Search Results

Search found 14531 results on 582 pages for 'proxy pass'.

Page 229/582 | < Previous Page | 225 226 227 228 229 230 231 232 233 234 235 236  | Next Page >

  • Use of var keyword in C#

    - by kronoz
    After discussion with colleagues regarding the use of the 'var' keyword in C# 3 I wondered what people's opinions were on the appropriate uses of type inference via var? For example I rather lazily used var in questionable circumstances, e.g.:- foreach(var item in someList) { // ... } // Type of 'item' not clear. var something = someObject.SomeProperty; // Type of 'something' not clear. var something = someMethod(); // Type of 'something' not clear. More legitimate uses of var are as follows:- var l = new List<string>(); // Obvious what l will be. var s = new SomeClass(); // Obvious what s will be. Interestingly LINQ seems to be a bit of a grey area, e.g.:- var results = from r in dataContext.SomeTable select r; // Not *entirely clear* what results will be here. It's clear what results will be in that it will be a type which implements IEnumerable, however it isn't entirely obvious in the same way a var declaring a new object is. It's even worse when it comes to LINQ to objects, e.g.:- var results = from item in someList where item != 3 select item; This is no better than the equivilent foreach(var item in someList) { // ... } equivilent. There is a real concern about type safety here - for example if we were to place the results of that query into an overloaded method that accepted IEnumerable<int> and IEnumerable<double> the caller might inadvertently pass in the wrong type. Edit - var does maintain strong typing but the question is really whether it's dangerous for the type to not be immediately apparent on definition, something which is magnified when overloads mean compiler errors might not be issued when you unintentionally pass the wrong type to a method. Related Question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/633474/c-do-you-use-var

    Read the article

  • lightweight webserver to integrate on client end.

    - by Gopal
    Hi ,... I need to create a python module that will be installed on end-user machines. One of the scripts in that module should be able to receive http POSTS (usually with some JSON formatted data in the body) and then pass on that data to an appropriate python script. I can think of two ways to do this: a) Open a listening server socket on port 80, wait for that http request to come in, parse it and then pass that data to another python script depending on the url that arrived. This method will not require the end-user to install a webserver. End user only has to install the python module. b) Have a mini-webserver installed along with the python module. The webserver will do the same job as [a] via CGI without me requiring to write the CGI functionality. But then the user will have to install the web-server (ie., the hassle of yet another install). Would like to avoid that if possible. IF [b] is the easier option, what is the smallest simplest webserver there is (preferably one that can be packaged as part of the python module itself so that it does not have to be separately installed). Must be opensource of course. regards Gopal

    Read the article

  • In Python BeautifulSoup How to move tags

    - by JJ
    I have a partially converted XML document in soup coming from HTML. After some replacement and editing in the soup, the body is essentially - <Text...></Text> # This replaces <a href..> tags but automatically creates the </Text> <p class=norm ...</p> <p class=norm ...</p> <Text...></Text> <p class=norm ...</p> and so forth. I need to "move" the <p> tags to be children to <Text> or know how to suppress the </Text>. I want - <Text...> <p class=norm ...</p> <p class=norm ...</p> </Text> <Text...> <p class=norm ...</p> </Text> I've tried using item.insert and item.append but I'm thinking there must be a more elegant solution. for item in soup.findAll(['p','span']): if item.name == 'span' and item.has_key('class') and item['class'] == 'section': xBCV = short_2_long(item._getAttrMap().get('value','')) if currentnode: pass currentnode = Tag(soup,'Text', attrs=[('TypeOf', 'Section'),... ]) item.replaceWith(currentnode) # works but creates end tag elif item.name == 'p' and item.has_key('class') and item['class'] == 'norm': childcdatanode = None for ahref in item.findAll('a'): if childcdatanode: pass newlink = filter_hrefs(str(ahref)) childcdatanode = Tag(soup, newlink) ahref.replaceWith(childcdatanode) Thanks

    Read the article

  • Efficient way of calculating average difference of array elements from array average value

