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• Git from localhost to remotehost with a team of three

  - by Mark McDonnell

  Hi, I'm completely new to Git. I've only just worked out how to use Github in a basic way (e.g. push my local file changes to Github - so I've not done 'pulling' down of content from Github and 'merging' it into my localhost version or anything like that). I had a look over at this existing question - Git: localhost remote development remote production - but I think it may have been a bit advanced for me at this stage as I didn't quite understand the terminology that most of the people were using. What I would like to achieve is to have a local server set-up that my team of developers can all 'push' to/'pull' from etc. And then have that local server upload any updated files automatically to our web server so we could see the updates live in the browser. I'm happy to get a server set-up in the office running Mac OSX Server and then installing Git on it and then getting the devs to write a shell script to push to the remote server but only if it was fairly easy for the devs local git to push to this new local server. I'm not a network engineer so I don't know what would need to be set-up for that to work, I know obviously we could set-up the server to be accessible via a local ip address like 192.168.0.xxx but not sure how that works with pushing to a git repository on that server? Would that literally be something like doing this on my local machine: git remote add MyGitFile git://192.168.0.xxx/MyGitFile.git ? Any ideas or advice you can give to a total Git newbie trying to help his team get a better work flow. Kind regards, Mark

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• ASP.net MVC Linq-To-SQL Many-To-Many Field Binding

  - by user336858

  Hi there, The short version of this question is "Is there a way to gracefully handle database insertion for an object that has a many-to-many field that has been set up in a partial class?" Apologies if it's been asked before. Example Suppose I have a typical MVC setup with the tables: Posts {PostID, ...} Categories {CategoryID, ...} A post can have more than one category, and a category can identify more than one post. Thus suppose further that I need an extra table: PostCategories {PostID, CategoryID, ...} This handles the many-to-many relationship between posts and categories. As far as I know, there's no way to do this in Linq-to-SQL right now so I have to shoehorn it in by adding a partial Post class to the project to add that functionality. Something like: public partial class Post { public IEnumerable<Category> Categories{ get { ... } set { ... } } } So I can now create a "Create" view that automatically populates a "Categories" UI item. This is where the trouble starts. So here's my question: How do you get automatic object model binding to work cleanly with an object that has a many-to-many relationship to control? The workaround that makes many-to-many relationships possible relies on the Post object having a PostID in order to be associated with CategoryID(s), which is only issued after the Post object has been submitted for validation and insertion. Bit of a Catch22 here. Any terminology, links, or tips you can provide would be tremendously helpful!

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• Serializing Configurations for a Dependency Injection / Inversion of Control

  - by Joshua Starner

  I've been researching Dependency Injection and Inversion of Control practices lately in an effort to improve the architecture of our application framework and I can't seem to find a good answer to this question. It's very likely that I have my terminology confused, mixed up, or that I'm just naive to the concept right now, so any links or clarification would be appreciated. Many examples of DI and IoC containers don't illustrate how the container will connect things together when you have a "library" of possible "plugins", or how to "serialize" a given configuration. (From what I've read about MEF, having multiple declarations of [Export] for the same type will not work if your object only requires 1 [Import]). Maybe that's a different pattern or I'm blinded by my current way of thinking. Here's some code for an example reference: public abstract class Engine { } public class FastEngine : Engine { } public class MediumEngine : Engine { } public class SlowEngine : Engine { } public class Car { public Car(Engine e) { engine = e; } private Engine engine; } This post talks about "Fine-grained context" where 2 instances of the same object need different implementations of the "Engine" class: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2176833/ioc-resolve-vs-constructor-injection Is there a good framework that helps you configure or serialize a configuration to achieve something like this without hard coding it or hand-rolling the code to do this? public class Application { public void Go() { Car c1 = new Car(new FastEngine()); Car c2 = new Car(new SlowEngine()); } } Sample XML: <XML> <Cars> <Car name="c1" engine="FastEngine" /> <Car name="c2" engine="SlowEngine" /> </Cars> </XML>

