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  • Do you use Styrofoam balls to model your systems?

    - by Nick D
    [Objective-C] Do you still use Styrofoam balls to model your systems, where each ball represents a class? Tom Love: We do, actually. We've also done a 3D animation version of it, which we found to be nowhere near as useful as the Styrofoam balls. There's something about a physical, conspicuous structure hanging from the ceiling right in the middle of a development project that's regularly updated to provide not only the structure of the system that you're building, but also the current status of each one of the classes. We've done it on 19 projects the last time I've counted. One of them was 1,856 classes, which is big - actually, probably bigger than it should be. It was a big commercial project, so it needed to be somewhat big. Masterminds of Programming It is the first time I've read or heard about using styrofoam balls to model classes. Is that a commonly used technique? And, how does that sort of modeling help us to design better the system? If you have any photos to share which can show us how the classes are represented it'd be great!

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  • How to convert model into url properly in asp.net MVC?

    - by 4eburek
    From the SEO standpoint it is nice to see urls in format which explains what is located on a page Let's have a look on such situation (it is just example) We need to display page about some user and decided to have such url template for that page: /user/{UserId}/{UserCountry}/{UserLogin}. And create for this purpose such model public class UserUrlInfo{ public int UserId{get;set;} public string UserCountry{get;set;} public string UserLogin{get;set;} } I want to create controller method where I pass UserUrlInfo object but not all required fields. Classic controller method for url template shown above is following public ActionResult Index(int UserId, string UserCountry, string UserLogin){ return View(); } and we need to call it like that Html.ActionLink<UserController>(x=>Index(user.UserId, user.UserCountry, user.UserLogin), "See user page") I want to create such controller method public ActionResult Index(UserUrlInfo userInfo){ return View(); } and call it like that: Html.ActionLink<UserController>(x=>Index(user), "See user page") Actually I works when we add one more route and point it to the same controller method, so routing will be: /user/{userInfo} /user/{UserId}/{UserCountry}/{UserLogin} In this situation routing engine gets string method of our model (need to override it) and it works ALMOST always. But sometimes it fails and show url like /page/?userInfo=/US/John So my workaround does not always work properly. Does anybody know how to work with urls in such way?

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  • how to update div tag in javascript with data from model for onsubmit form asp.net mvc

    - by michael
    In my page i have a form tag which submits to server ,gets data and redirects to same page. problem is the the div tag which has the data from server is not getting updated. how to do that in javascript <% using (Html.BeginForm("Addfile", "uploadfile", FormMethod.Post, new { id = "uploadform", enctype = "multipart/form-data" })) { %> <input type="file" id="addedFile" name="addedFile" /><br /> <input type="submit" id="addfile" value="Addfile" /> <div id="MyGrid"> //data from the model(server side) filelist is not updating</div> what will be the form onsubmit javascript function to update the div tag with the data from the model. and my uploadfile controller get post methods are as [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Get)] public ActionResult Upload() { return View(); } [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult AddFile(HttpPostedFileBase addedFile) { static List<string> fileList = new List<string>(); string filename = Path.GetFileName(addedFile.FileName); file.SaveAs(@"D:\Upload\" + filename); fileList.Add(filename); return("Upload",fileList); } thanks, michaela

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  • Should my validator have access to my entire model?

    - by wb
    As the title states I'm wondering if it's a good idea for my validation class to have access to all properties from my model. Ideally, I would like to do that because some fields require 10+ other fields to verify whether it is valid or not. I could but would rather not have functions with 10+ parameters. Or would that make the model and validator too coupled with one another? Here is a little example of what I mean. This code however does not work because it give an infinite loop! Class User Private m_UserID Private m_Validator Public Sub Class_Initialize() End Sub Public Property Let Validator(value) Set m_Validator = value m_Validator.Initialize(Me) End Property Public Property Get Validator() Validator = m_Validator End Property Public Property Let UserID(value) m_UserID = value End property Public Property Get UserID() UserID = m_Validator.IsUserIDValid() End property End Class Class Validator Private m_User Public Sub Class_Initialize() End Sub Public Sub Initialize(value) Set m_User = value End Sub Public Function IsUserIDValid() IsUserIDValid = m_User.UserID > 13 End Function End Class Dim mike : Set mike = New User mike.UserID = 123456 mike.Validator = New Validator Response.Write mike.UserID If I'm right and it is a good idea, how can I go a head and fix the infinite loop with the get property UserID? Thank you.

