Search Results

Search found 845 results on 34 pages for 'tricky'.

Page 23/34 | < Previous Page | 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30  | Next Page >

  • Linked list recursive reverse

    - by Phoenix
    I was looking at the code below from stanford library: void recursiveReverse(struct node** head_ref) { struct node* first; struct node* rest; /* empty list */ if (*head_ref == NULL) return; /* suppose first = {1, 2, 3}, rest = {2, 3} */ first = *head_ref; rest = first->next; /* List has only one node */ if (rest == NULL) return; /* put the first element on the end of the list */ recursiveReverse(&rest); first->next->next = first; /* tricky step -- see the diagram */ first->next = NULL; /* fix the head pointer */ *head_ref = rest; } What I don't understand is in the last recursive step for e.g if list is 1-2-3-4 Now for the last recursive step first will be 1 and rest will be 2. So if you set *head_ref = rest .. that makes the head of the list 2 ?? Can someone please explain how after reversing the head of the list becomes 4 ??

    Read the article

  • Create a dynamic project template in VS 2010?

    - by jonhobbs
    This might sound a bit of an odd question but I know what I want to achieve, just don't know if it's possible. Firstly, I'd like to be able to create a visual studio project that the 2 developers that work with me can use as a basis for all new websites. I want to drop all the common files that we use in there, like jQuery, CMS files etc. so that every time they start a new project they don't have to worry about all of that stuff. I guess to do this I just set up a project and "File Export Template" ? Now, here's the tricky bit... When you open up one of the default templates in VS it asks you a few questions, such as if you want to use a master page or if you want to use code behind etc. What I would like to do is set up something similar so that when you use the project template it asks you what version of jQuery you want to use so that it can import the right file, or for example it might ask you if you want to include certain user controls that the CMS contains. If you tick the box then the folder with the necessary user controls would be put in your new project for you. I know MS can do this but can a user like me include functionality like that in my own project template? Hope that makes sense.

    Read the article

  • iPhone and Core Data: how to retain user-entered data between updates?

    - by Shaggy Frog
    Consider an iPhone application that is a catalogue of animals. The application should allow the user to add custom information for each animal -- let's say a rating (on a scale of 1 to 5), as well as some notes they can enter in about the animal. However, the user won't be able to modify the animal data itself. Assume that when the application gets updated, it should be easy for the (static) catalogue part to change, but we'd like the (dynamic) custom user information part to be retained between updates, so the user doesn't lose any of their custom information. We'd probably want to use Core Data to build this app. Let's also say that we have a previous process already in place to read in animal data to pre-populate the backing (SQLite) store that Core Data uses. We can embed this database file into the application bundle itself, since it doesn't get modified. When a user downloads an update to the application, the new version will include the latest (static) animal catalogue database, so we don't ever have to worry about it being out of date. But, now the tricky part: how do we store the (dynamic) user custom data in a sound manner? My first thought is that the (dynamic) database should be stored in the Documents directory for the app, so application updates don't clobber the existing data. Am I correct? My second thought is that since the (dynamic) user custom data database is not in the same store as the (static) animal catalogue, we can't naively make a relationship between the Rating and the Notes entities (in one database) and the Animal entity (in the other database). In this case, I would imagine one solution would be to have an "animalName" string property in the Rating/Notes entity, and match it up at runtime. Is this the best way to do it, or is there a way to "sync" two different databases in Core Data?

    Read the article

  • Multiuser login into winforms application

    - by schoetbi
    Hi there, i have a winforms app in C# that needs access control for certain forms. That means, the application is running under the same (default) user at system startup, but certain forms need to be secured, so that only certain windows users could have access to the additional functions after identifying themself with username and password. For that step windows authentication should be used. Now the tricky part. Although the application was started under a "normal" user I would like the superusers to "login" into the special form without restarting the entiere application. My question now is. Is this possible (i.e. create one thread with the credentials of an administrator). Or do I need to setup another appdomain for that? Please give me a hint wather the user of a running application could be changed somehow. Thank you. EDIT I replaced administrators by "certain users" since the privileged user could be just another ordinary user that is granted access to the special functionality by the configuration of the installation.

