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  • Populate JOIN into a list in one database query

    - by axio
    I am trying to get the records from the 'many' table of a one-to-many relationship and add them as a list to the relevant record from the 'one' table. I am also trying to do this in a single database request. Code derived from http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1580199/linq-to-sql-populate-join-result-into-a-list almost achieves the intended result, but makes one database request per entry in the 'one' table which is unacceptable. That failing code is here: var res = from variable in _dc.GetTable<VARIABLE>() select new { x = variable, y = variable.VARIABLE_VALUEs }; However if I do a similar query but loop through all the results, then only a single database request is made. This code achieves all goals: var res = from variable in _dc.GetTable<VARIABLE>() select variable; List<GDO.Variable> output = new List<GDO.Variable>(); foreach (var v2 in res) { List<GDO.VariableValue> values = new List<GDO.VariableValue>(); foreach (var vv in v2.VARIABLE_VALUEs) { values.Add(VariableValue.EntityToGDO(vv)); } output.Add(EntityToGDO(v2)); output[output.Count - 1].VariableValues = values; } However the latter code is ugly as hell, and it really feels like something that should be do-able in a single linq query. So, how can this be done in a single linq query that makes only a single database query? In both cases the table is set to preload using the following code: _dc = _db.CreateLinqDataContext(); var loadOptions = new DataLoadOptions(); loadOptions.LoadWith<VARIABLE>(v => v.VARIABLE_VALUEs); _dc.LoadOptions = loadOptions; I am using .NET 3.5, and the database back-end was generated using SqlMetal.

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  • How do I avoid a race condition in my Rails app?

    - by Cathal
    Hi, I have a really simple Rails application that allows users to register their attendance on a set of courses. The ActiveRecord models are as follows: class Course < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :scheduled_runs ... end class ScheduledRun < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :course has_many :attendances has_many :attendees, :through => :attendances ... end class Attendance < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :scheduled_run, :counter_cache => true ... end class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :attendances has_many :registered_courses, :through => :attendances, :source => :scheduled_run end A ScheduledRun instance has a finite number of places available, and once the limit is reached, no more attendances can be accepted. def full? attendances_count == capacity end attendances_count is a counter cache column holding the number of attendance associations created for a particular ScheduledRun record. My problem is that I don't fully know the correct way to ensure that a race condition doesn't occur when 1 or more people attempt to register for the last available place on a course at the same time. My Attendance controller looks like this: class AttendancesController < ApplicationController before_filter :load_scheduled_run before_filter :load_user, :only => :create def new @user = User.new end def create unless @user.valid? render :action => 'new' end @attendance = @user.attendances.build(:scheduled_run_id => params[:scheduled_run_id]) if @attendance.save flash[:notice] = "Successfully created attendance." redirect_to root_url else render :action => 'new' end end protected def load_scheduled_run @run = ScheduledRun.find(params[:scheduled_run_id]) end def load_user @user = User.create_new_or_load_existing(params[:user]) end end As you can see, it doesn't take into account where the ScheduledRun instance has already reached capacity. Any help on this would be greatly appreciated.

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  • How to make ActiveRecord work with legacy partitioned/sharded databases/tables?

    - by Utensil
    thanks for your time first...after all the searching on google, github and here, and got more confused about the big words(partition/shard/fedorate),I figure that I have to describe the specific problem I met and ask around. My company's databases deals with massive users and orders, so we split databases and tables in various ways, some are described below: way database and table name shard by (maybe it's should be called partitioned by?) YZ.X db_YZ.tb_X order serial number last three digits YYYYMMDD. db_YYYYMMDD.tb date YYYYMM.DD db_YYYYMM.tb_ DD date too The basic concept is that databases and tables are seperated acording to a field(not nessissarily the primary key), and there are too many databases and too many tables, so that writing or magically generate one database.yml config for each database and one model for each table isn't possible or at least not the best solution. I looked into drnic's magic solutions, and datafabric, and even the source code of active record, maybe I could use ERB to generate database.yml and do database connection in around filter, and maybe I could use named_scope to dynamically decide the table name for find, but update/create opertions are bounded to "self.class.quoted_table_name" so that I couldn't easily get my problem solved. And even I could generate one model for each table, because its amount is up to 30 most. But this is just not DRY! What I need is a clean solution like the following DSL: class Order < ActiveRecord::Base shard_by :order_serialno do |key| [get_db_config_by(key), #because some or all of the databaes might share the same machine in a regular way or can be configed by a hash of regex, and it can also be a const get_db_name_by(key), get_tb_name_by(key), ] end end Can anybody enlight me? Any help would be greatly appreciated~~~~

