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  • Does overloading Grails static 'mapping' property to bolt on database objects violate DRY?

    - by mikesalera
    Does Grails static 'mapping' property in Domain classes violate DRY? Let's take a look at the canonical domain class: class Book {      Long id      String title      String isbn      Date published      Author author      static mapping = {             id generator:'hilo', params:[table:'hi_value',column:'next_value',max_lo:100]      } } or: class Book { ...         static mapping = {             id( generator:'sequence', params:[sequence_name: "book_seq"] )     } } And let us say, continuing this thought, that I have my Grails application working with HSQLDB or MySQL, but the IT department says I must use a commercial software package (written by a large corp in Redwood Shores, Calif.). Does this change make my web application nobbled in development and test environments? MySQL supports autoincrement on a primary key column but does support sequence objects, for example. Is there a cleaner way to implement this sort of 'only when in production mode' without loading up the domain class?

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  • OpenPeak Flash app XMLSocket Security Problem

    - by Kira
    We're trying to create an app for OpenPeak. The Flash app will act as a client to a Java server on another computer on another domain. The Flash app client connects via XMLSocket. The Java Server uses ServerSocket to receive a request and send back a message. In order to trust the server, the Flash client needs a socket master policy file to tell it that the server comes from a trustworthy domain. According to an article on Adobe, when a connection has succeeded, the Flash client automatically requests the cross-domain policy or socket master policy file on port 843. Still, even when we implement it according to the tutorials and recommendations we have read, the Flash client continues to throw the following security error: SecurityErrorEvent type="securityError" bubbles=false cancelable=false eventPhase=2 text="Error #2048" We've tried logging the policy file request during testing to see if there was any call made to port 843. There was not. Interestingly, even without a policy file, the Flash client still manages to send the first data message to the server successfully. It's just when the server tries to send back a reply that the entire thing hangs for about 10 seconds before the security error above is displayed. Any ideas / suggestions?

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  • Yet Another crosdomain.xml question or: "How to interpret documentation correctly"

    - by cboese
    Hi! I have read a lot about the new policy-policy of flash player and also know the master policy file. Now image the following situation: There are two servers with services (http) running at custom ports servera.com:2222/websiteA serverb.com:3333/websiteB Now I open a swf from server a (eg. servera.com:2222/websiteA/A.swf) that wants to access the service of serverb. Of course I need a crossdomain.xml at the right place and there are multiple variations possible. I dont want to use a master policy file, as I might not have control over the root of both servers. One solution I found works with the following crossdomain: <?xml version="1.0"?> <cross-domain-policy> <allow-access-from domain="*"/> </cross-domain-policy> served at serverb.com:3333/websiteB/crossdomain.xml So now for my question: Is it possible to get rid of the "*" and use a proper (not as general as *) domainname in the allow-access-from rule? All my attempts failed, and from what I understand it should be possible.

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  • How to use routing in a ASP MVC website to localize in two languages - But keeping exiting URLs

    - by Anders Pedersen
    We have a couple ASP MVC websites just using the standard VS templates default settings - Working as wanted. But now I want to localize these website ( They are now in Dutch and I will add the English language ) I would like to use routing and not Resource because: 1. Languages will differ in content, numbers of pages, etc. 2. The content is mostly text. I would like the URLs to look some thing like this - www.domain.com/en/Home/Index, www.domain.nl/nl/Home/Index. But the last one should also work with - www.domain.nl/Home/Index - Witch is the exciting URLs. I have implemented Phil Haacks areas ViewEngine from this blogpost - http://haacked.com/archive/2008/11/04/areas-in-aspnetmvc.aspx. But only putting the English website in the areas and keeping the Dutch in old structure. Witch are served as Phils default fallback. But the problem is here that I have to duplicate my controllers for both language's. So I tried the work method described in this tread - http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1712167/asp-net-mvc-localization-route. It works OK with the ?en? and /nl/ but not with the old URLs. When using this code in the global.asax the URL without the culture isn't working. public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { //routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{culture}/{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { culture = "nl-NL", controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); routes.MapRoute( "DefaultWitoutCulture", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); } I properly overlooking some thing simple but I can't get this to work for me. Or are there a better way of doing this?