    - by Saysmaster
    Is there a way to calculate the average distance of array elements from array average value, by only "visiting" each array element once? (I search for an algorithm) Example: Array : [ 1 , 5 , 4 , 9 , 6 ] Average : ( 1 + 5 + 4 + 9 + 6 ) / 5 = 5 Distance Array : [|1-5|, |5-5|, |4-5|, |9-5|, |6-5|] = [4 , 0 , 1 , 4 , 1 ] Average Distance : ( 4 + 0 + 1 + 4 + 1 ) / 5 = 2 The simple algorithm needs 2 passes. 1st pass) Reads and accumulates values, then divides the result by array length to calculate average value of array elements. 2nd pass) Reads values, accumulates each one's distance from the previously calculated average value, and then divides the result by array length to find the average distance of the elements from the average value of the array. The two passes are identical. It is the classic algorithm of calculating the average of a set of values. The first one takes as input the elements of the array, the second one the distances of each element from the array's average value. Calculating the average can be modified to not accumulate the values, but caclulating the average "on the fly" as we sequentialy read the elements from the array. The formula is: Compute Running Average of Array's elements ------------------------------------------- RA[i] = E[i] {for i == 1} RA[i] = RA[i-1] - RA[i-1]/i + A[i]/i { for i > 1 } Where A[x] is the array's element at position x, RA[x] is the average of the array's elements between position 1 and x (running average). My question is: Is there a similar algorithm, to calculate "on the fly" (as we read the array's elements), the average distance of the elements from the array's mean value? The problem is that, as we read the array's elements, the final average value of the array is not known. Only the running average is known. So calculating differences from the running average will not yield the correct result. I suppose, if such algorithm exists, it probably should have the "ability" to compensate, in a way, on each new element read for the error calculated as far.

    Read the article

  • not able to Deserialize object

    - by Ravisha
    I am having following peice of code ,where in i am trying to serialize and deserailize object of StringResource class. Please note Resource1.stringXml = its coming from resource file.If i pass strelemet.outerXMl i get the object from Deserialize object ,but if i pass Resource1.stringXml i am getting following exception {"< STRING xmlns='' was not expected."} System.Exception {System.InvalidOperationException} class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { StringResource str = new StringResource(); str.DELETE = "CanDelete"; str.ID= "23342"; XmlElement strelemet = SerializeObjectToXmlNode (str); StringResource strResourceObject = DeSerializeXmlNodeToObject<StringResource>(Resource1.stringXml); Console.ReadLine(); } public static T DeSerializeXmlNodeToObject<T>(string objectNodeOuterXml) { try { TextReader objStringsTextReader = new StringReader(objectNodeOuterXml); XmlSerializer stringResourceSerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(T),string.Empty); return (T)stringResourceSerializer.Deserialize(objStringsTextReader); } catch (Exception excep) { return default(T); } } public static XmlElement SerializeObjectToXmlNode(object obj) { using (MemoryStream memoryStream = new MemoryStream()) { try { XmlSerializerNamespaces xmlNameSpace = new XmlSerializerNamespaces(); xmlNameSpace.Add(string.Empty, string.Empty); XmlWriterSettings writerSettings = new XmlWriterSettings(); writerSettings.CloseOutput = false; writerSettings.Encoding = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8; writerSettings.Indent = false; writerSettings.OmitXmlDeclaration = true; XmlWriter writer = XmlWriter.Create(memoryStream, writerSettings); XmlSerializer xmlserializer = new XmlSerializer(obj.GetType()); xmlserializer.Serialize(writer, obj, xmlNameSpace); writer.Close(); memoryStream.Position = 0; XmlDocument serializeObjectDoc = new XmlDocument(); serializeObjectDoc.Load(memoryStream); return serializeObjectDoc.DocumentElement; } catch (Exception excep) { return null; } } } } public class StringResource { [XmlAttribute] public string DELETE; [XmlAttribute] public string ID; }