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  • Conditionally colour data points outside of confidence bands in R

    - by D W
    I need to colour datapoints that are outside of the the confidence bands on the plot below differently from those within the bands. Should I add a separate column to my dataset to record whether the data points are within the confidence bands? Can you provide an example please? Example dataset: ## Dataset from http://www.apsnet.org/education/advancedplantpath/topics/RModules/doc1/04_Linear_regression.html ## Disease severity as a function of temperature # Response variable, disease severity diseasesev<-c(1.9,3.1,3.3,4.8,5.3,6.1,6.4,7.6,9.8,12.4) # Predictor variable, (Centigrade) temperature<-c(2,1,5,5,20,20,23,10,30,25) ## For convenience, the data may be formatted into a dataframe severity <- as.data.frame(cbind(diseasesev,temperature)) ## Fit a linear model for the data and summarize the output from function lm() severity.lm <- lm(diseasesev~temperature,data=severity) jpeg('~/Desktop/test1.jpg') # Take a look at the data plot( diseasesev~temperature, data=severity, xlab="Temperature", ylab="% Disease Severity", pch=16, pty="s", xlim=c(0,30), ylim=c(0,30) ) title(main="Graph of % Disease Severity vs Temperature") par(new=TRUE) # don't start a new plot ## Get datapoints predicted by best fit line and confidence bands ## at every 0.01 interval xRange=data.frame(temperature=seq(min(temperature),max(temperature),0.01)) pred4plot <- predict( lm(diseasesev~temperature), xRange, level=0.95, interval="confidence" ) ## Plot lines derrived from best fit line and confidence band datapoints matplot( xRange, pred4plot, lty=c(1,2,2), #vector of line types and widths type="l", #type of plot for each column of y xlim=c(0,30), ylim=c(0,30), xlab="", ylab="" )

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  • VB.NET Update Access Database with DataTable

    - by sinDizzy
    I've been perusing some hep forums and some help books but cant seem to get my head wrapped around this. My task is to read data from two text files and then load that data into an existing MS Access 2007 database. So here is what i'm trying to do: Read data from first text file and for every line of data add data to a DataTable using CarID as my unique field. Read data from second text file and look for existing CarID in DataTable if exists update that row. If it doesnt exist add a new row. once im done push the contents of the DataTable to the database. What i have so far: Dim sSQL As String = "SELECT * FROM tblCars" Dim da As New OleDb.OleDbDataAdapter(sSQL, conn) Dim ds As New DataSet da.Fill(ds, "CarData") Dim cb As New OleDb.OleDbCommandBuilder(da) 'loop read a line of text and parse it out. gets dd, dc, and carId 'create a new empty row Dim dsNewRow As DataRow = ds.Tables("CarData").NewRow() 'update the new row with fresh data dsNewRow.Item("DriveDate") = dd dsNewRow.Item("DCode") = dc dsNewRow.Item("CarNum") = carID 'about 15 more fields 'add the filled row to the DataSet table ds.Tables("CarData").Rows.Add(dsNewRow) 'end loop 'update the database with the new rows da.Update(ds, "CarData") Questions: In constructing my table i use "SELECT * FROM tblCars" but what if that table has millions of records already. Is that not a waste of resources? Should i be trying something different if i want to update with new records? Once Im done with the first text file i then go to my next text file. Whats the best approach here: To First look for an existing record based on CarNum or to create a second table and then merge the two at the end? Finally when the DataTable is done being populated and im pushing it to the database i want to make sure that if records already exist with three primary fields (DriveDate, DCode, and CarNum) that they get updated with new fields and if it doesn't exist then those records get appended. Is that possible with my process? tia AGP

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  • Insert only adds upto 1000 records and ignoresall records after that.