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  • WPF - How do I use the UserControl with a dependency property and view model?

    - by user320849
    Hello, My goal is to have a user select a year and a month. Translate the selection into a date and have the user control send the date back to my view model. That part works for me....However, I cannot get the ViewModel's initial date to set those drop downs. public static readonly DependencyProperty Date = DependencyProperty.Register("ReturnDate", typeof(DateTime), typeof(DatePicker), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata{BindsTwoWayByDefault = true,}); public DateTime ReturnDate { get { return Convert.ToDateTime(GetValue(Date)); } set { SetDropDowns(value); SetValue(Date, value); } } The SetDropDowns(value) just sets the selected items on the combo boxes, however, the program never makes it to that method. On the view I am using: <cc1:DatePicker ReturnDate="{Binding Path=StartDate, Mode=TwoWay}" IsStart="True" /> If this has been answered, then my bad. I looked around and didn't see anything that worked for me. Thus, when the program loads how do I get the value from the view model to a method in order to set the combo boxes? Thanks, -Scott

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  • Resizing a GLJPanel with JOGL causes my model to disappear.

    - by badcodenotreat
    I switched over to using a GLJPanel from a GLCanvas to avoid certain flickering issues, however this has created several unintended consequences of it's own. From what I've gleaned so far, GLJPanel calls GLEventListener.init() every time it's resized which either resets various openGL functions i've enabled in init() (depth test, lighting, etc...) if i'm lucky, or completely obliterates my model if i'm not. I've tried debugging it but I'm not able to correct this behavior. This is my init() function: gl.glShadeModel( GL.GL_SMOOTH ); gl.glEnable( GL.GL_DEPTH_TEST ); gl.glDepthFunc( GL.GL_LEQUAL ); gl.glDepthRange( zNear, zFar ); gl.glDisable( GL.GL_LINE_SMOOTH ); gl.glEnable(GL.GL_NORMALIZE); gl.glEnable( GL.GL_BLEND ); gl.glBlendFunc( GL.GL_SRC_ALPHA, GL.GL_ONE_MINUS_SRC_ALPHA ); // set up the background color gl.glClearColor( ((float)backColor.getRed () / 255.0f), ((float)backColor.getGreen() / 255.0f), ((float)backColor.getBlue () / 255.0f), 1.0f); gl.glEnable ( GL.GL_LIGHTING ); gl.glLightfv( GL.GL_LIGHT0, GL.GL_AMBIENT, Constants.AMBIENT_LIGHT, 0 ); gl.glLightfv( GL.GL_LIGHT0, GL.GL_DIFFUSE, Constants.DIFFUSE_LIGHT, 0 ); gl.glEnable ( GL.GL_LIGHT0 ); gl.glTexEnvf( GL.GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL.GL_TEXTURE_ENV_MODE, GL.GL_MODULATE ); gl.glHint( GL.GL_PERSPECTIVE_CORRECTION_HINT, GL.GL_NICEST ); // code to generate model Is there any way around this other than removing everything from init(), adding it to my display() function? Given the behavior of init() and reshape() for GLJPanel, i'm not sure if that will fix it either.

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  • SPSS - sum of squares change radically with slight model changes in ANOVA??