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• Create static instances of a class inside said class in Python

  - by Samir Talwar

  Apologies if I've got the terminology wrong here—I can't think what this particular idiom would be called. I've been trying to create a Python 3 class that statically declares instances of itself inside itself—sort of like an enum would work. Here's a simplified version of the code I wrote: class Test: A = Test("A") B = Test("B") def __init__(self, value): self.value = value def __str__(self): return "Test: " + self.value print(str(Test.A)) print(str(Test.B)) Writing this, I got an exception on line 2 (A = Test("A")). I assume line 3 would also error if it had made it that far. Using __class__ instead of Test gives the same error. File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> File "<stdin>", line 2, in Test NameError: name 'Test' is not defined Is there any way to refer to the current class in a static context in Python? I could declare these particular variables outside the class or in a separate class, but for clarity's sake, I'd rather not if I can help it. To better demonstrate what I'm trying to do, here's the same example in Java: public class Test { private static final Test A = new Test("A"); private static final Test B = new Test("B"); private final String value; public Test(String value) { this.value = value; } public String toString() { return "Test: " + value; } public static void main(String[] args) { System.out.println(A); System.out.println(B); } } This works as you would expect: it prints: Test: A Test: B How can I do the same thing in Python?

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• Modifying CSS class property values on the fly with JavaScript / jQuery

  - by JPN

  all. I've run into a unique situation that I have so far been unable to find a solution for: dynamically assigning a value to a CSS style. I know how to use jQuery to assign width, height, etc. to an element, but what I'm trying to do is actually change the value defined in the stylesheet so that the dynamically-created value can be assigned to multiple elements. What I'm building is a slideshow of images that occupy the full viewport, recalculating the image's width, height, and left properties on resize so that the image is always centered, favors width over height, except when the viewport is taller than it is wide (resizing does not reload the page, just fires a function to resize the image). I have successfully been able to get it to work on one image, and now I'm trying to determine the best way to assign those property values to all images in the slideshow without having to specify those three things individually for every image. Can the values of properties in a class be modified on the fly? I'm sure the answer is out there, I'm probably just not using the correct terminology in my searches. Hope I did a good job of describing the problem. TIA.

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• starting a windows executable via batch script, exe not in Program Files

  - by Anthony

  This is probably batch scripting 101, but I can't find any clear explanation/documentation on why this is happening or if my workaround is actually the solution. So basically any terminology or links to good sources is really appreciated. So I have a program I want to execute via batch script (along with several other programs). It's the only one where the exe is not in a Program Files folder. I can get it to start like this: C:\WeirdProgram\WeirdProgramModule\weirdmodule.exe But I get an error along the lines of: Run-time Error '3024': Could not find file C:\Users\MyUserName\Desktop\ModuleSettings.mdb So it seems that the program is looking for its settings files from the same location that the batch script starts up. Given that I finally got everything to work by doing the following: cd C:\WeirdProgram\WeirdProgramModule\ weirdmodule.exe That works fine, and it's not the end of the world to have to go this route (just one extra line), but I've convinced myself that I'm doing something wrong based on lack of basic understanding. Anybody know or can point me to why it works this way? Oh, and doing the following: start "C:\WeirdProgram\WeirdProgramModule\weirdmodule.exe" doesn't do anything at all. Thanks,

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• Is it Possible to Use Constraints on Hierarchical Data in a Self-Referential Table?