    - by user560559
    i have a large database where the client stores personal messages and fire email notifications [if allowed by the users]. certain users have the option of sending messages to their entire network of friends. some users have over 5000 friends in their network so if they select the whole network they'll be sending messages to over 5000 friends and system will store all the messages into a table. the problem is this that it does not insert more than 1000 records and ignores all inserts after the first 1000. i have increased the packet size, bulk_insert_buffer_size but still no luck. since the system stores some of the info in another table for reports, every insert returns its new message id. due to this i can not use the "insert into table (column1,column2) values (value1,value2) , (value1,value2)....etc." table engine is innodb, mysql version is 5.1.3 and is hosted on amazon web services. all i want is to fix this issue of inserting more than 1000 records at a time. as mentioned earlier, it works fine but only up to 1000 records and simply ignores all the records after that. i'm using php foreach(){} to insert message for each friend and if email is available, send notification to the user. this foreach(){} also inserts the same record in another table [with only 3 columns] for generating reports.

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  • How to use multiple identity numbers in one table?

    - by vincer
    I have an web application that creates printable forms, these forms have a unique number on them, the problem is I have 2 forms that separate numbers need to be created for them. ie) Form1- Numbered 2000000-2999999 Form2- Numbered 3000000-3999999 dbo.test2 - is my form information table Tsel - is my autoinc table for the 3000000 series numbers Tadv - is my autoinc table for the 2000000 series numbers What I have done is create 2 tables with just autoinc row (one for 2000000 series numbers and one for 3000000 series numbers), I then created a trigger to add a record to the coresponding table, read back the autoinc number and add it to my table that stores the form information including the just created autoinc number for the right series of forms. Although it does work, I'm concerned that the numbers will get messed up under load. I'm not sure the @@IDENTITY will always return the right value when many people are using the system. (I cannot have duplicates and I need to use the numbering form show above. See code below. ** TRIGGER ** CREATE TRIGGER MAKEANID2 ON dbo.test2 AFTER INSERT AS SET NOCOUNT ON declare @someid int declare @someid2 int declare @startfrom int declare @test1 varchar(10) select @someid=@@IDENTITY select @test1 = (Select name1 from test2 where sysid = @someid ) if @test1 = 'select' begin insert into Tsel Default values select @someid2 = @@IDENTITY end if @test1 = 'adv' begin insert into Tadv Default values select @someid2 = @@IDENTITY end update test2 set name2=(@someid2) where sysid = @someid SET NOCOUNT OFF

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  • Java Days & Bookings

    - by sys_debug
    Ok this is an extension of a question I asked about earlier yet this is the next step that is unclear to me. Everything else will be ready and this part is driving me mad! some members provided great help and I already made progress with that info, but this is just another obstacle. I am creating a booking object (as was suggested) that will have a start date and end date. each booking will also have a number of seats associated with it (that I require to reserve). The total available number of seats any given day 46 (as the total capacity of the hall is 46 seats). so in assumption that I have a booking to be made in the system, and start date is 1st jan and end date is 10th jan. The question is how can I check the remaining seats in all those days between the range to see if requested number could be hosted or not? and then when the second booking is made, it will have to see that the days in this range already have less than 46 and decrement further if possible to host the reservation. one of the members, and I appreciate his effort, gladly contributed a method to compare if this booking is after or before the existing bookings. The code provided is here: public boolean overlapsWithExisting(Booking booking) { final Date early = booking.getStart(); final Date late = booking.getEnd(); for(Booking existing : existingBookings) { if(!(early.isAfter(existing.getEnd() || late.isBefore(existing.getStart())) return true; } return false; } I just want to know how to associate 46 with each day and keep record of days that are decremented by bookings. Thanks and reallllllly appreciated :D

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  • How do you make an added row from QueryAddRow() the first row of the result from a query?