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  • Subscription website architecture questions + SQL Server & .NET

    - by chopps
    Hey Guys, I have a few questions about the architecture of a subscription service I am about to embark on and I am looking for some feedback on how best to set it up. I won’t have a large amount of customers as Basecamp, maybe a few hundred and was wondering what would be a solid architecture for setting up the customer sites. I’m running SQL Server and .NET on a dedicated machine. Should create a new database for each customer as to have control and isolation of data or keep them all in one database? I am also thinking of creating a sub-domain for each customer as well so modifications can be made to each site as needed. The customer URLs would look like this: https://customer1.foobar.com https://customer2.foobar.com I am going to have the ability to ‘plug-in’ reports that will be uploaded to the site so each customer can customize as needed. Off the top of my head this necessitates having each sub domain on its own code-base for the uploading of these reports. So on the main site the customer would sign up for their new subscription and I would programmatically create a new directory for the customer from the main code base and then create a sub domain pointing to the new directory for the customer and then finally their database. Does this sound about right? Am I on the right track? How do other such sites accomplish the same thing? Thanks for letting me bend your ear for a bit on this.

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  • Broken ssl, what to do

    - by TIT
    I have a site and i implemented ssl there. but when i browse it, the security seals dont come. i asked to godaddy, they replaid: Thank you for contacting online support. I cannot replicate the issue you have described. The error you described is caused by the way your site has been designed. If you receive this error, you have a combination of secure and non-secure objects on the page. For example, if your secure website was https://www.domain.tld and you added an object (an image, script, flash file, etc.) to that page that was located at http://www.domain.tld/image.jpg, you would break the seal. You will need to change your design to link to objects using https (ie https://www.domain.tld/image.jpg) or modify your site design to use relative paths (/image.jpg). This error can only be corrected by modifying your site design. Please contact your web designer or the manufacturer of your web design software if you require additional assistance modifying your site design. but the problem is i made everything,all my images javascripts are unders https, but the seal still not coming, saying: some content insecure. what is the problem.

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  • Manually start session with specific id / transitioning session cookie between domains

    - by deceze
    My host requires me to use a different domain for SSL secured access (shared SSL), so I need to transition the user session between two domains. One part of the page lives at http://example.com, while the SSL'd part is at https://example.hosting.com. As such I can't set a domain-spanning cookie. What I'm trying to do is to transition the session id over and re-set the cookie like this: http://example.com/normal/page, user clicks link to secure area and goes to: http://example.com/secure/page, which causes a redirect to: https://example.hosting.com/secure/page?sess=ikub..., which resurrects the session and sets a new cookie valid for the domain, then redirects to: https://example.hosting.com/secure/page This works up to the point where the session should be resurrected. I'm doing: function beforeFilter() { ... $this->Session->id($_GET['sess']); $this->Session->activate(); ... } As far as I can tell this should start the session with the given ID. It actually generates a new session ID though and this session is empty, the data is not restored. This is on CakePHP 1.2.4. Do I need to do something else, or is there a better way to do what I'm trying to do?

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  • sending email in php unable to use HTML tags

    - by JPro
    I am trying to send an email through the result sets generated in MySQL in PHP This is the code. <?php $txtMsg = '<table><th>Name</th>'; $txtMsg = ''; mysql_connect("localhost", "root", "pop") or die(mysql_error()); mysql_select_db("jpd") or die(mysql_error()); $oustanding = mysql_query("select Name from results") or die(mysql_error()); $num=mysql_num_rows($oustanding); while($row1 = mysql_fetch_array( $oustanding )) { ?> <tr> <td><h3><?php echo $row1['Name']; ?></h3></td> </tr> <?php $txtMsg .= "<tr><td>".$row1['Name']."</td></tr>"; } ini_set ( "SMTP", "xy.domain.com" ); $mail_to= '[email protected]'; $mail_from='[email protected]'; $mail_sub='OutStanding Results'; $mail_mesg=$txtMsg; //Check for success/failure of delivery if(mail($mail_to,$mail_sub,$mail_mesg,"From: $mail_from")) echo "<br><br>Email Successfully Sent!"; else echo "<br><br>Error Sending Email!"; } ?> The problem is , I want the results to be displayed in table format. But instead of processing the html tags, they are getting printed as well. How to get the email with table format? Thanks.

