Search Results

Search found 5910 results on 237 pages for 'entity splitting'.

Page 23/237 | < Previous Page | 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30  | Next Page >

  • !(ReferenceEquals()) vs != in Entity Framework 4

    - by Eric J.
    Unless a class specifically overrides the behavior defined for Object, ReferenceEquals and == do the same thing... compare references. In property setters, I have commonly used the pattern private MyType myProperty; public MyType MyProperty { set { if (myProperty != value) { myProperty = value; // Do stuff like NotifyPropertyChanged } } } However, in code generated by Entity Framework, the if statement is replaced by if (!ReferenceEquals(myProperty, value)) Using ReferenceEquals is more explicit (as I guess not all C# programmers know that == does the same thing if not overridden). Is there any difference that's escaping me between the two if-variants? Are they perhaps accounting for the possibility that POCO designers may have overridden ==? In short, if I have not overridden ==, am I save using != instead of ReferencEquals()?

    Read the article

  • Entity framework and many to many queries unusable?

    - by John Landheer
    I'm trying EF out and I do a lot of filtering based on many to many relationships. For instance I have persons, locations and a personlocation table to link the two. I also have a role and personrole table. EDIT: Tables: Person (personid, name) Personlocation (personid, locationid) Location (locationid, description) Personrole (personid, roleid) Role (roleid, description) EF will give me persons, roles and location entities. EDIT: Since EF will NOT generate the personlocation and personrole entity types, they cannot be used in the query. How do I create a query to give me all the persons of a given location with a given role? In SQL the query would be select p.* from persons as p join personlocations as pl on p.personid=pl.personid join locations as l on pl.locationid=l.locationid join personroles as pr on p.personid=pr.personid join roles as r on pr.roleid=r.roleid where r.description='Student' and l.description='Amsterdam' I've looked, but I can't seem to find a simple solution.

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework and the XmlIgnoreAttribute

    - by Mikey Cee
    Say you have a one to one relationship in your entity model. The code generator will decorate it with the following attributes: [global::System.Xml.Serialization.XmlIgnoreAttribute()] [global::System.Xml.Serialization.SoapIgnoreAttribute()] public RelatedObject Relationship { get {...} set {...} } I want to serialize my parent object together with all its properties for which data has been loaded through an XML web service. Obviously, these related properties do not get serialized because of these attributes. So for my purposes I just want to remove these "don't serialize me" attributes. I can do a find and replace in the designer code, but any modifications I make in the designer will put these attributes back in. How do I permanently get rid of these attributes? VS 2008 / EF 3.5.

    Read the article

  • Changing an extention method from linq-to-sql to entity framework

    - by Jova
    I'm changing my project from working with Linq-to-SQL to working with Entity Framework. I have some extention methods that extend the classes created by LINQ and I'm wondering how to change them to work with the entities instead Here's an example. public static int GetPublishedArticlesCount(this Table<Article> source) { return GetPublishedArticles(source.Context as DataContext, null).Count(); } This method gets the number of published articles. Instead of using this Table<Article>, what should I use instead?

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework 5 vs Telerik OpenAccess ORM (specifically)

    - by dimoss
    I am starting a new project and want advice on choosing an ORM. I know this topic has been brought up before, but this topic is specific to either Entity Framework 5 (not 4) or Telerik OpenAccess ORM. The project will reside on Windows Azure and use Windows Azure SQL Database. I will migrate it to .NET 4.5 once 4.5 is live on Azure. I am currently a Telerik Ultimate Collection subscriber. Does anyone in the know have any pros/cons for this scenario? I am slightly leaning towards Telerik OpenAccess at the moment. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework Performance Inconsistency Compared to Sql Management Studio

    - by AndyV
    I'm getting timeouts with a very basic EF statement. I'm simply doing a select from a single table with a Entity.Title.StartsWith("test") and a .Take(25). When I run this for a search that returns no results I get a timeout. If I profile and grab the sql statement it looks fine, and if I run that sql in Management Studio it runs in a fraction of a second! Why would the same query run sub-second in Management Studio and timeout when generated by EF and called from an Asp.Net app?