  - by pbarney

  Suppose you have the following table, intended to represent hierarchical data: +--------+-------------+ | Field | Type | +--------+-------------+ | id | int(10) | | parent | int(10) | | name | varchar(45) | +--------+-------------+ The table is self-referential in that the parent_id refers to id. So you might have the following data: +----+--------+---------------+ | id | parent | name | +----+--------+---------------+ | 1 | 0 | fruit | | 2 | 0 | vegetable | | 3 | 1 | apple | | 4 | 1 | orange | | 5 | 3 | red delicious | | 6 | 3 | granny smith | | 7 | 3 | gala | +----+--------+---------------+ Using MySQL, I am trying to impose a (self-referential) foreign key constraint upon the data to cascade on update and prevent deletion of a record if it has any "children." So I used the following: CREATE TABLE `test`.`fruit` ( `id` INT(10) UNSIGNED NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `parent` INT(10) UNSIGNED, `name` VARCHAR(45) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), CONSTRAINT `fk_parent` FOREIGN KEY (`parent`) REFERENCES `fruit` (`id`) ON UPDATE CASCADE ON DELETE RESTRICT ) ENGINE = InnoDB; From what I understand, this should fit my requirements. (And parent must default to null to allow insertions, correct?) The problem is, if I change the id of a record, it will not cascade: Cannot delete or update a parent row: a foreign key constraint fails (`test`.`fruit`, CONSTRAINT `fk_parent` FOREIGN KEY (`parent`) REFERENCES `fruit` (`id`) ON UPDATE CASCADE) What am I missing? Feel free to correct me if my terminology is screwed up... I'm new to constraints.

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• Help with c# event listening and usercontrols

  - by Jen

  OK so I have a page which has a listview on it. Inside the item template of the listview is a usercontrol. This usercontrol is trying to trigger an event so that the hosting page can listen to it. My problem is that the event is not being triggered as the handler is null. (ie. EditDateRateSelected is my handler and its null when debugging) protected void lnkEditDate_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (EditDateRateSelected != null) EditDateRateSelected(Convert.ToDateTime(((LinkButton)frmViewRatesDate.Row.FindControl("lnkEditDate")).Text)); } On the item data bound of my listvew is where I'm adding my event handlers protected void PropertyAccommodationRates1_ItemDataBound(object sender, ListViewItemEventArgs e) { if (e.Item.ItemType == ListViewItemType.DataItem) { UserControls_RatesEditDate RatesViewDate1 = (UserControls_RatesEditDate)e.Item.FindControl("RatesViewDate1"); RatesViewDate1.EditDateRateSelected += new UserControls_RatesEditDate.EditDateRateEventHandler(RatesEditDate1_EditDateRateSelected); RatesViewDate1.PropertyID = (int)Master.PropertyId; if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(Accommodations1.SelectedValue)) { RatesViewDate1.AccommodationTypeID = Convert.ToInt32(Accommodations1.SelectedValue); } else { RatesViewDate1.AccommodationTypeID = 0; } RatesViewDate1.Rate = (PropertyCMSRate)((ListViewDataItem)e.Item).DataItem; } } My event code all works fine if the control is inside the page and on page load I have the line: RatesEditDate1.EditDateRateSelected += new UserControls_RatesEditDate.EditDateRateEventHandler(RatesEditDate1_EditDateRateSelected); But obviously I need listen for events inside the listviewcontrols. Any advice would be greatly appreciated. I have tried setting EnableViewState to true for my listview but that hasn't made a difference. Is there somewhere else I'm supposed to be wiring up the control handler? Note - apologies if I've got my terminology wrong and I'm referring to delegates as handlers and such :)

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• How do I become better in math, after being a programmer for several years.

  - by loxs

  I've had quite a weird career till now. First I graduated from a medical school. Then I went into marketing (pharmaceuticals). And then umm, after some time, I decided to go for my (till then) hobby and became a "professional" programmer. I've been quite successful at this ever since. I have quite some languages "under my belt". I earn not bad and I have been involved in the opensource community quite heavily. The thing is that I suck at math :). Well, not totally of course, as I get my work done. But I don't know how much I suck. And I don't know how to find out. Math has never really been of any priority during my middle/high school years. I only picked as little as I could afford, because I was always getting ready to go for Medicine. Of course I know the basics of algebra. Things like "normal" and square equations. Also the basics of geometry. But well, there are things that I have missed. And lately I am being fascinated by things like probability theory, infinity, chaos/order etc. But every time I try to learn something about these topics, I hit a wall of terminology, special symbols, and some special kind of thinking, that is quite like mine (a programmer), but also a lot different (and appears weird to me). So, what kinds of books would you recommend me? It's very hard to find something suitable. All that I find are either too easy (and boring) or totally impenetrable.