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  • use exec for dsadd

    - by Daryl Gill
    I'm Programming on a Windows Server 2008 and I wish to have a WebUI to interact with the domains active directory. One of my main problems is this that i'm using dsadd from a HTML form but this is no succeeding. I know my command is correct, I have tested it out on the Servers Command line My Code is As Below: if (isset($_POST['Submit'])) { $DesiredUsername = $_POST['DesiredUsername']; $DesiredPassword = $_POST['DesiredPassword']; $DU = "{$DesiredUsername}"; // Desired Username $OU = "PHPCreatedUsers"; // Domain OU $DC1 = "slayerserv"; // Domain Part one $DC2 = "local"; // Domain Part Two $PWD = "{$DesiredPassword}"; // Password $ExecScript = 'dsadd user cn=$DesiredUsername,cn=PHPCreatedUsers,dc=slayerserv,dc=local -disabled no -pwd $DesiredPassword -mustchpwd yes'; exec($ExecScript, $output); mysql_query("INSERT INTO addedusers (`ID`, `DU`, `OU`, `DC1`, `DC2, `PWD`) VALUES ('', '$DU', '$OU', '$DC1', '$DC2', '$PWD')"); echo "<br><br>"; print_r($output); # echo "User: $DesiredUsername Has been Created"; } When I print_r($output); it Returns a blank array: Array ( ) Could anyone provide me with a solution or point me in the right direction? ++++ Below is a working example of my usage of exec $Script = 'ping 127.0.0.1 -n 1'; exec($Script, $Output); print_r($Output); print_r($Output); Gives: Array ( [0] = [1] = Pinging 127.0.0.1 with 32 bytes of data: [2] = Reply from 127.0.0.1: bytes=32 time<1ms TTL=128 [3] = [4] = Ping statistics for 127.0.0.1: [5] = Packets: Sent = 1, Received = 1, Lost = 0 (0% loss), [6] = Approximate round trip times in milli-seconds: [7] = Minimum = 0ms, Maximum = 0ms, Average = 0ms )

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  • Cannot upload media via Wordpress uploader

    - by Justin Johnson
    This has to do with media uploading in Wordpress. Every time WP creates a folder for new uploads (it organizes uploads by year and month: yyyy/mm), it creates it with the "apache:apache' user and group, with full access to all (777 or drwxrwxrwx). However, after that, WP cannot create a folder within that folder (e.g.: mkdir 2011 succeeds, but mkdir 2011/01 fails). Also, uploads cannot be moved into these newly created folders even though the permissions are 777 (rwxrwxrwx). Once a month, I have to chown the newly created folders to be the same as user:group as the rest of the files. Once I do that, uploading works fine (which doesn't make sense to me The really frustrating part is that this problem doesn't exist in other WP installs on other domains on the same server. * I wasn't sure if this should be here or on serverfault. Edit: The containing directory /.../httpdocs/blog/wp-content/uploads has the correct ownership drwxrwxrwx 5 myuser psaserv 4096 Jun 3 18:38 uploads This is a Plesk/CentOS environment hosted by Media Temple (dv). I've written the following test script to simulate the problem <pre><?php $d = "d" . mt_rand(100, 500); var_dump( get_current_user(), $d, mkdir($d), chmod($d, 0777), mkdir("$d/$d"), chmod("$d/$d", 0777), fileowner($d), getmyuid() ); The script always creates the first directory mkdir($d) successfully. On domain A, where the WP problem is, it cannot create the nested directory mkdir("$d/$d"). However, on domain B, both directories are successfully created. I am running each script at /var/www/vhosts/domainA/httpdocs/tmp/t.php and /var/www/vhosts/domainB/httpdocs/tmp/t.php respectively I checked the permissions on tmp, httpdocs, and domain[AB] and they are the same for each path. The only thing that differs is the user.

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  • Microsoft Solver Foundation constraint

    - by emaster70
    Hello, I'm trying to use Microsoft Solver Foundation 2 to solve a fairly complicated situation, however I'm stuck with an UnsupportedModelException even when I dumb down the model as much as possible. Does anyone have an idea of what I'm doing wrong? Following is the least example required to reproduce the problematic behavior. var ctx = SolverContext.GetContext(); var model = ctx.CreateModel(); var someConstant = 1337.0; var decisionA = new Decision(Domain.Real, "decisionA"); var decisionB = new Decision(Domain.Real, "decisionB"); var decisionC = new Decision(Domain.Real, "decisionC"); model.AddConstraint("ca", decisionA <= someConstant); model.AddConstraint("cb", decisionB <= someConstant); model.AddConstraint("cc", decisionC <= someConstant); model.AddConstraint("mainConstraint", Model.Equal(Model.Sum(decisionA, decisionB, decisionC), someConstant)) model.AddGoal("myComplicatedGoal", GoalKind.Minimize, decisionC); var solution = ctx.Solve(); solution.GetReport().WriteTo(Console.Out); Console.ReadKey(); Please consider that my actual model should include, once complete, a few constraints in the form of a*a+b*a <= someValue, so if what I'm willing to do ultimately isn't supported, please let me know in advance. If that's the case I'd also appreciate a suggestion of some other solver with a .NET friendly interface that I could use (only well-known commercial packages, please). Thanks in advance

