Search Results

Search found 7375 results on 295 pages for 'parameter'.

Page 231/295 | < Previous Page | 227 228 229 230 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238  | Next Page >

  • SL 3 navigation not working!

    - by Silver Gun
    Hey Guys I converted all my existing Silverlight app UserControls to Pages so I could use the Navigation Framework. Anyway so I created a UserControl called MyFrame, which would host all the pages. In my App.xaml.cs I have the following to make sure that MyFrame is loaded when the App loads: private void Application_Startup(object sender, StartupEventArgs e) { this.RootVisual = new MyFrame(); } My UriMapper class resides in App.xaml and looks like the following: <navcore:UriMapper x:Key="uriMapper"> <navcore:UriMapping Uri="Login" MappedUri="Login.xaml"> </navcore:UriMapper> Within my 'MyFrame' class, I have the following <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <StackPanel Orientation="Vertical"> <HyperlinkButton Tag="Login" Content="Login" Click="HyperlinkButton_Click" /> </StackPanel> <StackPanel Orientation="Vertical"> <navigation:Frame x:Name="ContentFrame" Style="{StaticResource ContentFrameStyle}" /> </StackPanel> </StackPanel> And within the callback for my HyperlinkButton's event handler, I have the following: private void HyperlinkButton_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { ContentFrame.Navigate(new Uri((sender as HyperlinkButton).Tag.ToString(), UriKind.Relative)); } The Login.xaml file is in my root folder (right under Project). This navigation does not seem to work! The exception I get reads like so: Navigation is only supported to relative URIs that are fragments, or begin with '/', or which contain ';component/'. Parameter name: uri The Login page does not load. There is no problem with Login.xaml as when I set this.RootVisual = new Login(); the page loads just fine. I also tried setting the NavigateUri attribute of the HyperlinkButton to "Login." No cigar. I'll appreciate any help! Thanks a lot in advance

    Read the article

  • PJSIP Custom Registration Header (iOS)

    - by Daniel Redington
    I am attempting to setup SIP communication with an internal server (using the PJSIP library), however, this server requires a custom header field with a specified header value for the REGISTRATION call. For example's sake we'll call this required header "MyHeader". From what I've found, the pjsua_acc_add() function will add an account and register it to the server using a config struct. The parameter "reg_hdr_list" of the config struct has the description "The optional custom SIP headers to be put in the registration request." Which sounds like exactly what I need, however doesn't seem to have any effect on the call itself. Here's what I have so far: pjsua_acc_config cfg; pjsua_acc_config_default(&cfg); //...Some other config stuff related to the server... pjsip_hdr test; test.name = pj_str("MyHeader"); test.sname = pj_str("MyHdr"); test.type = PJSIP_H_OTHER; test.prev = cfg.reg_hdr_list.prev; test.next = cfg.reg_hdr_list.next; cfg.reg_hdr_list = test; pj_status_t status; status = pjsua_acc_add(&cfg, PJ_TRUE, &acc_id); From the server side, there are no extra header fields or anything. And the struct that is used to define the header (pjsua_hdr) has no "value" or equivalent field, so even if it did create the header, how does it set the value? Here's the refrence for the header list definition: Link And the reference for the header struct: Link Any help would be greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework Update Error in ASP.NET Mvc with related entity

    - by Barry
    I have run into a problem which have searched and tried everything i can to find a solution but to no avail. I am using the same repository and context throughout the process I have a booking entity and a userExtension Entity Below is my image i then get my form collection back from my page and create a new booking public ActionResult Create(FormCollection collection) { Booking toBooking = new Booking(); i then do some validation and property assignment and find an associated BidInstance toBooking.BidInstance = bid; i have checked and the bid is not null. finally i get the user extension file from the Current IPRINCIPAL USER as below UserExtension loggedInUser = m_BookingRepository.GetBookingCurrentUser(User); toBooking.UserExtension = loggedInUser; The Code to do the getUserExtension is : public UserExtension GetBookingCurrentUser(IPrincipal currentUser) { var user = (from u in Context.aspnet_Users .Include("UserExtension") where u.UserName == currentUser.Identity.Name select u).FirstOrDefault(); if (user != null) { var userextension = (from u in Context.UserExtension.Include("aspnet_Users") where u.aspnet_Users.UserId == user.UserId select u).FirstOrDefault(); return userextension; } else{ return null; } } It returns the userextension fine and assigns it fine. i originally used the aspnet_users but encountered this problem so tried to change it to the extension entity. as soon as i call the : Context.AddToBooking(booking); Context.SaveChanges(); i get the following exception and im completely baffled by how to fix it Entities in 'FutureFlyersEntityModel.Booking' participate in the 'FK_Booking_UserExtension' relationship. 0 related 'UserExtension' were found. 1 'UserExtension' is expected. then the final error that comes to the front end is: Metadata information for the relationship 'FutureFlyersModel.FK_Booking_BidInstance' could not be retrieved. Make sure that the EdmRelationshipAttribute for the relationship has been defined in the assembly. Parameter name: relationshipName.. But both the related entities are set in the booking entity passed thruogh PLEASE HELP Im at wits end with this

    Read the article

  • What is the WCF equivalent?