    Read the article

  • EF Code First - Include(x => x.Properties.Entity) a 1 : Many association

    - by VulgarBinary
    Given a EF-Code First CTP5 entity layout like: public class Person { ... } which has a collection of: public class Address { ... } which has a single association of: public class Mailbox { ... } I want to do: PersonQuery.Include(x => x.Addresses).Include("Addresses.Mailbox") WITHOUT using a magic string. I want to do it using a lambda expression. I am aware what I typed above will compile and will bring back all Persons matching the search criteria with their addresses and each addresses' mailbox eager loaded, but it's in a string which irritates me. How do I do it without a string? Thanks Stack!

    Read the article

  • Entity framework error: The conversion of a datetime2 data type to a datetime data

    - by EdenMachine
    I know there are a ton of posts about this issue but none of them seem to solve my problem. Here's the scenario: I have a CreateDate DateTime column in my MS SQL Server database User table that is non-nullable and is automatically set using GetDate() method in "Default Value or Binding" setting. I am able to create a User just fine with the standard EF Insert but when I try to update the user, I get this error: The conversion of a datetime2 data type to a datetime data type resulted in an out-of-range value. What is the trick to not having the EF worry about the CreateDate column for updates? I have the StoreGenerationPattern = Identity but that isn't helping. Here are the EF properties for my Entity Property: http://screencast.com/t/8ndQRn9N And here is my Update method: http://screencast.com/t/UXIzhkhR

    Read the article

  • EF problem with entity re-ordering and uniqueness constraint

    - by wpfwannabe
    I am using Entity Framework and I've come to an interesting stumbling block. Let's say there is a db table "Item" with "sequence" column of type int (and others of course). Column "sequence" must be unique and it is used for (re)ordering of items. EF maps this table to "Item" class with "sequence" int property. Now let's say I want to swap position of two items by mutually exchanging each other's sequence number. Upon calling SaveChanges() EF throws an exception complaining about "sequence" uniqueness. It probably generates two UPDATEs and the first one probably fails. I assume that plain SQL solution to this issue is using a third UPDATE to introduce a unique sequence value in the process but I am stuck with EF. Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework does not display the last change from the database

    - by Jack
    Entity Framework does not display the last change from the database, but after sometime it show the updated content. I don't any special change on the server or on the page. Thank in advance. Jack Here is the code i use to get the list: var m = from r in ett.Article_Relations from i in ett.Article_Articles from a in ett.Article_Contents where r.MenuItemID == id && r.Article_Articles.ArticleID == i.ArticleID && a.LanguageID == LanguageID && i.ArticleID == a.Article_Articles.ArticleID select new ArticleViewModel { ArticleID = i.ArticleID, IsActive = i.IsActive, Author = i.ArticleAuthor, Content = a, DateCreated = i.DateCreated };

    Read the article

  • Stored Procedure in Entity Framework

    - by kamal
    Hi I had added the Stored procedure in my Entity framework and i also imported the functions in the edmx. Is it must to add all the three functions insert, update, and delete functions to a table. I had tried with insert alone and also with all, but why can't i get the name of the stored procedure in the connection string. Let me know what i done clearly. I had added the sp i had imported the functions in the model browser. i had also mapped the insert, update and delete function to the table with return type only for insert and update. Still i can't get the name of SP in the connection string. Please let me know how could i resolve this issue. Thanks in Advance, Kamal.

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework doesn't like 0..1 to * relationships.

    - by Orion Adrian
    I have a database framework where I have two tables. The first table has a single column that is an identity and primary key. The second table contains two columns. One is a nvarchar primary key and the other is a nullable foreign key to the first table. On the default import of the database I get the following error: Condition cannot be specified for Column member 'ForeignKeyId' because it is marked with a 'Computed' or 'Identity' StoreGeneratedPattern. where ForeignKeyId is the second foreign key reference in the second table. Is this just something the entity model doesn't do? Or am I missing something?

    Read the article

  • Advanced Where Statements in Linq to Entity Framework

    - by JimJams
    Hi, I am wanting to create a Where statement within my Linq statement, but have hit a bit of a stumbling block. I would like to split a string value, and then search using each array item in the Where clause. In my normal Sql statement I would simply loop through the string array, and build up there Where clause then either pass this to a stored procedure, or just execute the sql string. But am not sure how to do this with Linq to Entity? ( From o In db.TableName Where o.Field LIKE Stringvalue Select o ).ToList() Hope you can help. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework with File-Based Database

    - by Dave Swersky
    I am in the process of developing a desktop application that needs a database. The application is currently targeted to SQL Express 2005 and works wonderfully. However, I'm not crazy about having this dependency on SQL Express and would prefer to use a small file-based database. My problem is that I am using Entity Framework. I have tried both SQL Compact and SQLite, and they both have bizarre problems with EF v1. I get errors creating the Model, invalid models when it does get created... it's a nightmare. I'm about ready to give up and write a data layer and repository in the good-old-school Connection/Command pattern. Not my favorite plan... Is there a lightweight, file-based database out there that plays well with EF? OR Is there a better ORM tool that I should use instead of EF with my lightweight DB?