    Read the article

  • Status Code from FTPWebRequest GetResponse method

    - by nick
    This is slightly tricky. I am uploading files to FTP asynchronously. After uploading each file I am checking the status of the upload operation for that file. This can be done with StatusCode property of the FtpWebResponse object for that request. The code snippet is as give below. System.IO.FileStream fs = System.IO.File.Open(fileName, System.IO.FileMode.Open); while ((iWork = fs.Read(buf, 0, buf.Length)) > 0) requestStream.Write(buf, 0, iWork); requestStream.Close(); FtpWebResponse wrRet = ((FtpWebResponse)state.Request.GetResponse()); There are about 37 StatusCode values as per msdn. I am unaware as to which of these status code values will assure that the file is uploaded successfully. Some of them I used in my code to check for success are : wrRet.StatusCode == FtpStatusCode.CommandOK wrRet.StatusCode == FtpStatusCode.ClosingData wrRet.StatusCode == FtpStatusCode.ClosingControl wrRet.StatusCode == FtpStatusCode.ConnectionClosed wrRet.StatusCode == FtpStatusCode.FileActionOK wrRet.StatusCode == FtpStatusCode.FileStatus But I am unaware of the rest. I need to be sure about these codes because based on the failure or success of the upload operation I have other dependant operations to be carried out. A wrong condition can affect the remaining code. Another thought that crossed my mind was to simply put the above code into a try..catch and not depend on these status codes. With this I would not be depending on the status codes and assuming that any failure will always be directed to the catch block. Kindly let me know if this is the right way. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Help me re-center a ModalPopup within an iframe when the iframe's parent window scrolls

    - by Cory Larson
    I have a web page with an iframe in it (I don't like it, but that's the way it has to be). It's not a cross-domain iframe so there's nothing to worry about there. I have written a jQuery extension that does the centering of a ModalPopup (which is called from an overridden AjaxControlToolkit.ModalPopupBehavior._layout method) based on the width and height of the iframe's parent, so that it looks centered even though the iframe is not in the center of the page. It's a lot of tricky stuff, especially since the web page I added the iframe to runs in quirks mode. Now, I've also overridden AjaxControlToolkit.ModalPopupBehavior._attachPopup, so that when the parent window resizes or scrolls, the ModalPopup inside of the iframe recenter's itself relative to the new size of the parent window. However, the same code that attaches the popup to the parent window's resize event does NOT work for the parent window's scroll event. See the code below, and the comments: AjaxControlToolkit.ModalPopupBehavior.prototype._attachPopup = function() { /// <summary> /// Attach the event handlers for the popup to the PARENT window /// </summary> if (this._DropShadow && !this._dropShadowBehavior) { this._dropShadowBehavior = $create(AjaxControlToolkit.DropShadowBehavior, {}, null, null, this._popupElement); } if (this._dragHandleElement && !this._dragBehavior) { this._dragBehavior = $create(AjaxControlToolkit.FloatingBehavior, {"handle" : this._dragHandleElement}, null, null, this._foregroundElement); } $addHandler(parent.window, 'resize', this._resizeHandler); // <== This WORKS $addHandler(parent.window, 'scroll', this._scrollHandler); // <== This DOES NOT work this._windowHandlersAttached = true; } Can anybody explain to me why the resize event works while the scroll event doesn't? Any suggestions or alternatives out there to help me out? I am working with jQuery, so if I can use something besides the $addHandler method from MS that'd be fine. Be aware that I also have to override the _detachPopup function to remove the handler, so I need to take that into account. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to write a class that interacts with controls on my WPF form?