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• Imlpementations of an Interface with Different Types?

  - by b3njamin

  Searched as best I could but unfortunately I've learned nothing relevant; basically I'm trying to work around the following problem in C#... For example, I have three possible references (refA, refB, refC) and I need to load the correct one depending on a configuration option. So far however I can't see a way of doing it that doesn't require me to use the name of said referenced object all through the code (the referenced objects are provided, I can't change them). Hope the following code makes more sense: public ??? LoadedClass; public Init() { /* load the object, according to which version we need... */ if (Config.Version == "refA") { Namespace.refA LoadedClass = new refA(); } else if (Config.Version == "refB") { Namespace.refB LoadedClass = new refB(); } else if (Config.Version == "refC") { Namespace.refC LoadedClass = new refC(); } Run(); } private void Run(){ { LoadedClass.SomeProperty... LoadedClass.SomeMethod(){ etc... } } As you can see, I need the Loaded class to be public, so in my limited way I'm trying to change the type 'dynamically' as I load in which real class I want. Each of refA, refB and refC will implement the same properties and methods but with different names. Again, this is what I'm working with, not by my design. All that said, I tried to get my head around Interfaces (which sound like they're what I'm after) but I'm looking at them and seeing strict types - which makes sense to me, even if it's not useful to me. Any and all ideas and opinions are welcome and I'll clarify anything if necessary. Excuse any silly mistakes I've made in the terminology, I'm learning all this for the first time. I'm really enjoying working with an OOP language so far though - coming from PHP this stuff is blowing my mind :-)

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• Define "Validation in the Model"

  - by sunwukung

  There have been a couple of discussions regarding the location of user input validation: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/659950/should-validation-be-done-in-form-objects-or-the-model http://stackoverflow.com/questions/134388/where-do-you-do-your-validation-model-controller-or-view These discussions were quite old, so I wanted to ask the question again to see if anyone had any fresh input. If not, I apologise in advance. If you come from the Validation in the Model camp - does Model mean OOP representation of data (i.e. Active Record/Data Mapper) as "Entity" (to borrow the DDD terminology) - in which case you would, I assume, want all Model classes to inherit common validation constraints. Or can these rules simply be part of a Service in the Model - i.e. a Validation service? For example, could you consider Zend_Form and it's validation classes part of the Model? The concept of a Domain Model does not appear to be limited to Entities, and so validation may not necessarily need to be confined to this Entities. It seems that you would require a lot of potentially superfluous handing of values and responses back and forth between forms and "Entities" - and in some instances you may not persist the data recieved from user input, or recieve it from user input at all.

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• ctypes DLL with optional dependencies

  - by pisswillis

  Disclaimer: I'm new to windows programming so some of my assumptions may be wrong. Please correct me if so. I am developing a python wrapper for a C API using ctypes. The API ships with both 64 and 32 DLLs/LIBs. I can succesfully load the DLL using ctypes.WinDLL('TheLibName') and call functions etc etc. However some functions were not doing what they should. Upon further investigation it appears that the 32bit DLL is being used, which is what is causing the unexpected behaviour. I have tried using ctypes.WinDLL('TheLibName64') but the module is not found. I have tried registering the DLL with regsrv32, but it reports there is no entry point (it also reports no entry point when I try and register TheLibName, which is found by WinDLL(). The DLL came with a sample project in Visual Studio (I have 0 experience with VS so again please correct me here) which builds both 32 and 64 bit versions of the sample project. In the .vcsproj file the configurations for the 64 bit version include: AdditionalDependencies="TheLibName64.lib" in the VCLinkerTool section. In windows/system32 there are both TheLibName.dll/.lib, and TheLibName64.dll/.lib. So it seems to me that my problem is now to make the python ctypes DLL loader load these optional dependencies when the DLL is loaded. However I can't find any information on this (perhaps because, as a doze noob, I do not know the correct terminology) in the ctypes documentation. Is there a way to do this in ctypes? Am I going about this in completely the wrong way? Any help or general information about optional DLL dependencies and how they are loaded in windows would be much appreciated. Thanks

