythonic" use of the urllib module(with Python 3.2.2) import urllib.request HTML_source = urllib.request.urlopen(www.somelink.com).read() print(HTML_source) when this bit is run through the active interpreter it returns the HTML source of somelink, however it prefixes it with b' for example b'<HTML>\r\n<HEAD> (etc). . . . if I split the string into a list by whitespace it prefixes every item with the b' I'm not really trying to accomplish something specific just trying to familiarize myself with the std lib. I would like to know why this b' is getting prefixed also bonus -- Is there a better way to get HTML source WITHOUT using a third party module. I know all that jazz about not reinventing the wheel and what not but I'm trying to learn by "building my own tools" Thanks in Advance!

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• Noob question about a statement in a Java program

  - by happysoul

  I am beginner to java and was trying out this code puzzle from the book head first java which I solved as follows and got the output correct :D class DrumKit { boolean topHat=true; boolean snare=true; void playSnare() { System.out.println("bang bang ba-bang"); } void playTopHat() { System.out.println("ding ding da-ding"); } } public class DrumKitTestDriver { public static void main(String[] args) { DrumKit d =new DrumKit(); if(d.snare==true) { d.playSnare(); } d.playTopHat(); } } Output is :: bang bang ba-bang ding ding da-ding Now the problem is that in that code puzzle one code snippet is left that I did not include..it's as follows d.snare=false; Even though I did not write it , I got the output like the book. I am wondering why is there need for us to set it's value as false even when we know the code is gonna run without it too !?? I am wondering what the coder had in mind ..I mean what could be the possible future use and motive behind doing this ? I am sorry if it's a dumb question. I just wanna know why or why not to include that particular statement ? It's not like there's a loop or something that we need to come out of. Why is that statement there ?

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• Time complexity with bit cost

  - by Keyser

  I think I might have completely misunderstood bit cost analysis. I'm trying to wrap my head around the concept of studying an algorithm's time complexity with respect to bit cost (instead of unit cost) and it seems to be impossible to find anything on the subject. Is this considered to be so trivial that no one ever needs to have it explained to them? Well I do. (Also, there doesn't even seem to be anything on wikipedia which is very unusual). Here's what I have so far: The bit cost of multiplication and division of two numbers with n bits is O(n^2) (in general?) So, for example: int number = 2; for(int i = 0; i < n; i++ ){ number = i*i; } has a time complexity with respect to bit cost of O(n^3), because it does n multiplications (right?) But in a regular scenario we want the time complexity with respect to the input. So, how does that scenario work? The number of bits in i could be considered a constant. Which would make the time complexity the same as with unit cost except with a bigger constant (and both would be linear). Also, I'm guessing addition and subtraction can be done in constant time, O(1). Couldn't find any info on it but it seems reasonable since it's one assembler operation.

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• jQuery server ping slowly but surely filling memory?

  - by danspants

  I use the following piece of code to test if our server is running whilst the user is in a page. I've also started adding other functions that grab small amounts of data that are constantly changing and are to be relayed to the user (Files waiting for download, messages, reports etc). I've noticed recently that if I leave any page open (all pages contain the same function), the browser takes up more and more system memory which I can only attribute to this regular task (overnight it reached 1.6 gb). Is there some way of clearing out the data that is being accumulated? Is this normal behaviour? As far as i can tell, every time I call the function it should overwrite the previously retrieved data? function testServer(){ jQuery.ajax({ type:"HEAD", url:"/media/d_arrow_blue.png", error: function(msg) { jQuery.jGrowl("Server Disconnected"); } }); //retrieves count of files awaiting download - move to seperate function jQuery.get("/get_files/",{"type":"count"},function(data) { jQuery("#downloadList").children("div").text(data); }); }; jQuery().doTimeout(6000,function() { testServer(); return true; });

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• Can I recover lost commits in a SVN repository using a local tracking git-svn branch?

  - by Ian Stevens

  A SVN repo I use git-svn to track was recently corrupted and a backup was recovered. However, a week's worth of commits were lost in the recovery. Is it possible to recover those lost commits using git-svn dcommit on my local git repo? Is it sufficient to run git-svn dcommit with the SHA1 of the last recovered commit in SVN? eg. > svn info http://tracked-svn/trunk | sed -n "s/Revision: //p" 252 > git log --grep="git-svn-id:.*@252" --format=oneline | cut -f1 -d" " 55bb5c9cbb5fe11a90ec2e9e1e0c7c502908cf9a > git svn dcommit 55bb5c9cbb5fe11a90ec2e9e1e0c7c502908cf9a Or will the git-svn-id need to be stripped from the intended commits? I tried this using --dry-run but couldn't tell whether it would try to submit all commits: > git svn dcommit --verbose --dry-run 55bb5c9cbb5fe11a90ec2e9e1e0c7c502908cf9a Committing to http://tracked-svn/trunk ... dcommitted on a detached HEAD because you gave a revision argument. The rewritten commit is: 55bb5c9cbb5fe11a90ec2e9e1e0c7c502908cf9a Thanks for your help.