    - by Adam S
    Hi all, I'm trying to write a class that I can use to interact with a group of similar controls in my wpf application. I have hit a few roadblocks and now I am wondering if this is a poor approach to begin with. I want to do this primarily to make my code more manageable - I have to interact with around 200 - 300 controls with my code, and it could get very tricky to have all my code in the main window class. Here's something I'd like to be able to do: class ProcControl { private CheckBox * [] Boxes = new CheckBox[10]; ProcControl() { //set boxes 0-9 to point to the actual checkboxes } //provides mass checking/unchecking functionality public void Refactor(CheckBox box) { //see what box it is int box_index = 0; while (Boxes[box_index] != box) { box_index++; } } } This doesn't work as it is right now. I have not figured out how to get my Boxes[] array to point to the actual checkboxes on my form, so I can't interact with them yet. Is it even possible to make an array that points to a bunch of controls so that I may process their properties in a nice manner? Why can't I access the controls at all from inside my class?

    Read the article

  • AS3 - Can't access properties or methods of a MC child that has been added in script

    - by Chris
    Hi All - I am still a bit of a beginner at AS3, so bear with me, please. I have created a loop to instantiate tiles on a board. In the following example, "Gametiles" is an array containing objects of class "Tile" which is a class that extends MovieClip. "Game" is a MC that I added to the stage in the flash developing environment. for(var i:uint=0;i < Gametiles.length;i++){ var pulledTile = Gametiles[i]; var tilename:String = "I_Tile_" + pulledTile.grid_y + "_" + pulledTile.grid_x; var createdTile = new InteractiveTile(); pulledTile.addAnims(createdTile); Game.addChildAt(pulledTile, 0); Game.getChildAt(0).name = tilename; } The above code works - but with a tricky problem. If I did something like the following: trace(Game.I_Tile_1_3.x); I get "TypeError: Error #1010: A term is undefined and has no properties." However, I am able to access theses children in the following manner: var testing = Game.getChildByName("I_Tile_1_3") trace(testing.x); This method is a bit cumbersome though. I really don't want to have to create a var and call getChildByName every time I want to interact with these properties or methods. How can I set up these children so that I can access them directly without the extra steps?

    Read the article

  • Need some help to determine the amount of recursive calls in PHP

    - by Ben Fransen
    Hi all, I've got a, I think fairly easy question, but this is bugging me for a while now. So I figured, maybe I can get some help here. Since recursive functions are always a bit tricky, and sometimes a bit unclear to me, I keep struggling to create a nice working solution to get my menudata. In one of my classes I have this function, which gives me all menu-items recursivly. The thing I want is to determine at which recursionlevel a certain object was retrieved so I can create a nicely looking HTML output with indents for the levels of nesting. public function GetObjectList($parentID = 0, $objectlist = null) { if(is_null($objectlist)) { $objectlist = new ObjectList("Model_Navigation"); } $query = MySQL::Query("SELECT * FROM `Navigation` WHERE `WebsiteID` = ".SITE_ID. " AND `LanguageID` = ".LANG_ID." AND `ParentID` = ".$parentID); while($result = MySQL::FetchAssoc($query)) { $object = new Model_Navigation(); $object->ID = $result["ID"]; $object->WebsiteID = $result["WebsiteID"]; $object->LanguageID = $result["LanguageID"]; $object->ParentID = $result["ParentID"]; $object->Name = $result["Name"]; $object->Page = Model_Page::GetObjectByID($result["PageID"]); $object->ExternalURL = $result["ExternalURL"]; $object->Index = $result["Index"]; $object->Level = [here lies my problem]; $objectlist->Add($object); self::GetObjectList($object->ID, $objectlist); } return $objectlist; } Hope to hear from you! Greetings from Holland, Ben Fransen