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• CodeIgniter - Image Validation & Thumbnailing

  - by Sebhael

  I'm currently trying to create a function that validates and creates thumbnails for images on upload - but I'm quite lost on what I'm doing. I'm assuming I'm off on my terminology so I'm not really getting any search results to help point me in the right direction. My playground is a form with 6 upload fields that are required. One of these fields is for a simple 32x32 icon image, another a portrait orientation (most likely) photo, and then 4 standard desktop screenshots -- and I'm using CodeIgniter as my framework. I would like to create a function that validates/thumbnails images, and only have to call it on the validation if at all possible. I know I can achieve this per-image, since the documentation for CI is quite through on this - but to reduce redundancy I'm looking for the better option. Outside of that, I don't even actually understand in full how to manipulate images unless it's just $this-input-post('field') - then calling all functions onto this? I don't know, I'm confused and posting on the actual CI forums has yielded me nothing - so all I'm really looking for is a point in the right direction to understanding what I'm trying to achieve here. This also all might not make any sense, I know it doesn't to me - but I can explain more if needed. Thanks in advance.

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• WP7 - group of textboxes into some sort of template?

  - by Jeff V

  I'm still pretty new at Silverlight so there might be a way to do this, but I'm just unfamiliar with the terminology... I basically have this grouping of textboxes and textblocks and I would like to repeat this same grouping whenever the addNew button is clicked. Is there a way to do this by creating some sort of template? Or do I have to add each item individually. <Grid> <toolkit:ListPicker Height="70" HorizontalAlignment="Right" Name="listPicker1" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="56" ItemTemplate="{StaticResource PickerItemTemplate}" FullModeItemTemplate="{StaticResource PickerFullModeItemTemplate}" Margin="0,97,167,0"></toolkit:ListPicker> <TextBlock Height="33" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="10,7,0,0" Name="tbDate" Text="Date:" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="266" /> <TextBlock Height="42" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="9,55,0,0" Name="tbItem" Text="Item:" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="90" /> <TextBox Height="75" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="92,33,0,0" Name="tbItemName" Text="" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="341" /> <TextBlock Height="42" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="5,118,0,0" Name="tbServing" Text="Serving:" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="99" /> <TextBox Height="70" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="90,96,0,0" Name="tbServingValue" Text="" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="75" /> <TextBlock Height="42" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="156,120,0,0" Name="tbUOM" Text="UOM:" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="60" /> <Button Content="" HorizontalAlignment="Right" Height="63" Margin="0,100,13,0" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="132" RenderTransformOrigin="0.455,0.286" Style="{StaticResource wp7_buttonAddNew}" x:Name="btnAddNewItem" Click="btnAddNewItem_Click"/> </Grid> Thanks!

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• How to prepare data for display on a silverlight chart using WCF RIA Services + Entity Framework