    Read the article

  • Best way for launching html/jsp to communicate with GWT module

    - by h2g2java
    I asked this at the GWT forum but I'm impatient for the answer and I seem to get rather good responses here. A html or jsp file is used to launch the xxx.nocache.js, which then decides which browser "permutation" to use. <head> <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html;charset=UTF-8"> <title>xxx</title> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript" src="xxx.nocache.js"></script> </head> In my case, I am using a jsp. When the JSP is executed, it discovers some conditions. I wish to pass these conditions as values to the GWT module being launched. The "elegant" GWT way to pass these values would be to persist them as request/memcache attributes and then have the GWT module perform RPC to retrieve those values. For example, the JSP discovers that the current user is Whoopy. Shouldn't I simply have the JSP generate javascript to store user = "Whoopy" as a top or namedframe level javascript variable and use JSNI within the module to retrieve the value for user? I have not tried it yet, but I would like to know how anyone might have done it without having to use RPC.

    Read the article

  • When connecting SAP Business One to SQL Server 2005, what is the

    - by Nick
    we have SAP Business One - Fourth Shift Edition running here at a small manufacturing company. The consulting company that has come in to do the installation/implementation uses the "sa" id/pass to initially connect to the database to get the list of companies. From then on, I have to assume that its the sa id/pass that is being used to connect the client software to the database. Is this appropriate? I dont know where this data is being stored... as an ODBC connection? directly in the registry somewhere? Is it secure? Would it be better to set the users network ID in the database security and then use the "trusted connection" setting instead? Or do most people create a separate login in the database for each user and use that in the client settings? seems like the easiest way would be to add the users network login to the sql server security so they can use the "trusted connection"... but then wouldn't that allow ANY software to connect to the database from that machine? So anyways: what are the best-practices for setting this up?

    Read the article

  • How to write this Link2Sql select query

    - by RememberME
    I have 3 tables: subcontracts, companies and contacts. Each table has a active_status flags which shows that the item is still active (hasn't been deleted). Each contact has a company_id field which stores the id of the contact's company. Each subcontract has a company_id field which stores the subcontract's company. Each company has a company_id field which holds its guid and a primary_company field, b/c the company could be a subsidiary. If it's a subsidiary, the primary_company field holds the id of the primary company. I have a subcontract form. On the form, I have a drop-down of contacts which are stored in a contact table. Currently the drop-down lists all contacts. I would like to have the drop-down only list contacts which belong to the subcontract's company or any of that company's subsidiaries. I have the following query which I use elsewhere in the program to pass a company_id and get its subsidiaries. public IQueryable<company> GetSubsidiaryCompanies(Guid id) { return from c in db.companies where c.primary_company == id && c.active_status == true select c; } This is my current contact selection public IQueryable<contact> GetContacts() { return from c in db.contacts where c.active_status == true orderby c.contact_name select c; } What I need to do is pass it the subcontract.company_id and then only return the contacts where contact.company_id == subcontract.company_id or contact.company_id == one of the subsidiary ids.

    Read the article

  • Passing Variable Length Arrays to a function

    - by David Bella
    I have a variable length array that I am trying to pass into a function. The function will shift the first value off and return it, and move the remaining values over to fill in the missing spot, putting, let's say, a -1 in the newly opened spot. I have no problem passing an array declared like so: int framelist[128]; shift(framelist); However, I would like to be able to use a VLA declared in this manner: int *framelist; framelist = malloc(size * sizeof(int)); shift(framelist); I can populate the arrays the same way outside the function call without issue, but as soon as I pass them into the shift function, the one declared in the first case works fine, but the one in the second case immediately gives a segmentation fault. Here is the code for the queue function, which doesn't do anything except try to grab the value from the first part of the array... int shift(int array[]) { int value = array[0]; return value; } Any ideas why it won't accept the VLA? I'm still new to C, so if I am doing something fundamentally wrong, let me know.