    Read the article

  • Getting the highest owner of a ToolStripDropDownItem

    - by andyperfect
    I'm currently working on a project in which at one point, the user may right click a button which brings up a contextMenuStrip. I am already able to find the owner accurately from that strip, and manipulate the button clicked as follows: Dim myItem As ToolStripMenuItem = CType(sender, ToolStripMenuItem) Dim cms As ContextMenuStrip = CType(myItem.Owner, ContextMenuStrip) Dim buttonPressed As DataButton = DirectCast(cms.SourceControl, DataButton) But now for the tricky part. Within this contextmenuStrip, I have a DropDown menu with multiple items in there. I would assume you would be able to work your way up the ladder doing casts like above in the manner of ToolStripDrowpDownItem > ToolStripDropDownMenu > ToolStripMenuItem > ContextMenuStrip Unfortunately, when I try to get the sourcecontrol from this menuStrip, it return Nothing. Any ideas on how I can get the button that was pressed from this toolStripMenuItem? My current code is as follows (in which the sourceControl is Nothing) Dim myItem As ToolStripDropDownItem = CType(sender, ToolStripDropDownItem) Dim dropDown As ToolStripDropDownMenu = CType(myItem.Owner, ToolStripDropDownMenu) Dim menuItem As ToolStripMenuItem = CType(dropDown.OwnerItem, ToolStripMenuItem) Dim cms As ContextMenuStrip = CType(menuItem.Owner, ContextMenuStrip) Dim buttonPressed As DataButton = DirectCast(cms.SourceControl, DataButton) Any ideas on how to go about doing what I did in that first method, but just working my way up from further down the ladder?

    Read the article

  • Help porting javascript function to jQuery - learning tool

    - by chibineku
    I am just learning jQuery and I wanted to see what I could do with the function below. This function adds or removes css classes to create a pull down menu (it is in fact Stu Nicholl's well known pull down menu). But I'm not getting very far (I've been learning jQuery for approximately an hoour now, so my DOM traversal isn't quite up there yet). I am curious to see how neat and elegant it can become using jQuery, and thought I'd see what you guys could come up with. Here is the existing function: var getEls = document.getElementById("menu").getElementsByTagName("LI"); var getAgn = getEls; for (var i=0; i<getEls.length; i++) { getEls[i].onclick=function() { for (var x=0; x<getAgn.length; x++) { getAgn[x].className=getAgn[x].className.replace("unclick", ""); getAgn[x].className=getAgn[x].className.replace("click", "unclick"); } if ((this.className.indexOf('unclick'))!=-1) { this.className=this.className.replace("unclick", "");; } else { this.className+=" click"; } } } } My first failure started like this: $(document).ready(function() { $('#menu > li').click(function() { $('#menu >li > ul').toggleClass('unclick'); }); }); That works as far as it goes, but the next bit proved tricky. So, if anyone feels like having a go, please be my guest :)

    Read the article

  • Pros and cons of MPMoviePlayerController versus launching UIWebView to stream movie

    - by Nosredna
    I have a client who has video content for the web in Flash format. My task is to help them show the videos in an iPhone app. I realize that step one is to get these videos into the appropriate Quicktime format for the iPhone. Then I'm going to have to help the client figure out how or where to host these files. If that's tricky I assume they can be hosted at YouTube. My chief concern, though, is which approach to take to stream the video. What are the pros and cons of MPMoviePlayerController versus launching UIWebView with the URL of the stream? Is there any difference? Is one of them more or less forgiving? Is one of them a better user experience? Any gotchas I might expect to run into? I'm assuming playing video is pretty easy on the iPhone. Is it reasonable to try both and have one available as a fallback, or would that be a waste of time? I'm trying to schedule this out a bit, so I'd love to hear real-world experiences from anyone who's done this.

    Read the article

  • multiple redirect??

    - by Ryan Pitts
    Ok, i won't go into the full details (too much to explain) but here is what i am trying to do. I have a button on a webpage (we'll call page-1) that links to a page (we'll call it page-2). This page opens in the same window. However, i need the page (page-2) that opens to open up a new window with another page (we'll call this one page-3) when it loads. So virtually when you click the initial button (on page-1) it will go to a new page (page-2) AND a window will open as well with a different page (page-3). This is where it gets tricky. I need page-2 to automatically redirect back to page-1 after it launches page-3. Is this possible and if so, how?? Could it be a JQuery thing? Please just give some answers...i know this is way crazy and a huge workaround - but this is my last resort for this particular website. I have to do it this way because of the lack of control over some of the code.