    - by JS
    I am outputting a query but need to specify the first row of the result. I am adding the row with QueryAddRow() and setting the values with QuerySetCell(). I can create the row fine, I can add the content to that row fine. If I leave the argument for the row number off of QuerySetCell() then it all works great as the last result of the query when output. However, I need it to be first row of the query but when I try to set the row attribute with the QuerySetCell it just overwrites the first returned row from my query (i.e. my QueryAddRow() replaces the first record from my query). What I currently have is setting a variable from recordCount and arranging the output but there has to be a really simple way to do this that I am just not getting. This code sets the row value to 1 but overwrites the first returned row from the query. <cfquery name="qxLookup" datasource="#application.datasource#"> SELECT xID, xName, execution FROM table </cfquery> <cfset QueryAddRow(qxLookup)/> <cfset QuerySetCell(qxLookup, "xID","0",1)/> <cfset QuerySetCell(qxLookup, "xName","Delete",1)/> <cfset QuerySetCell(qxLookup, "execution", "Select this to delete",1)/> <cfoutput query="qxLookup"> <tr> <td> <a href="##" onclick="javascript:ColdFusion.navigate('xSelect/x.cfm?xNameVar=#url.xNameVar#&xID=#qxLookup.xID#&xName=#URLEncodedFormat(qxLookup.xName)#', '#xNameVar#');ColdFusion.Window.hide('#url.window#')">#qxLookup.xName#</a> </td> <td>#qxLookup.execution#</td> </tr> </cfoutput> </table> Thanks for any help.

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  • .NET ServiceInstaller get too much time for uninstall services

    - by rodnower
    Hello, we have some Setup Project wrote in Visual Studio 2008 in C# that installs and uninstalls services with ServiceInstaller class. When I install the services this don't get too much time, but when I uninstall with following code the process for each service get few seconds (and we have many services): ServiceInstaller si = new ServiceInstaler(); string path = string.Format("/assemblypath={0}", strServiceExecutablePath); string[] cmdline = { path }; InstallContext context = new InstallContext(string.Empty, cmdline); si.Context = context; si.ServiceName = strServiceName; si.Uninstall(null); Some one know why? Here I want to ask some related question. What difference between working of: InstallUtill /u exePath when it uninstall service and: sc delete serviceName And why when I delete some record from registry from CurrentControlSet\services I still see the service in services.msc but with: <Failed to read description. Error code:2 In description? From where I need to delete service manually for delete it complitely? Thank you for ahead.

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  • How to obtain value of auto_increment field in Access linked to MySQL?

    - by Cruachan
    I'm trying to modify and existing Access application to use MySQL as a database via ODBC with the minimal amount of recoding. The current code will often insert a new record using DAO then obtain the ID by using LastModified. This doesn't work with MySQL. Instead I'm trying to use the approach using SELECT * FROM tbl_name WHERE auto_col IS NULL Suggested for Access in the MySQL documentation. However if I set up a sample table consisting of just an id and text data field and execute this CurrentDb.Execute ("INSERT INTO tbl_scratch (DATA) VALUES ('X')") Set rst = CurrentDb.OpenRecordset("SELECT id FROM tbl_scratch WHERE id IS NULL") myid = rst!id Id is returned as null. However if I execute INSERT INTO tbl_scratch (DATA) VALUES ('X'); SELECT id FROM tbl_scratch WHERE id IS NULL; using a direct MySQL editor then id is returned correctly, so my database and approach is fine but my implementation inside Access must be incorrect. Frustratingly the MySQL documentation gives the SQL statement to retrieve the id as an example that works in Access (as it states LAST_INSERT_ID() doesn't) but gives no further details. How might I fix this?

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  • Why is a DataViewManager not sorting?

    - by Alarion
    First off, a quick rundown of what the code is doing. I have two tables: Companies and Clients. There is a one to many relationship between Companies and Clients (one company can have many clients). In some processing logic, I have both tables loaded into a DataSet - each are DataTables. I have added a DataRelation to set the relationship, and it works when I use GetChildRows on a record from the Companies table. However, I need to sort the records returned. After googling around some it looks like the DataViewManager is the way to go, and I have examined several basic examples. However, I cannot get my rows sorted. Am I missing something, or am I not using this how it is supposed to be used? Example code: Dim ldvmManager As New DataViewManager(mdsData) ldvmManager.DataViewSettings("Companies").Sort = "comName ASC" ldvmManager.DataViewSettings("Clients").ApplyDefaultSort = False ldvmManager.DataViewSettings("Clients").Sort = "entLastName ASC, entFirstName ASC" For Each mdrCurrentCompany in ldvmManager.DataViewSettings("Companies").Table.Rows Dim ldrClients() as DataRow = mdrCurrentCompany.GetChildRows("CompaniesClients") Next No matter what I do, the first Client returned has a last name that starts with a 'B' and the second has one that starts with a 'A'. From there, the order is all mixed up. If I use my entire data instead of the subset I was using to test with, the first Client returned has a last name that starts with 'J'. It seems like it is still using whatever default sort was being used before I tried to use the DataViewManager. Any ideas?