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  • When is onBind or onCreate called in an android service browser plugin?

    - by anselm
    I have adapted the example plugin of the android source and the browser recognises the plugin without any problem. Here is an extract of AndroidManifest.xml: <application android:icon="@drawable/icon" android:label="@string/app_name" android:debuggable="true"> <service android:name="com.domain.plugin.PluginService"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.webkit.PLUGIN" /> </intent-filter> </service> </application> <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="7" /> <uses-permission android:name="android.webkit.permission.PLUGIN"></uses-permission> The actual Service class looks like so: public class PluginService extends Service { @Override public IBinder onBind(Intent arg0) { Log.d("PluginService", "onBind"); return null; } @Override public void onCreate() { Log.d("PluginService", "onCreate"); // TODO Auto-generated method stub super.onCreate(); AssetInstaller.getInstance(this).installAssets("/data/data/com.domain.plugin"); } } The AssetInstaller code is supposed to extract some files required by the actual plugin into the /data/data/com.domain.plugin directory, however wether onBind nor onCreate are called. But I get lot's of debug trace of the actual libnpplugin.so file I'm using. So the puzzle is when and under what circumstance is the Service bound or created in case of a browser plugin. As things look the service seems to be a dummy service. Having said that, is there another intent that can be executed at installation time probably? The only solution I see right now is installing the needed files from the native plugin code instead. Any ideas? I know this is quite a tricky question ;)

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  • MSTest unit test passes by itself, fails when other tests are run

    - by Sarah Vessels
    I'm having trouble with some MSTest unit tests that pass when I run them individually but fail when I run the entire unit test class. The tests test some code that SLaks helped me with earlier, and he warned me what I was doing wasn't thread-safe. However, now my code is more complicated and I don't know how to go about making it thread-safe. Here's what I have: public static class DLLConfig { private static string _domain; public static string Domain { get { return _domain = AlwaysReadFromFile ? readCredentialFromFile(DOMAIN_TAG) : _domain ?? readCredentialFromFile(DOMAIN_TAG); } } } And my test is simple: string expected = "the value I know exists in the file"; string actual = DLLConfig.Domain; Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); When I run this test by itself, it passes. When I run it alongside all the other tests in the test class (which perform similar checks on different properties), actual is null and the test fails. I note this is not a problem with a property whose type is a custom Enum type; maybe I'm having this problem with the Domain property because it is a string? Or maybe it's a multi-threaded issue with how MSTest works?

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  • firefox lead dot in cookie issue

    - by Jon
    Hi all, We are having an annoying issue with Firefox and cookies. We have the following domains: sub1.mydomain.com sub2.mydomain.com sub3.mydomain.com otherdomain.com We have converting our framework to be multilingual and providing a drop down to change the language at any point during site. The code base is shared across all the domains above. We can not set a cookie across all "mydomain.com" sites, they have to be on each of the sub domains. To get this to work we set a JavaScript cookie when the users chooses a new language. When the page posts back to the server the code picks this up and sets the users preferences to that new language code, (this is all C# and ASP.NET). We have to set the host to be "subX.mydomain.com" and the path to be "/" in the cookie so that it is just for the subdomain and all parts of that domain. This works great on all browsers apart from FireFox. It seems that firefox will pre append a DOT to the beginning of domain so ".subX.mydomain.com". When the code posts back with FireFox the cookie is always null. Has anyone had this situation, (I imagine it is not al that uncommon). I have read a lot of people saying, remove the domain from the cookie, but that can not work for us as we have multiple subdomains that need their own cookie values. Thanks

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  • Maximizing the number of true concurrent / parrallel http requests in Silverlight