    Read the article

  • use startActivityForResult from non-activity

    - by rayman
    Hi, I have MainActivity which is an Activity and other class(which is a simple java class), we`ll call it "SimpleClass". now i want to run from that class the command startActivityForResult. now i though that i could pass that class(SimpleClass), only MainActivity's context, problem is that, u cant run context.startActivityForResult(...); so the only way making SimpleClass to use 'startActivityForResult; is to pass the reference of MainActivity as an Activity variable to the SimpleClass something like that: inside the MainActivity class i create the instance of SimpleClass this way: SimpleClass simpleClass=new SimpleClass(MainActivity.this); now this is how SimpleClass looks like: public Class SimpleClass { Activity myMainActivity; public SimpleClass(Activity mainActivity) { super(); this.myMainActivity=mainActivity; } .... } public void someMethod(...) { myMainActivity.startActivityForResult(...); } now its working, but isnt a proper way of doing this? I`am afraid i could have some memory leaks in the future. thanks. ray.

    Read the article

  • I like the way they Design/Architecture it but how do I implement this

    - by Rachel
    Summary: I have different components on homepage and each components shows some promotion to the user. I have Cart as one Component and depending upon content of the cart promotion are show. I have to track user online activities and send that information to Omniture for Report Generation. Now my components are loaded asynchronously basically are loaded when AjaxRequest is fired up and so there is not fix pattern or rather information on when components will appear on the webpages. Now in order to pass information to Omniture I need to call track function on $(document).(ready) and append information for each components(7 parameters are required by Omniture for each component). So in the init:config function of each component am calling Omniture and passing paramters but now no. of Omniture calls is directly proportional to no. of Components on the webpage but this is not acceptable as each call to Omniture is very expensive. Now I am looking for a way where in I can club the information about 7 parameters and than make one Call to Omniture wherein I pass those information. Points to note is that I do not know when the components are loaded and so there is no pre-defined time or no. of components that would be loaded. The thing is am calling track function when document is ready but components are loaded after call to Omniture has been made and so my question is Q: How can I collect the information for all the components and than just make one call to Omniture to send those information ? As mentioned, I do not know when the components are loaded as they are done on the Ajax Request. Hope I am able to explain my challenge and would appreciate if some one can provide from Design/Architect Solutions for the Challenge.

    Read the article

  • How is a relative JMP (x86) implemented in an Assembler?

    - by Pindatjuh
    While building my assembler for the x86 platform I encountered some problems with encoding the JMP instruction: enc inst size in bytes EB cb JMP rel8 2 E9 cw JMP rel16 4 (because of 0x66 16-bit prefix) E9 cd JMP rel32 5 ... (from my favourite x86 instruction website, http://siyobik.info/index.php?module=x86&id=147) All are relative jumps, where the size of each encoding (operation + operand) is in the third column. Now my original (and thus fault because of this) design reserved the maximum (5 bytes) space for each instruction. The operand is not yet known, because it's a jump to a yet unknown location. So I've implemented a "rewrite" mechanism, that rewrites the operands in the correct location in memory, if the location of the jump is known, and fills the rest with NOPs. This is a somewhat serious concern in tight-loops. Now my problem is with the following situation: b: XXX c: JMP a e: XXX ... XXX d: JMP b a: XXX (where XXX is any instruction, depending on the to-be assembled program) The problem is that I want the smallest possible encoding for a JMP instruction (and no NOP filling). I have to know the size of the instruction at c before I can calculate the relative distance between a and b for the operand at d. The same applies for the JMP at c: it needs to know the size of d before it can calculate the relative distance between e and a. How do existing assemblers implement this, or how would you implement this? This is what I am thinking which solves the problem: First encode all the instructions to opcodes between the JMP and it's target, and if this region contains a variable-sized opcode, use the maximum size, i.e. 5 for JMP. Then in some conditions, the JMP is oversized (because it may fit in a smaller encoding): so another pass will search for oversized JMPs, shrink them, and move all instructions ahead), and set absolute branching instructions (i.e. external CALLs) after this pass is completed. I wonder, perhaps this is an over-engineered solution, that's why I ask this question.

    Read the article

  • How to create a CGBitmapContext which works for Retina display and not wasting space for regular display?