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  • Obfuscating ids in Rails app

    - by fphilipe
    I'm trying to obfuscate all the ids that leave the server, i.e., ids appearing in URLs and in the HTML output. I've written a simple Base62 lib that has the methods encode and decode. Defining—or better—overwriting the id method of an ActiveRecord to return the encoded version of the id and adjusting the controller to load the resource with the decoded params[:id] gives me the desired result. The ids now are base62 encoded in the urls and the response displays the correct resource. Now I started to notice that subresources defined through has_many relationships aren't loading. e.g. I have a record called User that has_many Posts. Now User.find(1).posts is empty although there are posts with user_id = 1. My explanation is that ActiveRecord must be comparing the user_id of Post with the method id of User—which I've overwritten—instead of comparing with self[:id]. So basically this renders my approach useless. What I would like to have is something like defining obfuscates_id in the model and that the rest would be taken care of, i.e., doing all the encoding/decoding at the appropriate locations and preventing ids to be returned by the server. Is there any gem available or does somebody have a hint how to accomplish this? I bet I'm not the first trying this.

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  • Processing forms that generate many rows in DB

    - by Zack
    I'm wondering what the best approach to take here is. I've got a form that people use to register for a class and a lot of times the manager of a company will register multiple people for the class at the same time. Presently, they'd have to go through the registration process multiple times and resubmit the form once for every person they want to register. What I want to do is give the user a form that has a single <input/> for one person to register with, along with all the other fields they'll need to fill out (Email, phone number, etc); if they want to add more people, they'll be able to press a button and a new <input/> will be generated. This part I know how to do, but I'm including it to best describe what I'm aiming to do. The part I don't know how to approach is processing that data the form submits, I need some way of making a new row in the Registrant table for every <input/> that's added and include the same contact information (phone, email, etc) as the first row with that row. For the record, I'm using the Django framework for my back-end code. What's the best approach here? Should it just POST the form x times for x people, or is there a less "brute force" way of handling this?

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  • GridView edit problem If primary key is editable (design problem)

    - by Nassign
    I would like to ask about the design of table based on it's editability in a Grid View. Let me explain. For example, I have a table named ProductCustomerRel. Method 1 CustomerCode varchar PK ProductCode varchar PK StoreCode varchar PK Quantity int Note text So the combination of the CustomerCode, StoreCode and ProductCode must be unique. The record is displayed on a gridview. The requirement is that you can edit the customer, product and storecode but when the data is saved, the PK constraint must still persist. The problem here is it would be natural for a grid to be able to edit the 3 primary key, you can only achieve the update operation of the grid view by first deleting the row and then inserting the row with the updated data. An alternative to this is to just update the table and add a SeqNo, and just enforce the unique constraint of the 3 columns when inserting and updating in the grid view. Method 2 SeqNo int PK CustomerCode varchar ProductCode varchar StoreCode varchar Quantity int Note text My question is which of the two method is better? or is there another way to do this?

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  • C++ Macro Arithmetric

    - by anon
    I have to do with Macros (it's macros calling macros; so templates are out of the question). Here's what I want: foo(3, a, b1, c1) --> foo1(a, b1, c1); foo(5, a, b1, c1, b2, c2) -> foo2(a, b1, c1, b2, c2); foo(7, a, b1, c1, b2, c2, b3, c3) -> foo3(a, b1, c1, b2, c2, b3, c3); So basically, what I want is to be able to execute the "function" n - (n-1)/2 at macro expansion time. Is this possible? Thanks! [PS, if you dislike my questions; I support your right to downvote; my worst question so far is only -17, so maybe we can break that record; however, please let me know why my question is technically invalid.] Thanks EDIT: Foo takes a variable # of arguments, of the form: foo(N, a1, b1, a2, b2, ... a_N, b_N) -> foo##N(a1, b1, a2, b2, ... a_N, b_N);

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  • How do I put data from multiple records into different columns?