    - by Pat
    I have noticed that the sum of squares in my models can change fairly radically with even the slightest adjustment to my models???? Is this normal???? I'm using SPSS 16, and both models presented below used the same data and variables with only one small change - categorizing one of the variables as either a 2 level or 3 level variable. Details - using a 2 x 2 x 6 mixed model ANOVA with the 6 being the repeated measure i get the following in the between group analysis ------------------------------------------------------------ Source | Type III SS | df | MS | F | Sig ------------------------------------------------------------ intercept | 4086.46 | 1 | 4086.46 | 104.93 | .000 X | 224.61 | 1 | 224.61 | 5.77 | .019 Y | 2.60 | 1 | 2.60 | .07 | .80 X by Y | 19.25 | 1 | 19.25 | .49 | .49 Error | 2570.40 | 66 | 38.95 | Then, when I use the exact same data but a slightly different model in which variable Y has 3 levels instead of 2 levels I get the following ------------------------------------------------------------ Source | Type III SS | df | MS | F | Sig ------------------------------------------------------------ intercept | 3603.88 | 1 | 3603.88 | 90.89 | .000 X | 171.89 | 1 | 171.89 | 4.34 | .041 Y | 19.23 | 2 | 9.62 | .24 | .79 X by Y | 17.90 | 2 | 17.90 | .80 | .80 Error | 2537.76 | 64 | 39.65 | I don't understand why variable X would have a different sum of squares simply because variable Y gets devided up into 3 levels instead of 2. This is also the case in the within groups analysis too. Please help me understand :D Thank you in advance Pat

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  • JMS message. Model to include data or pointers to data?

    - by John
    I am trying to resolve a design difference of opinion where neither of us has experience with JMS. We want to use JMS to communicate between a j2ee application and the stand-alone application when a new event occurs. We would be using a single point-to-point queue. Both sides are Java-based. The question is whether to send the event data itself in the JMS message body or to send a pointer to the data so that the stand-alone program can retrieve it. Details below. I have a j2ee application that supports data entry of new and updated persons and related events. The person records and associated events are written to an Oracle database. There are also stand-alone, separate programs that contribute new person and event records to the database. When a new event occurs through any of 5-10 different application functions, I need to notify remote systems through an outbound interface using an industry-specific standard messaging protocol. The outbound interface has been designed as a stand-alone application to support scalability through asynchronous operation and by moving it to a separate server. The j2ee application currently has most of the data in memory at the time the event is entered. The data would consist of approximately 6 different objects; a person object and some with multiple instances for an average size in the range of 3000 to 20,000 bytes. Some special cases could be many times this amount. From a performance and reliability perspective, should I model the JMS message to pass all the data needed to create the interface message, or model the JMS message to contain record keys for the data and have the stand-alone Java application retrieve the data to create the interface message?

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  • Is safe ( documented behaviour? ) to delete the domain of an iterator in execution

    - by PoorLuzer
    I wanted to know if is safe ( documented behaviour? ) to delete the domain space of an iterator in execution in Python. Consider the code: import os import sys sampleSpace = [ x*x for x in range( 7 ) ] print sampleSpace for dx in sampleSpace: print str( dx ) if dx == 1: del sampleSpace[ 1 ] del sampleSpace[ 3 ] elif dx == 25: del sampleSpace[ -1 ] print sampleSpace 'sampleSpace' is what I call 'the domain space of an iterator' ( if there is a more appropriate word/phrase, lemme know ). What I am doing is deleting values from it while the iterator 'dx' is running through it. Here is what I expect from the code : Iteration versus element being pointed to (*): 0: [*0, 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36] 1: [0, *1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36] ( delete 2nd and 5th element after this iteration ) 2: [0, 4, *9, 25, 36] 3: [0, 4, 9, *25, 36] ( delete -1th element after this iteration ) 4: [0, 4, 9, 25*] ( as the iterator points to nothing/end of list, the loop terminates ) .. and here is what I get: [0, 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36] 0 1 9 25 [0, 4, 9, 25] As you can see - what I expect is what I get - which is contrary to the behaviour I have had from other languages in such a scenario. Hence - I wanted to ask you if there is some rule like "the iterator becomes invalid if you mutate its space during iteration" in Python? Is it safe ( documented behaviour? ) in Python to do stuff like this?

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  • XSL(like) declarative language as MVC view over strongtyped model?