    - by ????
    Is it true that if it is in UIKit, including drawRect, the HD aspect of Retina display is automatically handled? So does that mean in drawRect, the current graphics context for a 1024 x 768 view is actually a 2048 x 1536 pixel Bitmap context? (is there a way to print this size out to verify it). We actually enjoy the luxury of 1 point = 4 pixels automatically handled for us. However, if we use CGBitmapContextCreate, then those will really be pixels, not points? (at least if we provide a data buffer for that bitmap, the size is not for the higher resolution, but for the standard resolution, and even if we pass NULL as the buffer so that CGBitmapContextCreate handles the buffer for us, the size probably is the same as if we pass in a data buffer, and it is just standard resolution, not Retina's resolution). We can always create 2048 x 1536 for iPad 1 and iPad 2 as well as the New iPad, but it will waste memory and processor and GPU power, as it is only needed for the New iPad. So do we have to use a if () { } else { } to create such a bitmap context and how do we actually do so? And all our code CGContextMoveToPoint has to be adjusted for Retina display to use x * 2 and y * 2 vs non-retina display of just using x, y as well? That can be quite messy for the code. (or maybe we can define a local variable scaleFactor and set it to 1 for standard resolution and 2 if it is retina, so our x and y will always be x * scaleFactor, y * scaleFactor instead of just x and y.) It seems that UIGraphicsBeginImageContextWithOptions can create one for Retina automatically if the scale of 0.0 is passed in, but I don't think it can be used if I need to create the context and keep it (and using ivar or property of UIViewController to hold it). If I don't release it using UIGraphicsEndImageContext, then it stays in the graphics context stack, so it seems like I have to use CGBitmapContextCreate instead. (or do we just let it stay at the bottom of the stack and not worry about it?)

    Read the article

  • Can I use the auto-generated Linq-to-SQL entity classes in 'disconnected' mode?

    - by Gary McGill
    Suppose I have an automatically-generated Employee class based on the Employees table in my database. Now suppose that I want to pass employee data to a ShowAges method that will print out name & age for a list of employees. I'll retrieve the data for a given set of employees via a linq query, which will return me a set of Employee instances. I can then pass the Employee instances to the ShowAges method, which can access the Name & Age fields to get the data it needs. However, because my Employees table has relationships with various other tables in my database, my Employee class also has a Department field, a Manager field, etc. that provide access to related records in those other tables. If the ShowAges method were to invoke any of those methods, this would cause lots more data to be fetched from the database, on-demand. I want to be sure that the ShowAges method only uses the data I have already fetched for it, but I really don't want to have to go to the trouble of defining a new class which replicates the Employee class but has fewer methods. (In my real-world scenario, the class would have to be considerably more complex than the Employee class described here; it would have several 'joined' classes that do need to be populated, and others that don't). Is there a way to 'switch off' or 'disconnect' the Employees instances so that an attempt to access any property or related object that's not already populated will raise an exception? If not, then I assume that since this must be a common requirement, there might be an already-established pattern for doing this sort of thing?

    Read the article

  • Passing Object to Service in WCF

    - by hgulyan
    Hi, I have my custom class Customer with its properties. I added DataContract mark above the class and DataMember to properties and it was working fine, but I'm calling a service class's function, passing customer instance as parameter and some of my properties get 0 values. While debugging I can see my properties values and after it gets to the function, some properties' values are 0. Why it can be so? There's no code between this two actions. DataContract mark workes fine, everything's ok. Any suggestions on this issue? I tried to change ByRef to ByVal, but it doesn't change anything. Why it would pass other values right and some of integer types just 0? Maybe the answer is simple, but I can't figure it out. Thank You. <DataContract()> Public Class Customer Private Type_of_clientField As Integer = -1 <DataMember(Order:=1)> Public Property type_of_client() As Integer Get Return Type_of_clientField End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) Type_of_clientField = value End Set End Property End Class <ServiceContract(SessionMode:=SessionMode.Allowed)> <DataContractFormat()> Public Interface CustomerService <OperationContract()> Function addCustomer(ByRef customer As Customer) As Long End Interface type_of_client properties value is 6 before I call addCustomer function. After it enters that function the value is 0. UPDATE: The issue is in instance creating. When I create an instance of a class on client side, that is stored on service side, some of my properties pass 0 or nothing, but when I call a function of a service class, that returns a new instance of that class, it works fine. What's is the difference? Could that be serialization issue?