    Read the article

  • jquery-sortable using behavior of a linkedlist

    - by BabaBooey
    I suspect I'm not looking at this issue in the right way so here goes. I have essentially a LinkedList of data on a web page (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Linked_list) that I'd like to manipulate using traditional Linked List behavior (i.e. just updating the reference/id of the "next" object) for performance reasons. Where this gets a bit tricky is I'd ideally like to use Jquery's sortable to do this. Like the user would drag something up/down and I could just do an Ajax call to the server with the id of the object that moved and the new parent id of that object (and then behind the scenes I could figure out how to reconnect things..maybe need more data than that...). But every example I've seen where sortable is used they were sending the whole re-indexed list to the database to update which seems unnecessary to me. With a linked list to change an element's "index" I only need to make 3 updates which depending on the size of the list could be a big performance savings. Anyone have an example of what I'm trying to do...am I too far in left field?

    Read the article

  • How to design a RESTful collection resource?

    - by Suresh Kumar
    I am trying to design a "collection of items" resource. I need to support the following operations: Create the collection Remove the collection Add a single item to the collection Add multiple items to the collection Remove a single item from the collection Remove multiple items from the collection This is as far as I have gone: Create collection: ==> POST /service Host: www.myserver.com Content-Type: application/xml <collection name="items"> <item href="item1"/> <item href="item2"/> <item href="item3"/> </collection> <== 201 Created Location: http://myserver.com/service/items Content-Type: application/xml ... Remove collection: ==> DELETE /service/items <== 200 OK Removing a single item from the collection: ==> DELETE /service/items/item1 <== 200 OK However, I am finding supporting the other operations a bit tricky i.e. what methods can I use to: Add single or multiple items to the collection. (PUT doesn't seem to be right here as per HTTP 1.1 RFC Remove multiple items from the collection in one transaction. (DELETE doesn't seem to right here either)

    Read the article

  • SQL with Regular Expressions vs Indexes with Logical Merging Functions

    - by geeko
    Hello Lads, I am trying to develop a complex textual search engine. I have thousands of textual pages from many books. I need to search pages that contain specified complex logical criterias. These criterias can contain virtually any compination of the following: A: Full words. B: Word roots (semilar to stems; i.e. all words with certain key letters). C: Word templates (in some languages are filled in certain templates to form various part of speech such as adjactives, past/present verbs...). D: Logical connectives: AND/OR/XOR/NOT/IF/IFF and parentheses to state priorities. Now, would it be faster to have the pages' full text in database (not indexed) and search though them all using SQL and Regular Expressions ? Or would it be better to construct indexes of word/root/template-page-location tuples. Hence, we can boost searching for individual words/roots/templates. However, it gets tricky as we interdouce logical connectives into our query. I thought of doing the following steps in such cases: 1: Seperately search for each individual words/roots/templates in the specified query. 2: On priority bases, we merge two result lists (from step 1) at a time depedning on the logical connective For example, if we are searching for "he AND (is OR was)": 1: We shall search for "he", "is" and "was" seperately and get result lists for each word. 2: Merge the result lists of "is" and "was" using the merging function OR-MERGE 3: Merge the merged result list from the OR-MERGE function with the one of "he" using the merging function AND-MERGE The result of step 3 is then returned as the result of the specified query. What do you think gurues ? Which is faster ? Any better ideas ? Thank you all in advance.