  - by Banford

  I've used WCF RIA services with Entity Framework to build a simple application which can display and updates data about school courses. This was done by following the Microsoft tutorials. Now I would like to have a chart which shows a count for how many courses are on a key stage. Example: Key Stage 3 - 20 courses Key Stage 4 - 32 courses Key Stage 5 - 12 courses Displayed on any form of chart. I have no problem binding data to the chart in XAML. My problem is that I do not know how to correct way of getting the data into that format. The generated CRUD methods are basic. I have a few thoughts about possible ways, but don't know which is correct, they are: Create a View in SQL server and map this to a separate Entity in the Entity Data Model. Generating new CRUD methods for this automatically. Customise the read method in the existing DomainService using .Select() .Distinct() etc. Don't know this syntax very well labda expressions/LINQ??? what is it? Any good quickstarts on it? Create a new class to store only the data required and create a read method for it. Tried this but didn't know how to make it work without a matching entity in the entity model. Something I am not aware of. I'm very new to this and struggling with the concepts so if there are useful blogs or documentation I've missed feel free to point me towards them. But I'm unsure of the terminology to use in my searches at the moment.

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• Many users, many cpus, no delays. Good for cloud?

  - by Eric

  I wish to set up a CPU-intensive time-important query service for users on the internet. A usage scenario is described below. Is cloud computing the right way to go for such an implementation? If so, what cloud vendor(s) cater to this type of application? I ask specifically, in terms of: 1) pricing 2) latency resulting from: - slow CPUs, instance creations, JIT compiles, etc.. - internal management and communication of processes inside the cloud (e.g. a queuing process and a calculation process) - communication between cloud and end user 3) ease of deployment A usage scenario I am expecting is: - A typical user sends a query (XML of size around 1K) once every 30 seconds on average. - Each query requires a numerical computation of average time 0.2 sec and max time 1 sec on a 1 GHz Pentium. The computation requires no data other than the query itself and is performed by the same piece of code each time. - The delay a user experiences between sending a query and receiving a response should be on average no more than 2 seconds and in general no more than 5 seconds. - A background save to a DB of the response should occur (not time critical) - There can be up to 30000 simultaneous users - i.e., on average 1000 queries a second, each requiring an average 0.2 sec calculation, so that would necessitate around 200 CPUs. Currently I'm look at GAE Java (for quicker deployment and less IT hassle) and EC2 (Speed and price optimization) as options. Where can I learn more about the right way to set ups such a system? past threads, different blogs, books, etc.. BTW, if my terminology is wrong or confusing, please let me know. I'd greatly appreciate any help.

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• Does Monitor.Wait ensure that fields are re-read?

  - by Marc Gravell

  It is generally accepted (I believe!) that a lock will force any values from fields to be reloaded (essentially acting as a memory-barrier or fence - my terminology in this area gets a bit loose, I'm afraid), with the consequence that fields that are only ever accessed inside a lock do not themselves need to be volatile. (If I'm wrong already, just say!) A good comment was raised here, questioning whether the same is true if code does a Wait() - i.e. once it has been Pulse()d, will it reload fields from memory, or could they be in a register (etc). Or more simply: does the field need to be volatile to ensure that the current value is obtained when resuming after a Wait()? Looking at reflector, Wait calls down into ObjWait, which is managed internalcall (the same as Enter). The scenario in question was: bool closing; public bool TryDequeue(out T value) { lock (queue) { // arbitrary lock-object (a private readonly ref-type) while (queue.Count == 0) { if (closing) { // <==== (2) access field here value = default(T); return false; } Monitor.Wait(queue); // <==== (1) waits here } ...blah do something with the head of the queue } } Obviously I could just make it volatile, or I could move this out so that I exit and re-enter the Monitor every time it gets pulsed, but I'm intrigued to know if either is necessary.

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• How do I use the Enum value from a class in another part of code?