    Read the article

  • How to tell axis2 to use an existing object as a service?

    - by Christian Hausknecht
    I am trying to expose some methods of a running application as a webservice. The core idea is to use an embedded web-server and send the soap messages to the apache axis2 framework in order to invoke the services. The problem is, that axis2's createService methods only accept Classes as parameter, not existing objects. So I believe that axis2 itself creates an object of the service class and then uses it to call methods when an external service call arrives. But I need to pass an existing object for being used as a service, because I need to call methods of other objects of the running application within the service methods. So the "standard" way that axis2 creates a new instance of the service class and calls then its methods is obviously no sulution for me. So is there a way to realize this? Or is there another solution? Perhaps you can pass objects later on to the allready created service object by axis2? If there is another solution without axis2 I might consider that one. Basically I am only interested in exposing some functionality of a runnning application as a webservice.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Paging for a search form

    - by James Alexander
    I've read several different posts on paging w/ in MVC but none describe a scenario where I have something like a search form and then want to display the results of the search criteria (with paging) beneath the form once the user clicks submit. My problem is that, the paging solution I'm using will create <a href="..."> links that will pass the desired page like so: http://mysite.com/search/2/ and while that's all fine and dandy, I don't have the results of the query being sent to the db in memory or anything so I need to query the DB again. If the results are handled by the POST controller action for /Search and the first page of the data is rendered as such, how do I get the same results (based on the form criteria specified by the user) when the user clicks to move to page 2? Some javascript voodoo? Leverage Session State? Make my GET controller action have the same variables expected by the search criteria (but optional), when the GET action is called, instantiate a FormCollection instance, populate it and pass it to the POST action method (there-by satisfying DRY)? Can someone point me in the right direction for this scenario or provide examples that have been implemented in the past? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • MVC: model of type Nullable<T>

    - by Fyodor Soikin
    I have a partial view that inherits from ViewUserControl<Guid?> - i.e. it's model is of type Nullable<Guid>. Very simple view, nothing special, but that's not the point. Somewhere else, I do Html.RenderPartial( "MyView", someGuid ), where someGuid is of type Nullable<Guid>. Everything's perfectly legal, should work OK, right? But here's the gotcha: the second argument of Html.RenderPartial is of type object, and therefore, Nullable<Guid> being a value type, it must be boxed. But nullable types are somehow special in the CLR, so that when you box one of those, you actually get either a boxed value of type T (Nullable's argument), or a null if the nullable didn't have a value to begin with. And that last case is actually interesting. Turns out, sometimes, I do have a situation when someGuid.HasValue == false. And in those cases, I effectively get a call Html.RenderPartial( "MyView", null ). And what does the HtmlHelper do when the model is null? Believe it or not, it just goes ahead and takes the parent view's model. Regardless of it's type. So, naturally, in those cases, I get an exception saying: "The model item passed into the dictionary is of type 'Parent.View.Model.Type', but this dictionary requires a model item of type 'System.Guid?'" So the question is: how do I make MVC correctly pass new Nullable<Guid> { HasValue = false } instead of trying to grab the parent's model? Note: I did consider wrapping my Guid? in an object of another type, specifically created for this occasion, but this seems completely ridiculous. Don't want to do that as long as there's another way. Note 2: now that I've wrote all this, I've realized that the question may be reduced to how to pass a null for model without ending up with parent's model?