    Read the article

  • Modifying my website to allow anonymous comments

    - by David
    I write the code for my own website as an educational/fun exercise. Right now part of the website is a blog (like every other site out there :-/) which supports the usual basic blog features, including commenting on posts. But I only have comments enabled for logged-in users; I want to alter the code to allow anonymous comments - that is, I want to allow people to post comments without first creating a user account on my site, although there will still be some sort of authentication involved to prevent spam. Question: what information should I save for anonymous comments? I'm thinking at least display name and email address (for displaying a Gravatar), and probably website URL because I eventually want to accept OpenID as well, but would anything else make sense? Other question: how should I modify the database to store this information? The schema I have for the comment table is currently comment_id smallint(5) // The unique comment ID post_id smallint(5) // The ID of the post the comment was made on user_id smallint(5) // The ID of the user account who made the comment comment_subject varchar(128) comment_date timestamp comment_text text Should I add additional fields for name, email address, etc. to the comment table? (seems like a bad idea) Create a new "anonymous users" table? (and if so, how to keep anonymous user ids from conflicting with regular user ids) Or create fake user accounts for anonymous users in my existing users table? Part of what's making this tricky is that if someone tries to post an anonymous comment using an email address (or OpenID) that's already associated with an account on my site, I'd like to catch that and prompt them to log in.

    Read the article

  • When is onBind or onCreate called in an android service browser plugin?

    - by anselm
    I have adapted the example plugin of the android source and the browser recognises the plugin without any problem. Here is an extract of AndroidManifest.xml: <application android:icon="@drawable/icon" android:label="@string/app_name" android:debuggable="true"> <service android:name="com.domain.plugin.PluginService"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.webkit.PLUGIN" /> </intent-filter> </service> </application> <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="7" /> <uses-permission android:name="android.webkit.permission.PLUGIN"></uses-permission> The actual Service class looks like so: public class PluginService extends Service { @Override public IBinder onBind(Intent arg0) { Log.d("PluginService", "onBind"); return null; } @Override public void onCreate() { Log.d("PluginService", "onCreate"); // TODO Auto-generated method stub super.onCreate(); AssetInstaller.getInstance(this).installAssets("/data/data/com.domain.plugin"); } } The AssetInstaller code is supposed to extract some files required by the actual plugin into the /data/data/com.domain.plugin directory, however wether onBind nor onCreate are called. But I get lot's of debug trace of the actual libnpplugin.so file I'm using. So the puzzle is when and under what circumstance is the Service bound or created in case of a browser plugin. As things look the service seems to be a dummy service. Having said that, is there another intent that can be executed at installation time probably? The only solution I see right now is installing the needed files from the native plugin code instead. Any ideas? I know this is quite a tricky question ;)

    Read the article

  • How to modulate every texture unit in OpenGL ES 1.1?

    - by Jesse Beder
    I have two textures and a "blend factor", and I'd like to mix them, modulated by the current color; in effect, I want to use the following shader: gl_FragColor = gl_Color * mix(tex0, tex1, blendFactor); I'm using OpenGL ES 1.1, targeting all versions of the iPhone, so I can't use shaders, and I have two texture units. My best attempt is: // texture 0 glActiveTexture(GL_TEXTURE0); image1.Bind(); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_TEXTURE_ENV_MODE, GL_MODULATE); // texture 1 glActiveTexture(GL_TEXTURE1); image2.Bind(); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_TEXTURE_ENV_MODE, GL_COMBINE); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_COMBINE_RGB, GL_INTERPOLATE); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_SRC0_RGB, GL_PREVIOUS); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_OPERAND0_RGB, GL_SRC_COLOR); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_SRC1_RGB, GL_TEXTURE); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_OPERAND1_RGB, GL_SRC_COLOR); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_SRC2_RGB, GL_CONSTANT); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_OPERAND2_RGB, GL_SRC_ALPHA); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_COMBINE_ALPHA, GL_INTERPOLATE); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_SRC0_ALPHA, GL_PREVIOUS); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_OPERAND0_ALPHA, GL_SRC_ALPHA); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_SRC1_ALPHA, GL_TEXTURE); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_OPERAND1_ALPHA, GL_SRC_ALPHA); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_SRC2_ALPHA, GL_CONSTANT); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_OPERAND2_ALPHA, GL_SRC_ALPHA); const float factor[] = { 0, 0, 0, blendFactor }; glTexEnvfv(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_TEXTURE_ENV_COLOR, factor); This has the effect of the shader: gl_FragColor = mix(gl_Color * tex0, tex1, blendFactor); but I don't see how to module texture 1 by the color. Is there any way to have the color provided by a texture unit automatically modulated by the incoming primary color? Or any other way to do what I want that I'm missing? Multiple passes are definitely allowed, but they have to have the proper blend effect; I have glBlend(GL_ONE, GL_ONE_MINUS_SRC_ALPHA); enabled, so it can be tricky to get right with multiple passes.