    - by klausbyskov
    I am trying to port some code that is based on WSE3.0 to WCF. Basically, the old code has the following configuration: <microsoft.web.services3> <diagnostics> <trace enabled="true" input="InputTrace.webinfo" output="OutputTrace.webinfo" /> </diagnostics> <tokenIssuer> <statefulSecurityContextToken enabled="false" /> </tokenIssuer> </microsoft.web.services3> When calling the same service through my "Service Reference" I get this error: Request does not contain required Security header My binding looks like this: <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="LegalUnitGetBinding" closeTimeout="00:01:00" openTimeout="00:01:00" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:01:00" allowCookies="false" bypassProxyOnLocal="false" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" maxBufferSize="65536" maxBufferPoolSize="524288" maxReceivedMessageSize="65536" messageEncoding="Text" textEncoding="utf-8" transferMode="Buffered" useDefaultWebProxy="true"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="8192" maxArrayLength="16384" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384" /> <security mode="Transport"> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> From what I have understood, the service I'm calling only requires an SSL connection, since it receives a username and password as part of a request parameter. Any help or suggestions would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Build error with variables and url_for in Flask

    - by Rob
    Have found one or two people on the interwebs with similar problems, but haven't seen a solution posted anywhere. I'm getting a build error from the code/template below, but can't figure out where the issue is or why it's occurring. It appears that the template isn't recognizing the function, but don't know why this would be occurring. Any help would be greatly appreciated - have been pounding my against the keyboard for two nights now. Function: @app.route('/viewproj/<proj>', methods=['GET','POST']) def viewproj(proj): ... Template Excerpt: {% for project in projects %} <li> <a href="{{ url_for('viewproj', proj=project.project_name) }}"> {{project.project_name}}</a></li> {% else %} No projects {% endfor %} Error log: https://gist.github.com/1684250 EDIT: Also wanted to include that it's not recognizing the variable "proj" when building the URL, so it's just appending the value as a parameter. Here's an example: //myproject/viewproj?projname=what+up Last few lines: [Wed Jan 25 09:47:34 2012] [error] [client 199.58.143.128] File "/srv/www/myproject.com/myproject/templates/layout.html", line 103, in top-level template code, referer: xx://myproject.com/ [Wed Jan 25 09:47:34 2012] [error] [client 199.58.143.128] {% block body %}{% endblock %}, referer: xx://myproject.com/ [Wed Jan 25 09:47:34 2012] [error] [client 199.58.143.128] File "/srv/www/myproject.com/myproject/templates/main.html", line 34, in block "body", referer: xx://myproject.com/ [Wed Jan 25 09:47:34 2012] [error] [client 199.58.143.128] , referer: xx://myproject.com/ [Wed Jan 25 09:47:34 2012] [error] [client 199.58.143.128] File "/usr/lib/python2.7/dist-packages/flask/helpers.py", line 195, in url_for, referer: xx://myproject.com/ [Wed Jan 25 09:47:34 2012] [error] [client 199.58.143.128] return ctx.url_adapter.build(endpoint, values, force_external=external), referer: xx://myproject.com/ [Wed Jan 25 09:47:34 2012] [error] [client 199.58.143.128] File "/usr/lib/pymodules/python2.7/werkzeug/routing.py", line 1409, in build, referer: xx://myproject.com/ [Wed Jan 25 09:47:34 2012] [error] [client 199.58.143.128] raise BuildError(endpoint, values, method), referer: xx://myproject.com/ [Wed Jan 25 09:47:34 2012] [error] [client 199.58.143.128] BuildError: ('viewproj', {'proj': '12th'}, None), referer: xx://myproject.com/