    Read the article

  • Passing an ActionScript JPG Byte Array to Javscript (and eventually to PHP)

    - by Gus
    Our web application has a feature which uses Flash (AS3) to take photos using the user's web cam, then passes the resulting byte array to PHP where it is reconstructed and saved on the server. However, we need to be able to take this web application offline, and we have chosen Gears to do so. The user takes the app offline, performs his tasks, then when he's reconnected to the server, we "sync" the data back with our central database. We don't have PHP to interact with Flash anymore, but we still need to allow users to take and save photos. We don't know how to save a JPG that Flash creates in a local database. Our hope was that we could save the byte array, a serialized string, or somehow actually persist the object itself, then pass it back to either PHP or Flash (and then PHP) to recreate the JPG. We have tried: - passing the byte array to Javascript instead of PHP, but javascript doesn't seem to be able to do anything with it (the object seems to be stripped of its methods) - stringifying the byte array in Flash, and then passing it to Javascript, but we always get the same string: ÿØÿà Now we are thinking of serializing the string in Flash, passing it to Javascript, then on the return route, passing that string back to Flash which will then pass it to PHP to be reconstructed as a JPG. (whew). Since no one on our team has extensive Flash background, we're a bit lost. Is serialization the way to go? Is there a more realistic way to do this? Does anyone have any experience with this sort of thing? Perhaps we can build a javascript class that is the same as the byte array class in AS?

    Read the article

  • How do I use the 7-zip LZMA SDK 9.x to self-extract?

    - by Christopher
    I am writing a SFX for an installer. I have a number of good reasons for doing this, primarily: The installer is actually a large Python program which uses plugins. Using py2exe or pyinstaller makes doing plugins annoyingly complicated. I want to be able to pass command-line options directly to the Python installer script, as if it were getting run directly. Using the existing 7-zip SFX modules is clunky because I cannot pass command-line options directly into the processes I want to start. I need more flexibility than any of the existing SFX modules I have seen provide. I have already tried using the SDK to open the file, seek to the 7z archive signature, and run the decompression from there. That fails because the SzArEx_Open() call appears to assume that you are starting at a 0 offset in the file. I am using the File_Seek() call to perform the seeking. It seems like there must be a way to do this, since the 7z archive format itself supports multiple embedded streams. Any pointers to examples would be awesome, but narrative explanation is also quite welcome!

    Read the article

  • check whether mmap'ed address is correct

    - by reddot
    I'm writing a high-loaded daemon that should be run on the FreeBSD 8.0 and on Linux as well. The main purpose of daemon is to pass files that are requested by their identifier. Identifier is converted into local filename/file size via request to db. And then I use sequential mmap() calls to pass file blocks with send(). However sometimes there are mismatch of filesize in db and filesize on filesystem (realsize < size in db). In this situation I've sent all real data blocks and when next data block is mapped -- mmap returns no errors, just usual address (I've checked errno variable also, it's equal to zero after mmap). And when daemon tries to send this block it gets Segmentation Fault. (This behaviour is guarantedly issued on FreeBSD 8.0 amd64) I was using safe check before open to ensure size with stat() call. However real life shows to me that segfault still can be raised in rare situtaions. So, my question is there a way to check whether pointer is accessible before dereferencing it? When I've opened core in gdb, gdb says that given address is out of bound. Probably there is another solution somebody can propose.

    Read the article

  • Directly call distutils' or setuptools' setup() function with command name/options, without parsing

    - by Ryan B. Lynch
    I'd like to call Python's distutils' or setuptools' setup() function in a slightly unconventional way, but I'm not sure whether distutils is meant for this kind of usage. As an example, let's say I currently have a 'setup.py' file, which looks like this (lifted verbatim from the distutils docs--the setuptools usage is almost identical): from distutils.core import setup setup(name='Distutils', version='1.0', description='Python Distribution Utilities', author='Greg Ward', author_email='[email protected]', url='http://www.python.org/sigs/distutils-sig/', packages=['distutils', 'distutils.command'], ) Normally, to build just the .spec file for an RPM of this module, I could run python setup.py bdist_rpm --spec-only, which parses the command line and calls the 'bdist_rpm' code to handle the RPM-specific stuff. The .spec file ends up in './dist'. How can I change my setup() invocation so that it runs the 'bdist_rpm' command with the '--spec-only' option, WITHOUT parsing command-line parameters? Can I pass the command name and options as parameters to setup()? Or can I manually construct a command line, and pass that as a parameter, instead? NOTE: I already know that I could call the script in a separate process, with an actual command line, using os.system() or the subprocess module or something similar. I'm trying to avoid using any kind of external command invocations. I'm looking specifically for a solution that runs setup() in the current interpreter. For background, I'm converting some release-management shell scripts into a single Python program. One of the tasks is running 'setup.py' to generate a .spec file for further pre-release testing. Running 'setup.py' as an external command, with its own command line options, seems like an awkward method, and it complicates the rest of the program. I feel like there may be a more Pythonic way.