    Read the article

  • Generate an ID via COM interop

    - by Erik van Brakel
    At the moment, we've got an unmaintanable ball of code which offers an interface to a third party application. The third party application has a COM assembly which MUST be used to create new entries. This process involves two steps: generate a new object (basically an ID), and update that object with new field values. Because COM interop is so slow, we only use that to generate the ID (and related objects) in the database. The actual update is done using a regular SQL query. What I am trying to figure out if it's possible to use NHibernate to do some of the heavy lifting for us, without bypassing the COM assembly. Here's the code for saving something to the database as I envision it: using(var s = sessionFactory.OpenSession()) using(var t = s.BeginTransaction()) { MyEntity entity = new MyEntity(); s.Save(entity); t.Commit(); } Regular NH code I'd say. Now, this is where it gets tricky. I think I have to supply my own implementation of NHibernate.Id.IIdentifierGenerator which calls the COM assembly in the Generate method. That's not a problem. What IS a problem is that the COM assembly requires initialisation, which does take a bit of time. It also doesn't like multiple instances in the same process, for some reason. What I would like to know is if there's a way to properly access an external service in the generator code. I'm free to use any technique I want, so if it involves something like an IoC container that's no problem. The thing I am looking for is where exactly to hook-up my code so I can access the things I need in my generator, without having to resort to using singletons or other nasty stuff.

    Read the article

  • How to find the latest row for each group of data

    - by Jason
    Hi All, I have a tricky problem that I'm trying to find the most effective method to solve. Here's a simplified version of my View structure. Table: Audits AuditID | PublicationID | AuditEndDate | AuditStartDate 1 | 3 | 13/05/2010 | 01/01/2010 2 | 1 | 31/12/2009 | 01/10/2009 3 | 3 | 31/03/2010 | 01/01/2010 4 | 3 | 31/12/2009 | 01/10/2009 5 | 2 | 31/03/2010 | 01/01/2010 6 | 2 | 31/12/2009 | 01/10/2009 7 | 1 | 30/09/2009 | 01/01/2009 There's 3 query's that I need from this. I need to one to get all the data. The next to get only the history data (that is, everything but exclude the latest data item by AuditEndDate) and then the last query is to obtain the latest data item (by AuditEndDate). There's an added layer of complexity that I have a date restriction (This is on a per user/group basis) where certain user groups can only see between certain dates. You'll notice this in the where clause as AuditEndDate<=blah and AuditStartDate=blah Foreach publication, select all the data available. select * from Audits Where auditEndDate<='31/03/10' and AuditStartDate='06/06/2009'; foreach publication, select all the data but Exclude the latest data available (by AuditEndDate) select * from Audits left join (select AuditId as aid, publicationID as pid and max(auditEndDate) as pend from Audit where auditenddate <= '31/03/2009' /* user restrict / group by pid) Ax on Ax.pid=Audit.pubid where pend!=Audits.auditenddate AND auditEndDate<='31/03/10' and AuditStartDate='06/06/2009' / user restrict */ Foreach publication, select only the latest data available (by AuditEndDate) select * from Audits left join (select AuditId as aid, publicationID as pid and max(auditEndDate) as pend from Audit where auditenddate <= '31/03/2009'/* user restrict / group by pid) Ax on Ax.pid=Audit.pubid where pend=Audits.auditenddate AND auditEndDate<='31/03/10' and AuditStartDate='06/06/2009' / user restrict */ So at the moment, query 1 and 3 work fine, but query 2 just returns all the data instead of the restriction. Can anyone help me? Thanks jason

    Read the article

  • Is there a standard for storing normalized phone numbers in a database?