    Read the article

  • where should I put the EF entity and data annotations in asp.net mvc + entity framework project

    - by giddy
    So I have a DataEntity class generated by EntityFramework4 for my sqlexpress08 database. This data context is exposed via a WCF Data Service/Odata to silverlight and win forms clients. Should the data entities + edmx file (generated by EF4) go in a separate class library? The problem here then is I would specify data annotations for a few entities and then some of them would require specific MVC attributes (like CompareAttribute) so the class library would also reference mvc dlls. There also happen to be entity users which will be encapsulated or wrapped into an IIdentity in the website. So its pretty tied to the mvc website. Or Should it maybe go in a Base folder in the mvc project itself? Mostly the website is data driven around the database, like approve users, change global settings etc. The real business happens in the silverlight and win forms apps. Im using mvc3 rc2 with Razor. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Automapping to EntityKeys in Entity Framework

    - by CodeGrue
    Does anyone have a technique to automap (using Automapper) references to child entities. So say I have a ViewModel: class AddressModel { int Id; string Street; StateModel State; } class StateModel { int Id; string Name; } And I pass this into a repository to map to equivalent entities in Entity Framework. When Automapping, I want it to automap AddressModel.State.ID to the EntityKey of AddressEntity.StateReference. So hand crafted code would look like this: addressEntity.Id = AddressModel.Id; addressEntity.Street = AddressModel.Street addressEntity.StateReference.EntityKey = new EntityKey("MyDB.States", "Id", AddressModel.State.Id); Obviously, when automapper tries to assign an Address.State.Id to the equivalent in EF, an exception is thrown.

    Read the article

  • Call function in query in Entity framework 3.5

    - by Ashwani K
    Hello All: I am trying to run following query in entity framework 3.5 var test = from e in customers where IsValid(e) select e; Here IsValid function takes current customer and validate against some conditions and returns false or true. But when I am trying to run the query it is giving error "LINQ Method cannot be translated into a store expression." Can any body tell me any other approach? One approach I can think of is to write all validation conditions here, but that will make the code difficult to read. Thanks Ashwani

    Read the article

  • Using entity framework to detect changes in related table and action appropriate inserts and deletes

    - by Kohan
    Lets say i have a Person table, a Role table with a trel table PersonRoles linking them as many to many. I create a new person and assign them to 2 roles (role 1, role 3). I then want to edit this person; so i retrieve their data and bind their roles to a checkboxes. I change the values (Deselect role 1 and select role 2 instead) I then post this data back through a viewmodel. Can i then get Entity Framework to update these roles for me, as in delete the entry in PersonRoles to role 1 and then add a new entry as role 2? Or do i have to do the logic for this myself? Cheers, Kohan

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework 4: C# !(ReferenceEquals()) vs !=

    - by Eric J.
    Unless a class specifically overrides the behavior defined for Object, ReferenceEquals and == do the same thing... compare references. In property setters, I have commonly used the pattern private MyType myProperty; public MyType MyProperty { set { if (myProperty != value) { myProperty = value; // Do stuff like NotifyPropertyChanged } } } However, in code generated by Entity Framework, the if statement is replaced by if (!ReferenceEquals(myProperty, value)) Using ReferenceEquals is more explicit (as I guess not all C# programmers know that == does the same thing if not overridden). Is there any difference that's escaping me between the two if-variants? Are they perhaps accounting for the possibility that POCO designers may have overridden ==? In short, if I have not overridden ==, am I save using != instead of ReferencEquals()?

    Read the article

  • Problem calling stored procedure with a fixed length binary parameter using Entity Framework

    - by Dave
    I have a problem calling stored procedures with a fixed length binary parameter using Entity Framework. The stored procedure ends up being called with 8000 bytes of data no matter what size byte array I use to call the function import. To give some example, this is the code I am using. byte[] cookie = new byte[32]; byte[] data = new byte[2]; entities.Insert("param1", "param2", cookie, data); The parameters are nvarchar(50), nvarchar(50), binary(32), varbinary(2000) When I run the code through SQL profiler, I get this result. exec [dbo].[Insert] @param1=N'param1',@param2=N'param2',@cookie=0x00000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000 [SNIP because of 16000 zeros] ,@data=0x0000 All parameters went through ok other than the binary(32) cookie. The varbinary(2000) seemed to work fine and the correct length was maintained. Is there a way to prevent the extra data being sent to SQL server? This seems like a big waste of network resource.