    - by Bryan
    My two tables are titled analyzed and analyzedCopy3. I'm trying to put information from analyzedCopy3 into multiple columns in analyzed. Sample data from analyzedCopy3: readings_miu_id OriginalCol ColRSSIz 110001366 Frederick Road -108 110001366 Steel Street 110001366 Fifth Ave. 110001508 Steel Street -104 What I want to do is put the top 3 OriginalCol, ColRSSIz combinations into columns that I have in the table analyzed. In analyzed there is only one record for each unique readings_miu_id. Any ideas? Thanks in advance. Additional Info: By "top 3 OriginalCol, ColRSSIz combinations" I mean the first 3 combinations with the highest value in the ColRSSIz column. For any readings_miu_id there could be anywhere from 1 row of information to 6 rows of information. So at most I'm only wanting the top 3. If there is less than 3 rows for the readings_miu_id then the other columns need to be blank. Query that generates the table "analyzed": strSql4 = " SELECT readings_miu_id, Count(readings_miu_id) as NumberOfReads, First(PercentSuccessz) as PercentSuccess, First(Readingz)as Reading, First(MIUwindowz) as MIUwindow, First(SNz) as SN, First(Noisez) as Noise, First(RSSIz) as RSSI, First(ColRSSIz) as ColRSSI, First(MIURSSIz) as MIURSSI, First(Col1z) as Col1, First(Col1RSSIz) as Col1RSSI, First(Col2z) as Col2, First(Col2RSSIz) as Col2RSSI, First(Col3z) as Col3, First(Col3RSSIz) as Col3RSSI, First(Firmwarez) as Firmware, First(CFGDatez) as CFGDate, First(FreqCorrz) as FreqCorr, First(Activez) as Active, First(MeterTypez) as MeterType, First(OriginColz) as OriginCol, First(ColIDz) as ColID, First(Ownagez) as Ownage, First(SiteIDz) as SiteID, First(PremIDz) as PremID, First(prem_group1z) as prem_group1, First(prem_group2z) as prem_group2, First(ReadIDz) as ReadID, First(prem_addr1z) as prem_addr1 " & _ "INTO analyzed " & _ "FROM analyzedCopy2 " & _ "GROUP BY readings_miu_id, PremIDz; " DoCmd.SetWarnings False DoCmd.RunSQL strSql4 DoCmd.SetWarnings True

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  • How should I lock the table in this VB6 / Access application?

    - by Brian Hooper
    I'm working on a VB6 application using an Access database. The application writes messages to a log table from time to time. Several instances of the application may be running simultaneously and to distinguish them they each have their own run number. The run number is deduced from the log table thus... Set record_set = New ADODB.Recordset query_string = "SELECT MAX(RUN_NUMBER) + 1 AS NEW_RUN_NUMBER FROM ERROR_LOG" record_set.CursorLocation = adUseClient record_set.Open query_string, database_connection, adOpenStatic, , adCmdText record_set.MoveLast If IsNull(record_set.Fields("NEW_RUN_NUMBER")) Then run_number = 0 Else run_number = record_set.Fields("NEW_RUN_NUMBER") End If command_string = "INSERT INTO ERROR_LOG (RUN_NUMBER, SEVERITY, MESSAGE) " & _ " VALUES (" & Str$(run_number) & ", " & _ " " & Str$(SEVERITY_INFORMATION) & ", " & _ " 'Run Started'); " database_connection.Execute command_string Obviously there is a small gap between the calculation of the run number and the appearance of the new row in the database, and to prevent another instance getting access between the two operations I'd like to lock the table; something along the lines of SET TRANSACTION READ WRITE RESERVING ERROR_LOG FOR PROTECTED WRITE; How should I go about doing this? Would locking the recordset do any good (the row in the record set doesn't match any particular row in the database)?