  - by ChiggenWingz

  Coming from a C# background from a night course at a local college, I've sort of started my way in C++. Having a lot pain getting use to the syntax. I'm also still very green when it comes to coding techniques. From my WinMain function, I want to be able to access a variable which is using an enum I declared in another class. (inside core.h) class Core { public: enum GAME_MODE { INIT, MENUS, GAMEPLAY }; GAME_MODE gameMode; Core(); ~Core(); ...OtherFunctions(); }; (inside main.cpp) Core core; int WINAPI WinMain(...) { ... startup code here... core.gameMode = Core.GAME_MODE.INIT; ...etc... } Basically I want to set that gameMode to the enum value of Init or something like that from my WinMain function. I want to also be able to read it from other areas. I get the error... expected primary-expression before '.' token If I try to use core.gameMode = Core::GAME_MODE.INIT;, then I get the same error. I'm not fussed about best practices, as I'm just trying to get the basic understanding of passing around variables in C++ between files. I'll be making sure variables are protected and neatly tucked away later on once I am use to the flexibility of the syntax. If I remember correctly, C# allowed me to use Enums from other classes, and all I had to do was something like Core.ENUMNAME.ENUMVALUE. I hope what I'm wanting to do is clear :\ As I have no idea what a lot of the correct terminology is.

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• transferring binary files between systems

  - by tim

  Hi guys I'm trying to transfer my files between 2 UNIX clusters, the data is pure numeric (vectors of double) in binary form. Unfortunately one of the systems is IBM ppc997 and the other is AMD Opteron, It seems the format of binary numbers in these systems are different. I have tried 3 ways till now: 1- Changed my files to ASCII format (i.e. saved a number at each line in a text file), sent them to the destination and changed them again to binary on the target system (they both are UNIX, no end of line character difference??!) 2- Sent pure binaries to the destination 3- used uuencode sent them to the destination and decoded them Unfortunately any of these methods does not work (my code in the destination system generates garbage, while it works on the first system, I'm 100% sure the code itself is portable). I don't know what else I can do? Do you have any idea? I'm not a professional, please don't use computer scientists terminology! And: my codes are in C, so by binary I mean a one to one mapping between memory and hard disk. Thanks

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• What is the event dispatching thread?

  - by Roman

  I know what "thread" means and if I understand the event dispatching thread (EDT) as "just a thread", it explains a lot but, apparently, it does not explain everything. I do not understand what is special about this thread. For example I do not understand why we should start a GUI in a the EDT? Why the "main" thread is bed for GUI? Well, if we just do not want to occupy the main thread why we cannot start GUI just in "another thread" why it should be some "special" thread called EDT? Then I do not understand why we cannot start the EDT like any other thread? Why we should use some special tool (called invokeLater). And why GUI, unlike any other thread, does not start immediately. We should wait until it is ready to accept our job. Is it because EDT can, potentially execute several task simultaneously? If you decide to answer this question, could you pleas use a really simple terminology because otherwise, I am afraid, I will not be able to understand the answer.

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• how do I block my rails app from being hit by bots?

  - by codeman73

  I'm not even sure I'm using the right terminology, whether this is actually bots or not. I didn't want to use the word 'spam' because it's not like I have comments or posts that are being created/spammed. It looks more like something is making the same repeated request to my domain, which is what made me think it was some kind of bot. I've opened my first rails app to the 'public', which is a really a small group of users, <50 currently. That was last Friday. I started having performance issues today, so I looked at the log and I see tons of these RoutingErrors ActionController::RoutingError (No route matches "/portalApp/APF/pages/business/util/whichServer.jsp" with {:method=>:get}): They are filling up the log and I'm assuming this is causing the slowdown. Note the .jsp on the end and this is a rails app, so I've got no urls remotely like this in my app. I mean, the /portalApp I don't even have, so I don't know where this is coming from. This is hosted at Dreamhost and I chatted with one of their support people, and he suggested a couple sites that detail using htaccess to block things. But that looks like you need to know the IP or domain that the requests are coming from, which I don't. How can I block this? How can I find the IP or domain from the request? Any other suggestions?