    Read the article

  • C# Entity Framework Base Repository

    - by Andy
    I'm trying to create a base repository for use with Entity Framework 4.0 and having some trouble. In this code below, why is it not possible to do this in one line? public IEnumerable<T> GetAll<T>(Expression<Func<T, bool>> filter) { IEnumerable<T> allCustomers = this.GetAll<T>(); IEnumerable<T> result = allCustomers.Where(filter.Compile()); return result; } Won't this result in 2 SQL statements: one without a where clause that retrieves all rows, and one with a where clause that only retrieves the rows that match the predicate? How can this be done with a single SQL statement? I can't get it to compile if I try to cast the filter.Compile() to Func<Customer, bool>. Thanks, Andy

    Read the article

  • Binding Navigation Property with Entity Framework

    - by JSmaga
    Hi, I have another question about binding using C# and the entity framework. Here, I'm looking to bind a navigation property to a listbox or a listview. I saw on different posts that if I update the collection using code behind the list would not be notified because the collection does not handle notification (it's always the same problem anyway). People suggested to use an ObservableCollection for example, but, and here is my question, this comes down to basically duplicate the collection and hence, if I modify it, I'd have to handle in code-behind the fact that the change has also to be applied to the "original" navigation property right? If that's the case, I was thinking: why not create a custom property called, say, MyObservableNavigationProperty in a partial class. I could then interact only with this collection, catch the event when the collection is changed and apply the change to the "original" collection. Is that a nice way to do the trick? or am I getting all confused here....

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework 4.0 Unit Testing

    - by Steve Ward
    Hi, I've implemented unit testing along the lines of this article with a fake object context and IObjectSet with POCO in EF4. http://blogs.msdn.com/adonet/archive/2009/12/17/test-driven-development-walkthrough-with-the-entity-framework-4-0.aspx But I'm unsure how to implement a couple of methods on my fake object context for testing. I have CreateQuery and ExecuteFunction methods on my object context interface so that I can execute ESQL and Stored Procedures but I cant (easily) implement them in my fake object context. An alternative would be to use a test double of my repository instead of a double of my object context as suggested here: http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/adonetefx/thread/c4921443-e8a3-4414-92dd-eba1480a07ad/ But this would mean my real repository isnt being tested and would seem to just bypass the issue. Can anyone offer any recommendations?

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework 4 with Existing Domain Model

    - by ace
    Hi, Im currently looking at migrating from fluent nHibernate to ADO.Net Entity Framework 4. I have a project containing the domain model (pocos) which I was using for nHibernate mappings. Ive read in blogs that it is possible to use my existing domain model with EF4 but ive seen no examples of it. Ive seen examples of T4 code generation with EF4 but havent come accross an example which shows how to use existing domain model objects with EF4. Im a newby with EF4 and would like to see some samples on how to get this done. Thanks Aiyaz

    Read the article

  • Correct association mapping in Entity Framework

    - by Matt Thrower
    Hi, Trying to change two relationships in our entity framework from many-to-one to many-to-many relationships. So I tried the obvious thing: clicked on each association on the diagram, changed the appropriate end of the association accordingly and then changed the name of the navigation property to a plural to reflect the change. This lead to the following build error, or one each for the two changes I've made: Error 3002: Problem in mapping fragments starting at line 1761:Potential runtime violation of table CustomerServices's keys (CustomerServices.Id): Columns (CustomerServices.Id) are mapped to EntitySet CompiledDatabaseCustomerService's properties (CompiledDatabaseCustomerService.CustomerService.Id) on the conceptual side but they do not form the EntitySet's key properties (CompiledDatabaseCustomerService.CompiledDatabase.Id, CompiledDatabaseCustomerService.CustomerService.Id) I'm not entirely sure why this is happening, so unsurprisngly I haven't had much luck fixing it. I've tried fiddling with the mapping details and adding referential constraints to no avail. Anyone point me in the right direction? cheers, Matt

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30  | Next Page >