    - by Martin Kool
    As a huge XSL fan, I am very happy to use xsl as the view in our proprietary MVC framework on ASP.NET. Objects in the model are serialized under the hood using .NET's xml serializer, and we use quite atomic xsl templates to declare how each object or property should transform. For example: <xsl:template match="/Article"> <html> <body> <div class="article"> <xsl:apply-templates /> </div> </body> </html> </xsl:template> <xsl:template match="Article/Title"> <h1> <xsl:apply-templates /> </h1> </xsl:template> <xsl:template match="@*|text()"> <xsl:copy /> </xsl:template> This mechanism allows us to quickly override default matching templates, like having a template matching on the last item in a list, or the selected one, etc. Also, xsl extension objects in .NET allow us just the bit of extra grip that we need. Common shared templates can be split up and included. However Even though I can ignore the verbosity downside of xsl (because Visual Studio schema intellisense + snippets really is slick, praise to the VS-team), the downside of not having intellisense over strongtyped objects in the model is really something that's bugging me. I've seen ASP.NET MVC + user controls in action and really starting to love it, but I wonder; Is there a way of getting some sort of intellisense over XML that we're iterating over, or do you know of a language that offers the freedom and declarativeness of XSL but has the strongtype/intellisense benefits of say webforms/usercontrols/asp.net.mvc-view? (I probably know the answer: "no", and I'll find myself using Phil Haack's utterly cool mvc shizzle soon...)

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  • Can I create a Google calendar for a user in a hosted domain using the admin credentials

    - by user351013
    I use the admin credentials for all of my interactions with the google api and I can retrieve\create\update\delete events from and for all of my hosted domain users. However, when I go to create a calendar for a hosted domain user, the calendar is created in the admins space. In the example below the GoogleUserName does NOT match the GoogleAccount. The postUri would look similar to : http://www.google.com/calendar/feeds/[email protected]/owncalendars/full and the GoogleUserName is [email protected]. The api creates a calendar but it is in the admins space. CalendarService service = new CalendarService("Test"); service.setUserCredentials(GoogleUserName, GooglePassword); CalendarEntry calendar = new CalendarEntry(); calendar.TimeZone = "America/Chicago"; calendar.Title.Text = Title; calendar.Summary.Text = Description; calendar.Color = Color; calendar.Selected = true; calendar.Hidden = false; Uri postUri = new Uri(String.Format("http://www.google.com/calendar/feeds/{0}/owncalendars/full", GoogleAccount)); CalendarEntry createdCalendar = (CalendarEntry)service.Insert(postUri, calendar); The documentation does specify to use the users credentials however the documentation is not specific to hosted domains a great deal of the time and as such I am always attempting trial and error when trying interactions. That I can use all of the CRUD on the user's events themselves using the admin credentials leaves me to believe that it might be possible.

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  • rails + paperclip: Is a generic "Attachment" model a good idea?

    - by egarcia
    On my application I've several things with attachments on them, using paperclip. Clients have one logo. Stores can have one or more pictures. These pictures, in addition, can have other information such as the date in which they were taken. Products can have one or more pictures of them, categorized (from the font, from the back, etc). For now, each one of my Models has its own "paperclip-fields" (Client has_attached_file) or has_many models that have attached files (Store has_many StorePictures, Product has_many ProductPictures) My client has also told me that in the future we might be adding more attachments to the system (i.e. pdf documents for the clients to download). My application has a rather complex authorization system implemented with declarative_authorization. One can not, for example, download pictures from a product he's not allowed to 'see'. I'm considering re-factoring my code so I can have a generic "Attachment" model. So any model can has_many :attachments. With this context, does it sound like a good idea? Or should I continue making Foos and FooPictures?