    Read the article

  • What guidelines should be followed when using an unstable/testing/stable branching scheme?

    - by Elliot
    My team is currently using feature branches while doing development. For each user story in our sprint, we create a branch and work it in isolation. Hence, according to Martin Fowler, we practice Continuous Building, not Continuous Integration. I am interested in promoting an unstable/testing/stable scheme, similar to that of Debian, so that code is promoted from unstable = testing = stable. Our definition of done, I'd recommend, is when unit tests pass (TDD always), minimal documentation is complete, automated functional tests pass, and feature has been demo'd and accepted by PO. Once accepted by the PO, the story will be merged into the testing branch. Our test developers spend most of their time in this branch banging on the software and continuously running our automated tests. This scares me, however, because commits from another incomplete story may now make it into the testing branch. Perhaps I'm missing something because this seems like an undesired consequence. So, if moving to a code promotion strategy to solve our problems with feature branches, what strategy/guidelines do you recommend? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to configure database connection securely

    - by chiccodoro
    Similar but not the same: How to securely store database connection details Securely connecting to database within a application Hi all, I have a C# WinForms application connecting to a database server. The database connection string, including a generic user/pass, is placed in a NHibernate configuration file, which lies in the same directory as the exe file. Now I have this issue: The user that runs the application should not get to know the username/password of the general database user because I don't want him to rummage around in the database directly. Alternatively I could hardcode the connection string, which is bad because the administrator must be able to change it if the database is moved or if he wants to switch between dev/test/prod environments. So long I've found three possibilities: The first referenced question was generally answered by making the file only readable for the user that runs the application. But that's not not enough in my case (the user running the application is a person. The database user/pass are general and shouldn't even be accessible by the person.) The first answer additionally proposed to encrypt the connection data before writing it to the file. With this approach, the administrator is not able anymore to configure the connection string because he cannot encrypt it by hand. The second referenced question provides an approach for this very scenario but it seems very complicated. My questions to you: This is a very general issue, so isn't there any general "how-to-do-it" way, somehow a "design pattern"? Is there some support in .NET's config infrastructure? (optional, maybe out of scope) Can I combine that easily with the NHibernate configuration mechanism?

    Read the article

  • NSTimer to smooth out playback position

    - by Michael
    I have an audio player and I want to show the current time of the the playback. I'm using a custom play class. The app downloads the mp3 to a file then plays from the file when 5% has been downloaded. I have a progress view update as the file plays and update a label on each call to the progress view. However, this is jerky... sometimes even going backward a digit or two. I was considering using an NSTimer to smooth things out. I would be fired every second to a method and pass the percentage played figure to the method then update the label. First, does this seem reasonable? Second, how do I pass the percentage (a float) over to the target of the timer. Right now I am putting the percent played into a dictionary but this seems less than optimal. This is what is called update the progress bar: -(void)updateAudioProgress:(Percentage)percent { audio = percent; if (!seekChanging) slider.value = percent; NSMutableDictionary *myDictionary = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] init]; [myDictionary setValue:[NSNumber numberWithFloat:percent] forKey:@"myPercent"]; [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:5 target:self selector:@selector(myTimerMethod:) userInfo:myDictionary repeats:YES]; [myDictionary release]; } This is called first after 5 seconds but then updates each time the method is called. As always, comments and pointers appreciated.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 225 226 227 228 229 230 231 232 233 234 235 236  | Next Page >