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• Automate Field Entry in outside site

  - by JClaspill

  I am attempting to automate the entry of data into form fields. The problem is that this data (user/pass) is not known by the user. I'm not expressly hiding it from them, but they also don't need to know it. This is used to automate logins on several of our outside partner websites, who do not want our agents knowing their passwords. Sadly, most of these sites do not have any APIs I can work with... so I have to get the user logged in. I tried using an iframe and javascript, but I ran into the issue of security permissions denying it access. And sadly, our clients do not have access to add our domain to their sites(they seem to be 3rd party). Requirements: - Display webpage - Automatically enter data into fields Would be nice: - Automate signin similar to form.submit() - Flash/AJAX support. These seem to give the VB app issues. Is there a way to do this via javascript/html, and if not, do you have any recommendations for C#/php/asp.net options? PS: I am not sure what this techinque is called, so google isn't helping me it seems. Please set me straight on the terminology of what I am actually trying to accomplish.

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• Android designing an app to keep me logged into a wifi access point

  - by MrGibbage

  At the gym where I work out, they have an open wifi access point. The way it is set up, once you "connect", you have to navigate to a web page (it is a 1.1.X.X ip address) and click the "I agree" button, after presumably reading the user agreement. The problem is, they have it set up to log you out once an hour, which always happens in the middle of my workout. I have the SSID remembered, so it connects automatically when I come in range, but I get an android notification that further action is needed to fully connect. What I was wondering is if there a work around so that I don't have to click-through every hour? I was thinking of writing an app that could detect when I was in range, or when "half-connected", and then have it somehow complete the registration process. Perhaps this will have to be done by loading the web page in memory and then somehow clicking the "I agree" button. What I would like help with is: 1) what is the terminology involved here? What state is the connection in when I am connected, but I haven't clicked through? What other connection states may apply? If I knew that, I might just be able to research this and come up with a solution. Are these different states "detectable"? It seems like it is since I get a notification that I need to complete the registration process when I am "half-connected". 2) I know there are plugins for desktop browsers that can click buttons (like the keepass plugins, which will log you into a site). How could I replicate this in Android? Ideally I would like to do it internally, in memory, rather than firing up a browser. Possible? Comments? Is my understanding and thought process sound here, or am I overlooking something?

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• Rails nested association issue

  - by Ben Langfeld

  Ok, so I'm new to both Ruby and Rails and I'm trying to do what I believe is called a nested association (please correct me if this is the wrong terminology). I currently have a User model and a Domains model and I have many to many associations setup (using has_many :through) between the two, and this works fine. I now want to extend this to allow for a single role per domain per user (eg User1 is a member of Domain1 and has the role "Admin"). I have setup a Roles model with a single field (name:string) and have created three roles. I have also added a role_id column to the join table (memberships). I expected (and this is probably the issue) to be able to just use user1 = User.find(1) user1.domains.first => <some domain object> user1.domains.first.role => <some role object> but this returns a method not defined error. Can anyone tell me what I'm failing to grasp here? My model classes can be seen at http://gist.github.com/388200

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• ASP.net MVC Linq-To-SQL Extended Class Field Binding

  - by user336858

  Hi there, The short version of this question is "Is there a way to get automatic View Object binding for fields defined in a partial class for a Linq-To-SQL generated class?" Apologies if it's been asked before. Example Suppose I have a typical MVC setup with the tables: Posts {PostID, ...} Categories {CategoryID, ...} A post can have more than one category, and a category can identify more than one post. Thus suppose further that I need an extra table: PostCategories {PostID, CategoryID, ...} This handles the many-to-many relationship between posts and categories. As far as I know, there's no way to do this in Linq-to-SQL right now so I have to shoehorn it in by adding a partial Postclass to the project to add that functionality. Something like: public partial class Post { public IEnumerable<Category> Categories{ get { ... } set { ... } } } So here's my question: If a user is accessing my MVC application front-end and begins editing a Post object, they might enter an invalid category. When the server recognizes the invalid input, the usual practice is to return the faulty object to the original view for re-editing along with some error messages. The fields in the edit page are re-populated with the provided values. However I don't know how to get this mechanism to work with the properties I created with the partial class as shown above. Any terminology, links, or tips you can provide would be tremendously helpful!

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