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  • Rails - HABTM Relationship -- How Can I Find A Record Based On An Attribute Of The Associated Model

    - by ChrisWesAllen
    I have setup this HABTM relationship in the past and its worked before....Now it isnt and I'm at my wits end trying to figure out whats wrong. I've looking through the rails guides all day and cant seem to figure out what I'm doing wrong, so help would really be appreciated. I have 2 models connected through a join model and I'm trying to find records based an attribute of the associated model. Event.rb has_and_belongs_to_many :interests Interest.rb has_and_belongs_to_many :events and a join table migration that was created like create_table 'events_interests', :id => false do |t| t.column :event_id, :integer t.column :interest_id, :integer end I tried @events = Event.all(:include => :interest, :conditions => [" interest.id = ?", 4 ] ) But got the error "Association named 'interest' was not found; perhaps you misspelled it?"... which I didnt of course I tried @events = Event.interests.find(:all, :conditions => [" interest.id = ?", 4 ] ) but got the error "undefined method `interests' for #Class:0x4383348" How can I find the Events that have an interest id of 4....I'm definitely going bald from this lol

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  • Windows 7 Desktop/Start Menu Redirection: Server O/S: Windows Server 2003 And Server 2008

    - by Moody Tech
    Hi, I am new here so I am might be asking a question which has already been answered [however I can't see it in the suggested answers above] I manage a network which is split into a parent domain and a child domain. Recently I have been looking at when to migrate to Windows 7. The child domain users [authenticated by the 2008 based (child) domain] get the redirected Desktop [as expected] but not the Start Menu. The parent domain users [authenticated by the 2003 based (parent) domain] get neither desktop nor Start Menu redirected. Does anyone here know how to successfully redirect the properties for these users as desired? Many thanks.

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  • Windows 7 Desktop/Start Menu Redirection: Server O/S: Windows Server 2003 And Server 2008

    - by VerGuy
    Hi, I am new here so I am might be asking a question which has already been answered [however I can't see it in the suggested answers above] I manage a network which is split into a parent domain and a child domain. Recently I have been looking at when to migrate to Windows 7. The child domain users [authenticated by the 2008 based (child) domain] get the redirected Desktop [as expected] but not the Start Menu. The parent domain users [authenticated by the 2003 based (parent) domain] get neither desktop nor Start Menu redirected. Does anyone here know how to successfully redirect the properties for these users as desired? Many thanks.

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  • nginx folder redirect

    - by orbalon
    I'm trying redirect from an exact folder in nginx.conf Given the URL: domain.com/path1/path2/path3 Redirect to: sub.domain.com/path1/path2/path3 Here's what I have so far: location ~* ^/path1[\/?]$ { rewrite ^/(.*) http:sub.domain.com/$1 break; } I had it working with location /path1 { rewrite ^/(.*) http:sub.domain.com/$1 break; } The problem with that is it also redirects a page like domain.com/path1moretext/someotherpath to sub.domain.com/path1moretext/someotherpath Which is not what I want. (had to take out the "//" in the href code above because this is my first post, sorry).

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  • Creating cookieless application on development machine with asp.net

    - by zaladane
    I am thinking about setting up a new domain to host static content on my website and have it cookieless just like Stackoverflow with their static domain. So before going ahead and buying the domain and setting it up I wanted to test it on my developement machine first under localhost (I have to mention that i am planning on having IIS running on my new domain for the static files). I therefore created a new application under IIS and disabled session state and forms authentication. When my main application needs resources like css, images and js , I use the path to the "static" application where they are hosted. The problem is that when I look at the request and the response for the requested files, they still have the session_id cookie defined as well as the asp.net authentication cookie. Is it at all possible to accomplish what i am trying to do on a development machine or do i have to just go ahead and purchase the new domain which hopefully with make things right? I tried to read about cookieless domain but can't figure out what i might be missing.

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  • IIS 6.0 FTP Folder Permissions

    - by Beuy
    I have a IIS Ftp website setup like so \ftp\users\domain\public\public Software that runs on clients computers logs into the FTP by specifying domain\public and moving to public, it then uploads or downloads files / folders into that area. I wan't to restrict the permissions on \ftp\users\domain\public so that nothing / noone can write files or folders here, only to \ftp\users\domain\public\public. I setup the NTFS permissions of the folder to remove domain\users, public and server\users to not have modify right, yet I can still upload / modify files. I have disabled inheritance from the parent folder of \ftp\users\domain\public as well. Any ideas on what I'm missing here? P.S I know this is a stupid setup and makes no sense, it's some bizarre legacy application that I need to migrate to a safer environment until it can be replaced, then I'm going to light it on fire -.- and dance around it.