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  • Selecting row in SSMS causes Entity Framework 4 to Fail

    - by Eric J.
    I have a simple Entity Framework 4 unit test that creates a new record, saves it, attempts to find it, then deletes it. All works great, unless... ... I open up SQL Server Management Studio while stopped at a breakpoint in the unit test and execute a SELECT statement that returns the row I just created (not SELECT FOR UPDATE, not WITH (updlock), no transaction, just a plain SELECT). If I do that before attempting to find the row I just created, I don't find the row. If I instead do that after finding the row but before deleting the row, I do find the row but get an OptimisticConcurrencyException. This is consistently repeatable. Unit Test: [TestMethod()] public void CreateFindDeleteActiveParticipantsTest() { // Setup this test Participant utPart = CreateUTParticipant(); ctx.Participants.AddObject(utPart); ctx.SaveChanges(); // External SELECT Point #1: // part is null // Find participant Participant part = ParticipantRepository.Find(UT_SURVEY_ID, UT_TOKEN); Assert.IsNotNull(part, "Expected to find a participant"); // External SELECT Point #2: // SaveChanges throws OptimisticConcurrencyException // Cleanup this test ctx.Participants.DeleteObject(utPart); ctx.SaveChanges(); }

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  • Pass object or id

    - by Charles
    This is just a question about best practices. Imagine you have a method that takes one parameter. This parameter is the id of an object. Ideally, I would like to be able to pass either the object's id directly, or just the object itself. What is the most elegant way to do this? I came up with the following: def method_name object object_id = object.to_param.to_i ### do whatever needs to be done with that object_id end So, if the parameter already is an id, it just pretty much stays the same; if it's an object, it gets its id. This works, but I feel like this could be better. Also, to_param returns a string, which could in some cases return a "real" string (i.e. "string" instead of "2"), hence returning 0 upon calling to_i on it. This could happen, for example, when using the friendly id gem for classes. Active record offers the same functionality. It doesn't matter if you say: Table.where(user_id: User.first.id) # pass in id or Table.where(user_id: User.first) # pass in object and infer id How do they do it? What is the best approach to achieve this effect?

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  • Returning objects in php

    - by user220201
    I see similar questions asked but I seem to have problem with more basic stuff than were asked. How to declare a variable in php? My specific problem is I have a function that reads a DB table and returns the record (only one) as an object. class User{ public $uid; public $name; public $status; } function GetUserInfo($uid) { // Query DB $userObj = new User(); // convert the result into the User object. var_dump($userObj); return $userObj; } // In another file I call the above function. .... $newuser = GetUserInfo($uid); var_dump($newuser); What is the problem here, I cannot understand. Essentially the var_dump() in the function GetUserInfo() works fine. The var_dump() outside after the call to GetUserInfo() does not work. Thanks for any help. S

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  • load data from grid row into (pop up) form for editing

    - by user1495457
    I read in Ext JS in Action ( by J. Garcia) that if we have an instance of Ext.data.Record, we can use the form's loadRecord method to set the form's values. However, he does not give a working example of this (in the example that he uses data is loaded into a form through a file called data.php). I have searched many forums and found the following entry helpful as it gave me an idea on how to solve my problem by using form's loadRecord method: load data from grid to form Now the code for my store and grid is as follows: var userstore = Ext.create('Ext.data.Store', { storeId: 'viewUsersStore', model: 'Configs', autoLoad: true, proxy: { type: 'ajax', url: '/user/getuserviewdata.castle', reader: { type: 'json', root: 'users' }, listeners: { exception: function (proxy, response, operation, eOpts) { Ext.MessageBox.alert("Error", "Session has timed-out. Please re-login and try again."); } } } }); var grid = Ext.create('Ext.grid.Panel', { id: 'viewUsersGrid', title: 'List of all users', store: Ext.data.StoreManager.lookup('viewUsersStore'), columns: [ { header: 'Username', dataIndex: 'username' }, { header: 'Full Name', dataIndex: 'fullName' }, { header: 'Company', dataIndex: 'companyName' }, { header: 'Latest Time Login', dataIndex: 'lastLogin' }, { header: 'Current Status', dataIndex: 'status' }, { header: 'Edit', menuDisabled: true, sortable: false, xtype: 'actioncolumn', width: 50, items: [{ icon: '../../../Content/ext/img/icons/fam/user_edit.png', tooltip: 'Edit user', handler: function (grid, rowIndex, colIndex) { var rec = userstore.getAt(rowIndex); alert("Edit " + rec.get('username')+ "?"); EditUser(rec.get('id')); } }] }, ] }); function EditUser(id) { //I think I need to have this code here - I don't think it's complete/correct though var formpanel = Ext.getCmp('CreateUserForm'); formpanel.getForm().loadRecord(rec); } 'CreateUserForm' is the ID of a form that already exists and which should appear when user clicks on Edit icon. That pop-up form should then automatically be populated with the correct data from the grid row. However my code is not working. I get an error at the line 'formpanel.getForm().loadRecord(rec)' - it says 'Microsoft JScript runtime error: 'undefined' is null or not an object'. Any tips on how to solve this?