    - by Clems
    Hi all. I'm using SL 4 beta and my app needs to do a lot of small http requests to the server. I believe that when exceeding the number of allowed concurrent requests, the subsequent requests are put in a queue. I am also aware that SL 4 has both a http browser stack and a http client stack, with both different limit in terms of the number of concurrent requests. Let's say call those limits MAX_BROWSER and MAX_CLIENT. Also I think I read somewhere that the number of concurrent requests is limited per domain, not overall. But I'm sure if this applies to both the http client stack. That means that you CAN have MAX_BROWSER requests to domain1.com AND MAX_BROWSER requests to domain2.com at the same time. And I even believe that sub domains are considered different so you can also have MAX_BROWSER requests to domain1.com AND MAX_BROWSER requests to sub.domain1.com at the same time. I have ownership of the services and domain names so I could easily setup sub domains for my services. Given those considerations I'm trying to optimize the number of concurrent http requests to my server. Here are few questions ? Is is possible to use both stack at the same time ? Is the subdomain/domain story true for both stacks ? None ? If so that would mean that I could potentially have a number of concurrent requests equal to : (MAX_BROWSER + MAX_CLIENT) * NUMBER_OF_DOMAINS which would be fairly good. Is this correct ? I'm kind of sharing my morning thoughts here, hoping somebody has experimented with those things. Thank you.

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  • Issues Deploying ROOT Context in Tomcat6

    - by Josh K
    I'm working on getting an application deployed to the ROOT ("/") context in my Tomcat 6 instance. Here's what has been done: Defined another virtual host (domain.com) Created the respective folder (/etc/tomcat6/Catalina/domain.com) Set it to auto deploy WAR's Set appBase to CATALINA_BASE/domainapps and created respective folder Copied manager.xml from localhost to domain.com. Now I'm trying to deploy into the ROOT context by uploading a ROOT.war to CATALINA_BASE/domainapps. This isn't working. I don't get any exceptions thrown, but the stock ROOT page ("It works !") stays up. I have successfully deployed it into another context (by uploading domainapp.war and viewing at /domainapp), but not ROOT. Re-reading the Virtual Host setup it makes reference to CATALINA_HOME and CATALINA_BASE. My CATALINA_HOME is at /usr/share/tomcat6/domainapp while CATALINA_BASE is /var/lib/tomcat6. Which should I be using for what? Currently haven't touched CATALINA_HOME but will try messing with a few things there. A better question might be what is the generally accepted flow taken to setup a new Tomcat instance and deploy an application to the root context.

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  • Running migration on server when deploying with capistrano

    - by Pandafox
    Hi, I'm trying to deploy my rails application with capistrano, but I'm having some trouble running my migrations. In my development environment I just use sqlite as my database, but on my production server I use MySQL. The problem is that I want the migrations to run from my server and not my local machine, as I am not able to connect to my database from a remote location. My server setup: A debian box running ngnix, passenger, mysql and a git repository. What is the easiest way to do this? update: Here's my deploy script: set :application, "example.com" set :domain, "example.com" set :scm, :git set :repository, "[email protected]:project.git" set :use_sudo, false set :deploy_to, "/var/www/example.com" role :web, domain role :app, domain role :db, "localhost", :primary = true after "deploy", "deploy:migrate" When I run cap deploy, everything is working fine until it tries to run the migration. Here's the error I'm getting: ** [deploy:update_code] exception while rolling back: Capistrano::ConnectionError, connection failed for: localhost (Errno::ECONNREFUSED: Connection refused - connect(2)) connection failed for: localhost (Errno::ECONNREFUSED: Connection refused - connect(2))) This is why I need to run the migration from the server and not from my local machine. Any ideas?

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  • Launch command on remote Windows machine, given admin credentials

    - by Bilal Aslam
    I have a Windows Server 2008 instance on Amazon EC2 (Amazon's cloud compute platform, which provides VMs in the cloud). It has an external IP, and I have an admin account on the box. I would like to 'bootstrap' this instance remotely i.e. I want to run commands to download, install and configure apps on it, all without having to log on even once. I have figured out how to do this to a remote, domain-joined computer using WMI. I can even use psexec to get what I want, as long as the remote computer is part of the domain. However, I have NOT been able to do for a remote computer on EC2. Here are some specific restrictions: 1) The remote computer is not part of my domain, hence no Kerberos 2) The remote computer does not have a cert I trust, or vice versa I am sure I am running into to some auth/trust restriction. Is there any way I can run a single command on the remote, given that I have admin privileges? I'm not tied down to using WMI, but I do need to run a command somehow. Feels like this should be a solved problem.