    - by Eric Z Beard
    What is a good data structure for storing phone numbers in database fields? I'm looking for something that is flexible enough to handle international numbers, and also something that allows the various parts of the number to be queried efficiently. [Edit] Just to clarify the use case here: I currently store numbers in a single varchar field, and I leave them just as the customer entered them. Then, when the number is needed by code, I normalize it. The problem is that if I want to query a few million rows to find matching phone numbers, it involves a function, like where dbo.f_normalizenum(num1) = dbo.f_normalizenum(num2) which is terribly inefficient. Also queries that are looking for things like the area code become extremely tricky when it's just a single varchar field. [Edit] People have made lots of good suggestions here, thanks! As an update, here is what I'm doing now: I still store numbers exactly as they were entered, in a varchar field, but instead of normalizing things at query time, I have a trigger that does all that work as records are inserted or updated. So I have ints or bigints for any parts that I need to query, and those fields are indexed to make queries run faster.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC application architecture "guidelines"

    - by Joe Future
    I'm looking for some feedback on my ASP.NET MVC based CMS application architecture. Domain Model - depends on nothing but the System classes to define types. For now, mostly anemic. Repository Layer - abstracted data access, only called by the services layer Services Layer - performs business logic on domain models. Exposes view models to the controllers. ViewModelMapper - service that translates back and forth between view models and domain models Controllers - super thin "traffic cop" style functionality that interacts with the service layer and only talks in terms of view models, never domain models My domain model is mostly used as data transfer (DTO) objects and has minimal logic at the moment. I'm finding this is nice because it depends on nothing (not even classes in the services layer). The services layer is a bit tricky... I only want the controllers to have access to viewmodels for ease of GUI programming. However, some of the services need to talk to each other. For example, I have an eventing service that notifies other listener services when content is tagged, when blog posts are created, etc. Currently, the methods that take domain models as inputs or return them are marked internal so they can't be used by the controllers. Sounds like overkill? Not enough abstraction? I'm mainly doing this as a learning exercise in being strict about architecture, not for an actual product, so please no feedback along the lines of "right depends on what you want to do". thanks! Jason

    Read the article

  • prevent javascript in the WMD editor's preview box

    - by Justin Grant
    There are many SO questions (e.g. here and here) about how to do server-side scrubbing of Markdown produced by the WMD editor to ensure the HTML generated doesn't contain malicious script, like this: <img onload="alert('haha');" src="http://www.google.com/intl/en_ALL/images/srpr/logo1w.png" /> Unfortunately, this still allows script to show up in the WMD client's preview box. I doubt this is a big deal since if you're scrubbing the HTML on the server, an attacker can't save the bad HTML so no one else will be able to see it later and have their cookies stolen or sessions hijacked by the bad script. But it's still kinda odd to allow an attacker to run any script in the context of your site, and it's probably a bad idea to allow the client preview window to allow different HTML than your server will allow. StackOverflow has clearly plugged this hole. How did they do it? [NOTE: I already figured this out but it required some tricky javascript debugging, so I'm answering my own question here to help others who may want to do ths same thing]

    Read the article

  • How can I access mainframe data with .Net applications and SQL Queries?

    - by orandov
    We have a large amount of data stored on an IBM mainframe using VSAM files. A lot of this data is dropped on the network every night in the form of text files to be processed and dumped into FoxPro and SQL Server databases. There are also many text files produced nightly by custom applications that get uploaded to the mainframe to keep everything in sync. Keeping the everything in sync is very tricky, to say the least. We are not getting rid of the mainframe any time soon and we would like to replace all the nightly batch processing with real time access to the mainframe data. We would like to be able to: Read data directly from the mainframe and produce reports based on it. Possibly using SQL queries. Read and Write data from custom .Net applications. We are not looking for a new platform to interface with the mainframe like Information Builders offers. We don't want to build application modules or reports with new "Business Intelligence" tools. We already know how to generate reports and write custom applications using SQL,.Net, Visual Studio, etc. All we are looking for is some sort of adapter to connect to our mainframe data. Any ideas are appreciated.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30  | Next Page >