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• Castle Active Record - Working with the cache

  - by David

  Hi All, im new to the Castle Active Record Pattern and Im trying to get my head around how to effectivley use cache. So what im trying to do (or want to do) is when calling the GetAll, find out if I have called it before and check the cache, else load it, but I also want to pass a bool paramter that will force the cache to clear and requery the db. So Im just looking for the final bits. thanks public static List<Model.Resource> GetAll(bool forceReload) { List<Model.Resource> resources = new List<Model.Resource>(); //Request to force reload if (forceReload) { //need to specify to force a reload (how?) XmlConfigurationSource source = new XmlConfigurationSource("appconfig.xml"); ActiveRecordStarter.Initialize(source, typeof(Model.Resource)); resources = Model.Resource.FindAll().ToList(); } else { //Check the cache somehow and return the cache? } return resources; } public static List<Model.Resource> GetAll() { return GetAll(false); }

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• POSTing JSON data to WCF REST

  - by Randall Sexton

  I'm trying to send data from a client application using jQuery to a REST WCF service based on the WCF REST starter kit. Here's what I have so far. Service Definition: [WebHelp(Comment = "Save PropertyValues to the database")] [WebInvoke(Method = "POST", UriTemplate = "PropertyValues_Save", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.WrappedRequest, RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] [OperationContract] public bool PropertyValues_Save(Guid assetId, Dictionary<Guid, string> newValues) { ... } Call from the client: $.ajax({ url:SVC_PROPERTYVALUES_SAVE, type: "POST", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", data: jsonData, dataType: "json", error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { alert(textStatus + ' ' + errorThrown); }, success: function(data) { if (data) { alert('Values saved'); $("#confirmSubmit").dialog('close'); } else { alert('Values failed to save'); $("#confirmSubmit").dialog('close'); } } }); Example of the JSON being passed: { "assetId": "d70714c3-e403-4cc5-b8a9-9713d05b2ee0", "newValues": [ { "key": "bd01aa88-b48d-47c7-8d3f-eadf47a46680", "value": "0e9fdf34-2d12-4639-8d70-19b88e753ab1" }, { "key": "06e8eda2-a004-450e-90ab-64df357013cf", "value": "1d490aec-f40e-47d5-865c-07fe9624f955" } ] } I'm using Windows Authentication on the virtual directory. When I call operations that are GETs, everything is fine. This code is prompting the browser to log in. When I enter my credentials, I simply get an alert in my browser which says "error undefined". Even if you can't help my specific error, do you see anything that looks wrong from glancing? I've been beating my head on this nearly all day. Thanks in advance.

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• Can't empty JS array....

  - by solefald

  Yes, I am having issues with this very basic (or so it seems) thing. I am pretty new to JS and still trying to get my head around it, but I am pretty familiar with PHP and have never experienced anything like this. I just can not empty this damn array, and stuff keeps getting added to the end every time i run this. I have no idea why, and i am starting to think that it is somehow related to the way chekbox id's are named, but i may be mistaking.... id="alias[1321-213]", id="alias[1128-397]", id="alias[77-5467]" and so on. I have tried sticking checkboxes = []; and checkboxes.length = 0; In every place possible. Right after the beginning of the function, at the end of the function, even outside, right before the function, but it does not help, and the only way to empty this array is to reload the page. Please tell me what I am doing wrong, or at least point me to a place where i can RTFM. I am completely out of ideas here. function() { var checkboxes = new Array(); checkboxes = $(':input[name="checkbox"]'); $.each(checkboxes, function(key, value) { console.log(value.id); alert(value.id); } ); checkboxes.length = 0; } I have also read Mastering Javascript Arrays 3 times to make sure I am not doing something wrong, but still can't figure it out....

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• For the professional programmers - do you still write code for fun at home ? [closed]

  - by Led

  Possible Duplicate: Do you ever code just for fun? I've been working as a 'professional' coder for about 11 years. (I've just turned 33.) When I talk to my collegues, I find that most of them actually don't program any more in their spare time - 8 (or 10 :)) hours a day at their job is enough for them. A difference between me and them might be that I was always programming for fun (demoscene stuff etc.) which is why I got into the field, while most of them picked up programming later on (at university or whatever). When I get home my head is always full of ideas, so usually I have a hobby-project going on. Is it weird to spend 8 hours a day programming, and then get home, have dinner, and do some more ? For me the reasons are just - ideas : trying stuff - wanting to develop something all by myself, so when it's finished I can claim it as my own victory How about you ? And if you do, do you have other reasons to do so ? Edit: And if you've got sparetime projects, it might be fun to tell us a bit about it :) Spamming a link to your site/hobbyproject won't be frowned upon here ! Edit2: Vote for this if you want to encourage companies to make monitors that'll give you a nice tan ! ;-)

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• Debugging in VS 2008 locks a stored procedure

  - by larryq

  Hi everyone, I've got a strange one here. I have a .Net executable that, under the hood, calls a few stored procedures. For whatever reason, one of the stored procs hangs when I'm debugging. If I run the executable outside of visual studio things go fine, including this stored proc. It's when I'm debugging that this hangs, and it really hangs. If I stop the debugging session the IDE freezes and I have to kill it via taskmanager. I know which stored procedure has the trouble, as well as the actual statement within it that's the problem. It's calling an update statement that doesn't stand out as particularly special. I can run the identical statement (and the stored procedure itself) from SQL management studio wtih no problem. And, as I mentioned, the exe runs just fine outside the debugger. If I use the SQL activity monitor to see why things are hanging, the wait type says PREEMPTIVE_DEBUG. I'm not sure if that's helpful but if you need more info I'll try to get it to you. I've rebooted my machine (the SQL Server in question is on this box as well) and that didn't do anything, nor did rebuilding the executable. I'm scratching my head on this one and if you have any ideas what to check on next, I'm be happy to listen. Thanks!

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