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  • Mixing RewriteRule and ProxyPass in Apache

    - by Taylor L
    I was working on debugging an issue today related to mixing mod_proxy and mod_rewrite together and I ended up having to use balancer://mycluster in the RewriteRule in order to stop receiving a 404 error from Apache. I have two questions: 1) Is there any other way to get the rewritten URL to go through the balancer without adding balancer://mycluster into the RewriteRule? 2) Is there a way to define all the parameters I defined in ProxyPass (stickysession=JSESSIONID|jsessionid scolonpathdelim=On lbmethod=bytraffic nofailover=Off) in either the <Proxy> or RewriteRule? I'm concerned the requests that match the new RewriteRule won't load balance in the same fashion as those that go through ProxyPass (like /app1/something.do)? Below are the relevant sections of the httpd.conf. I am using Apache 2.2. <Proxy balancer://mycluster> Order deny,allow Allow from all BalancerMember ajp://my.domain.com:8009 route=node1 BalancerMember ajp://my.domain.com:8009 route=node2 </Proxy> ProxyPass /app1 balancer://mycluster/app1 stickysession=JSESSIONID|jsessionid scolonpathdelim=On lbmethod=bytraffic nofailover=Off ProxyPassReverse /app1 ajp://my.domain.com:8009/app1 ... RewriteRule ^/static/cms/image/(.*)\.(.*) balancer://mycluster/app1/$1.$2 [P,L]

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  • using mod-rewrite to redirect requests for jquery.js to GoogleAPI cache

    - by Aditya Advani
    Hi All, Our Linux server with Apache 2.x, Plesk 8.x hosts a number of e-commerce websites. To take advantage of browser caching we would like to use Google's provided copy of jquery.js. Hence in the vhost.conf file of each we can use the following RewriteRule RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} jquery.min.js [nc] RewriteRule . http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4/jquery.min.js [L] And in vhost_ssl.conf RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} jquery.min.js [nc] RewriteRule . https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4/jquery.min.js [L] OK now these rules work fine in the individual vhost.conf files of each domain. However we host over 200 domains, I would like for them to work but cannot seem to get them to work globally in the httpd.conf file. Challenges are the following: Get the rewriterule to work in httpd.conf Detect if HTTPS is on, and if it is and the is is a secure page, rewrite to ... Each individual domain will still have it's own custom mod-rewrite rules. Which rules take precedence - global or per-domain? Do they combine? Is it ok if I have the "RewriteEngine On" directive in the global httpd.conf and then again in the vhost.conf? Please let me know what your guys' suggestions are. Desperate for a solution to this problem.

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  • Silverlight 3 + Java WebService

    - by Heko
    Hello! I have a Silverlight 3 project, and I need to call a Java WebService - the bindings are ok (SOAP 1.1 and basicHttpBinding): ClientConfig File: <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="SkyinfoTestInterfaceExport2_SkyinfoTestInterfaceHttpBinding" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647"> <security mode="None"> <transport> <extendedProtectionPolicy policyEnforcement="Never" /> </transport> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="myAddress" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="SkyinfoTestInterfaceExport2_SkyinfoTestInterfaceHttpBinding" contract="SkyInfoServiceReference.SkyinfoTestInterface" name="SkyinfoTestInterfaceExport2_SkyinfoTestInterfaceHttpPort" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> When I call a method on client I get this Policy error: An error occurred while trying to make a request to URI '...'. This could be due to attempting to access a service in a cross-domain way without a proper cross-domain policy in place, or a policy that is unsuitable for SOAP services. You may need to contact the owner of the service to publish a cross-domain policy file and to ensure it allows SOAP-related HTTP headers to be sent. This error may also be caused by using internal types in the web service proxy without using the InternalsVisibleToAttribute attribute. Please see the inner exception for more details. I know about those 2 policy XML filesbut Java EE service which I'm trying to call is hosted on a IBM WebSphere Process Server to which I don't have access. Does anybody know how to work around this policy exception?

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  • Have to login twice. PHP sessions and login troubles with Chrome and Opera.