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  • Upgrading TFS 2005 to TFS 2010 fails at "Executing servicing step Upgrade Version Control Identities"

    - by nadeemmar
    Hi all, I have been trying to upgrade our TFS 2005 to TFS 2010 but with no luck so far. I went through the TFS Installation guide and many upgrade guides but with no luck in overcoming the issue I am facing which seems to be unique and different to other described issues. In our company, we have a domain forest with several domains. Lets say domain A, B, and C. TFS is in domain A and has users from all these three domains. All domains have trust reltionships between them. However, domain C was deleted several months ago. In the upgrade process, whenever I reach the collection upgrade step, the following error is raised: [Info @09:57:50.997] [2010-12-29 09:55:47Z][Informational] Step Data: ExtensionType = Microsoft.TeamFoundation.VersionControl.Server.PlugIns.WorkspaceSecurityNamespaceExtension [Info @09:57:50.997] [2010-12-29 09:55:47Z] Servicing step Create VersionControl Security Namespaces passed. (ServicingOperation: UpgradePreTfs2010Databases; Step group: Upgrade.TfsVersionControl) [Info @09:57:50.997] [2010-12-29 09:55:47Z] Executing servicing step Upgrade Version Control Identities. (ServicingOperation: UpgradePreTfs2010Databases; Step group: Upgrade.TfsVersionControl) [Info @09:57:50.997] [2010-12-29 09:55:47Z][Informational] Step Performer: VersionControl [Info @09:57:50.997] [2010-12-29 09:55:47Z][Informational] Step Type: UpgradeIdentity [Info @09:57:50.997] [2010-12-29 09:55:47Z][Informational] Step Data Text: [Error @09:57:50.997] [2010-12-29 09:55:51Z][Error] Sync error for identity: System.Security.Principal.WindowsIdentity, S-1-5-21-1004336348-527237240-682003330-2818 - The trust relationship between the primary domain and the trusted domain failed I looked for the SID and it seems to be for a user in the deleted domain C. With a bit of googling, I figured out that TFSConfig Identities command can be used to remap users from one domain to the other. I went ahead and created local users that matches the users we have from domain C and ran the TFSConfig Identities /Change command and it executed successfully. However, I still get the same error. I am stuck and can't figure out how to move forward :( I need your expertise, has anyone faced this issue before? Do I need to change these identities on TFS 2005 before I commence the upgrade? I forgot to mention, I am following the upgrade with a move approach. I created a virtual machine for testing the upgrade. Installed SQL server 2008, restored the TFS databases and installed TFS 2010 and ran the upgrade wizard. Regards, Nadeem

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  • restricting access only through domains on nginx on virtual hosts

    - by Mo J. Mughrabi
    I have finished setting up nginx for virtual hosting, this is how my config files look like server { listen 80; server_name domain.com; access_log /home/domain.com/prod_webapp/logs/access.domain.com.log; error_log /home/domain.com/prod_webapp/logs/error.domain.com.log; location /static { root /home/domain.com/prod_webapp/mocorner/ph/; } location / { try_files $uri @uwsgi; } location @uwsgi { include uwsgi_params; uwsgi_pass unix:/tmp/domain_uwsgi.sock; }} on the same machine, I have domain1.com and domain2.com, each when i access I get its content which is great. My problem is that when i try to access the user using the IP address i get one of the sites in the virtual hosts too.. Although i disabled the default (removed the symbolic link) from sites-enabled folder but still not solved it for me. any suggestions?