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  • UpdatePanel doesn't Refresh

    - by mrxrsd
    I have got a simple page with a HtmlInputHidden field. I use Javascript to update that value and, when posting back the page, I want to read the value of that HtmlInputHidden field. The Value property of that HtmlInputHidden field is on postback the default value (the value it had when the page was created, not the value reflected through the Javascript). I also tried to Register the HtmlInputHidden field with ScriptManager.RegisterHiddenField(Page, "MyHtmlImputHiddenField", "initialvalue") but it still only lets me read the 'initialvalue' even though I (through javascript) can inspect that the value has changed. I tried to hardcoded the rowid and, to my surprise, after postback gridview was exactly the same before the delete but the record was deleted from the database. (I´ve called the databind method). protected void gridViewDelete(object sender, GridViewDeleteEventArgs e) { bool bDelete = false; bool bCheck = false; if (hfControl.Value != "1") { // check relationship bCheck = validation_method(.......); if (bCheck) { bDelete = true; } } else { hfControl.Value = ""; bDelete = true; } if (bDelete) { //process delete } else { string script = string.Empty; script += " var x; "; script += " x = confirm('are u sure?'); "; script += " if (x){ " ; script += " document.getElementById('hfControl').value = '1'; "; script += " setTimeOut(__doPostBack('gridView','Delete$" + e.RowIndex + "'),0);"; script += " } "; ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock(this, Page.GetType() , "confirm" , script ,true); } }

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  • database design - empty fields

    - by imanc
    Hey, I am currently debating an issue with a guy on my dev team. He believes that empty fields are bad news. For instance, if we have a customer details table that stores data for customers from different countries, and each country has a slightly different address configuration - plus 1-2 extra fields, e.g. French customer details may also store details for entry code, and floor/level plus title fields (madamme, etc.). South Africa would have a security number. And so on. Given that we're talking about minor variances my idea is to put all of the fields into the table and use what is needed on each form. My colleague believes we should have a separate table with extra data. E.g. customer_info_fr. But this seams to totally defeat the purpose of a combined table in the first place. His argument is that empty fields / columns is bad - but I'm struggling to find justification in terms of database design principles for or against this argument and preferred solutions. Another option is a separate mini EAV table that stores extra data with parent_id, key, val fields. Or to serialise extra data into an extra_data column in the main customer_data table. I think I am confused because what I'm discussing is not covered by 3NF which is what I would typically use as a reference for how to structure data. So my question specifically: - if you have slight variances in data for each record (1-2 different fields for instance) what is the best way to proceed?

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  • JMS message. Model to include data or pointers to data?

    - by John
    I am trying to resolve a design difference of opinion where neither of us has experience with JMS. We want to use JMS to communicate between a j2ee application and the stand-alone application when a new event occurs. We would be using a single point-to-point queue. Both sides are Java-based. The question is whether to send the event data itself in the JMS message body or to send a pointer to the data so that the stand-alone program can retrieve it. Details below. I have a j2ee application that supports data entry of new and updated persons and related events. The person records and associated events are written to an Oracle database. There are also stand-alone, separate programs that contribute new person and event records to the database. When a new event occurs through any of 5-10 different application functions, I need to notify remote systems through an outbound interface using an industry-specific standard messaging protocol. The outbound interface has been designed as a stand-alone application to support scalability through asynchronous operation and by moving it to a separate server. The j2ee application currently has most of the data in memory at the time the event is entered. The data would consist of approximately 6 different objects; a person object and some with multiple instances for an average size in the range of 3000 to 20,000 bytes. Some special cases could be many times this amount. From a performance and reliability perspective, should I model the JMS message to pass all the data needed to create the interface message, or model the JMS message to contain record keys for the data and have the stand-alone Java application retrieve the data to create the interface message?

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