    - by Robert
    The problem I am encountering is that for my login form I have to login twice for the session to register properly, but only in Chrome (my version is 4.0.249.89) and Opera (my version is 10.10). Here is the stripped down code that I am testing on: Login Page: session_start(); $_SESSION['user_id'] = 8; $_SESSION['user_name'] = 'Jim'; session_write_close(); header('Location: http://www.my-domain-name.com/'); exit(); Home Page: session_start(); if ( isset($_SESSION['user_id']) ) { echo "You are logged in!"; } else { echo "You are NOT logged in!"; } Logout Page: session_start(); session_unset(); session_destroy(); header('Location: http://www.my-domain-name.com/'); exit(); Currently, under a fresh load with no cookies, if I go to my-domain-name.com/login/ it will redirect to the home page and say "You are NOT logged in!" but if I go there again it will say "You are logged in!". Any ideas? Thanks for your help.

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  • ASP.Net MVC ActionLink's and Shared Hosting Aliased Domains

    - by Peter Meyer
    So, I've read this and I've got a similar issue: I have a shared hosting account (with GoDaddy, though that's not exactly relevant, I believe) and I've got an MVC (RC1) site deployed to a sub-folder which where I have another domain name mapped (or aliased). The sub-folder is also setup as an application root as well. The site works without issue, the problem is that I don't like the links that are being generated using Html.ActionLink and Ajax.ActionLink. It's inserting the sub folder name as part of the URL as described in this other question. Thing is, the site works fine, but I'd like to make the links generated relative to the domain name. To use an example: http://my.abc.com "primary" domain; maps to \ on file system http://my.xyz.com setup to map to \_xyz.com folder on file system My generated links on xyz.com look like this: Intended Generated -------- --------- http://my.xyz.com/Ctrller/Action/52 http://my.xyz.com/_xyz.com/Ctrller/Action/52 and, FWIW, the site works. So, the question: Is there something I can do to get rid of that folder name in the links being generated? I have a couple of brute force ideas, but they aren't too elegant.

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  • SQL Server 2008 - db mail issue

    - by Chris
    Hello. I have two instances of SQL Server 2008. One was upgraded from SQL Server 2000 and one was a clean, new install. SQL Mail operates perfectly on both instances. DB Mail operates perfectly on the newly installed instance. On the upgraded instance, DB Mail does not send any mail. Of course, I am not positive that the fact this instance is upgraded has anything to do with the issue, but it might. The configuration of my db mail profile and account looks identical to my functioning instance. In the configuration of the 'alerts' tab in the SQL Agent properties i have tried selecting both DB Mail and SQL Mail to no avail. Both instances use the same SMTP server with the same authentication (domain with db engine account). All messages sent via sp_send_db mail and those sent via the 'test email' option are visible in the sysmail_allitems queue and remain there as 'unsent'. The send_status eventually changes to 'failed'. The only messages in the sysmail_event_log are 'mail queue stopped by login domain\myuser', 'mail queue started by login domain/myuser' and 'activiation successful.'. selecting from the externalmailqueue has the same number of rows as sysmail_allitems. i have tried bouncing the agent, the entire instance and moving the other functioning instance to the other node in the cluster. any thoughts? thx.

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  • Does WordPress clear $GLOBALS ?

    - by Brayn
    Hey What I want to do is to include one of my PHP scripts in a Word Press theme. The problem is that after I include the script file I can't access, inside functions in the theme file, variables declared in the script file . I have created a new file in the theme folder and added the same code as in header.php and if I open that file it works just fine. So as far as I can tell it's something Word Press related. /other/path/wordpress/wp-content/themes/theme-name/header.php // this is broken /other/path/wordpress/wp-content/themes/theme-name/test.php // this works /var/www/vhosts/domain/wordpress/ ->(symlink)-> /other/path/wordpress/ /other/path/wordpress/wp-content/themes/theme-name/header.php /var/www/vhosts/domain/include_file.php Content of: /var/www/vhosts/domain/include_file.php $global_var = 'global'; print_r($GLOBALS); // if I open this file directly this prints globals WITH $global_var; // if this file is included in header this prints all the WP stuff WITHOUT $global_var; Content of: /other/path/wordpress/wp-content/themes/theme-name/header.php require '/path/to/include_file.php'; print $global_var; // this prints 'global' as expected function test() { global $global_var; print $global_var; // this is NULL } test(); print_r($GLOBALS); // this prints all the WP stuff WITHOUT $global_var in it

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