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  • Hostname Problem On WHM / cPanel Installation

    - by Eray
    My CentOS 5.6 server's hostname was "centos" . And then i change it to my domain : hostname domain.com And i started to installing WHM / cPanel as explained in here : http://etwiki.cpanel.net/twiki/bin/view/AllDocumentation/InstallationGuide/InstallingCpanel It's installed very well. And the i reboot my server. After rebooting, i was execute this command for open WHM's 2087 port : iptables -I RH-Firewall-1-INPUT -m state --state NEW -m tcp -p tcp --dport 2087 -j ACCEPT Now i'm trying to browse domain.com:2087 i'm getting Server (centos) not found .I noticed it's forwarding to my old hostname (centos) . And then execute this command to verify me hostname hostname it's returned "centos" again. I'm not sure, why it's returned to old hostname. (I think it returned to old hostname after rebooting) . I'm changed it one more time : hostname domain.com Finally, now my hostname is domain.com . BUt still i'm getting centos server not found error. This is result of iptables -L command. P.S. : domain.com/cpanel is working

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  • LDAP Authentication for multiple AD Domains

    - by TrevJen
    I have 3 full trust domains (2 child and one root). I need to use LDAP to allow authntication for domain users. The trick is that I need the application to use an AD server for the child domain BUT proxy the LDAP query and authentication for the root domain. I see that it maty be possible with AD LDS and some trusts and synching, but it looks pretty hairy and overly complicated. The short of it is: 3 domains (Parent, ChildA, ChildB) My 3rd party app will need to use ChildA domain servers to authenticate either: a. a user in the parent domain or b. a user in the ChildB domain I already have full trusts between all domains, and regular NTLM authentication works fine (unless you are trying to authenticate with LDAP)

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  • Rewrite request URI based on Host header in HAProxy

    - by DorinC
    I would like to set up HAProxy to forward HTTP requests to some backend servers but I need it to also rewrite the URI part based on the Host. I've read through the doc but it seems that reqirep isn't suitable for this purpose. Any idea if this is even possible with HAProxy? Here are the details of what I'm trying to accomplish: Requests that come in on: http://www.original-domain.com/ would be balanced between: http://server1/domains/www.original-domain.com/ ... http://serverN/domains/www.original-domain.com/ The proxy should be able to handle this for any number of domains (original-domain.com can be anything, it's not limited to a fixed set of values). For this to work HAProxy would need to rewrite a request like this: GET /original-uri HTTP/1.1 Host: original-domain.com to: GET /domains/original-domain.com/original-uri HTTP/1.1 Host: serverN and forward that request to one of the internal servers.

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  • Access Java based keystore directly on Sun ONE Webserver 6.1

    - by George Bailey
    The keystore seems to reside in one of /opt/SUNWwbsvr/alias/https-sub.domain.ext-hostname-cert8.db /opt/SUNWwbsvr/alias/https-sub.domain.ext-hostname-key3.db What tool would I use to access this file? I have tried these commands which did not work. /opt/SUNWwbsvr/bin/https/jdk/bin/keytool -certreq -keyalg RSA -file /tmp/test.csr -keystore /opt/SUNWwbsvr/alias/https-sub.domain.ext-hostname-cert8.db /opt/SUNWwbsvr/bin/https/jdk/bin/keytool -certreq -keyalg RSA -file /tmp/test.csr -keystore /opt/SUNWwbsvr/alias/https-sub.domain.ext-hostname-key3.db /opt/SUNWwbsvr/bin/https/jdk/bin/keytool -list -storepass password -keystore /opt/SUNWwbsvr/alias/https-sub.domain.ext-hostname-cert8.db /opt/SUNWwbsvr/bin/https/jdk/bin/keytool -list -storepass password -keystore /opt/SUNWwbsvr/alias/https-sub.domain.ext-hostname-key3.db They all gave me the error message keytool error: java.io.IOException: Invalid keystore format

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  • Ubuntu, apache2 wildcard dns to subdomain

    - by Mark van Velthoven
    Currently I'm hosting my own (ubuntu) server with the following services: samba, ftp and a webserver. I've bought a domain and linked the DNS A-record to my ISP's IP. This is working correctly. Now I'd like to use the DNS wildcard-record to create subdomains. I want to avoid waiting 24hrs before the DNS change completes. Thusfar I'm only able to redirect all incoming wildcards to the same directory: test1.domain.com redirects to /var/www test2.domain.com redirects to /var/www Although I'd like to get: test1.domain.com redirects to /var/www/test1 test2.domain.com redirects to /var/www/test2 My guess would be to change the file /etc/apache2/sites-available/domain. Any help or tips would be welcome! Thanks, Mark

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