    Read the article

  • C# Setting Properties using Index

    - by Guazz
    I have a business class that contains many properties for various stock-exchange price types. This is a sample of the class: public class Prices { public decimal Today {get; set} public decimal OneDay {get; set} public decimal SixDay {get; set} public decimal TenDay {get; set} public decimal TwelveDay {get; set} public decimal OneDayAdjusted {get; set;} public decimal SixDayAdjusted {get; set;} public decimal TenDayAdjusted {get; set;} public decimal OneHundredDayAdjusted {get; set;} } I have a legacy system that supplies the prices using string ids to identify the price type. E.g. Today = "0D" OneDay = "1D" SixDay = "6D" //..., etc. Firstly, I load all the values to an IDictionary() collection so we have: [KEY] VALUE [0D] = 1.23456 [1D] = 1.23456 [6D] = 1.23456 ...., etc. Secondly, I set the properties of the Prices class using a method that takes the above collection as a parameter like so: SetPricesValues(IDictionary<string, decimal> pricesDictionary) { // TODAY'S PRICE string TODAY = "D0"; if (true == pricesDictionary.ContainsKey(TODAY)) { this.Today = pricesDictionary[TODAY]; } // OneDay PRICE string ONE_DAY = "D1"; if (true == pricesDictionary.ContainsKey(ONE_DAY)) { this.OneDay = pricesDictionary[ONE_DAY]; } //..., ..., etc., for each other property } Is there a more elegant technique to set a large amount of properties? Thanks, j

    Read the article

  • setAttribute, onClick and cross browser compatability...

    - by Nicholas Kreidberg
    I have read a number of posts about this but none with any solid answer. Here is my code: // button creation onew = document.createElement('input'); onew.setAttribute("type", "button"); onew.setAttribute("value", "hosts"); onew.onclick = function(){fnDisplay_Computers("'" + alines[i] + "'"); }; // ie onew.setAttribute("onclick", "fnDisplay_Computers('" + alines[i] + "')"); // mozilla odiv.appendChild(onew); Now, the setAttribute() method (with the mozilla comment) works fine in mozilla but only if it comes AFTER the line above it. So in other words it seems to just default to whichever gets set last. The .onclick method (with the ie comment) does not work in either case, am I using it incorrectly? Either way I can't find a way to make this work at all in IE, let alone in both. I did change the function call when using the .onclick method and it worked fine using just a simple call to an alert function which is why I believe my syntax is incorrect. Long story short, I can't get the onclick parameter to work consistently between IE/Mozilla. -- Nicholas

    Read the article

  • How to upload a file with watir and IE?

    - by karlthorwald
    I am writing a watir script to test an upload form. But the script does not automatically choose the file that is to be uploaded from my harddrive. Instead IE stops with the file chooser dialog open. As soon as I manually select the to be uploaded file in the dialog and click ok, watir continues as desired. I wonder why it stops. This is from my watir script: ie.file_field(:name, 'upload').set("s:\\localwatir\\Test_Pdf.pdf") ie.button(:name, 'submit').click I got the code from this page: http://wiki.openqa.org/display/WTR/File+Uploads This is the form: <form name="form1" enctype="multipart/form-data" method="post" action="uploadlegacy.php"> <input type="file" name="upload" size="30"> <input type="submit" name="submit" value="upload"> </form> I have found this manual http://svn.openqa.org/svn/watir/trunk/watir/unittests/filefield_test.rb also, but as I do not know what $htmlRoot stands for, I cannot really follow it. Does that mean, I have to put some "file///" into the parameter for set()? If so, how exactly? I am using IE 6 for the testing.

    Read the article

  • How do I pass a callback function to sqlite3_exec on iOS 5.1?

    - by John Doh
    I am new to both xcode/iOS/Objective-C and sqlite. I am trying to teach myself the basics - and I would like to use the sqlite3 wrapper "sqlite3_exec" for a select query. For some reason, I can't find a simple example anywhere of someone doing this. Basically, the method has a parameter (the third one) for a callback function: int sqlite3_exec( sqlite3*, /* An open database */ const char *sql, /* SQL to be evaluated */ int (*callback)(void*,int,char**,char**), /* Callback function */ void *, /* 1st argument to callback */ char **errmsg /* Error msg written here */ ); That's fine. I'm no stranger to callbacks. However, I just can't seem to get the syntax down right. I took over one of the view controllers in my iPad (iOS 5.1) xcode (4.3) project, and made the changes shown below: #import "SecondViewController.h" #import "sqlite3.h" #import "AppState.h" @interface SecondViewController () @end @implementation SecondViewController - (int)myCallback:(void *)a_parm argc:(int)argc argv:(char **)argv column:(char **)column { return 0; } - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; // Do any additional setup after loading the view, typically from a nib. //grab questionnaire names char *sql = "select * from QST2Main order by [Name]"; char *err = nil; sqlite3 *db = [[AppState sharedManager] getgCn]; sqlite3_exec(db, sql, myCallback, nil, &err); } Essentially, I want to run a query when this view first loads, to store some data for later use. But, XCode doesn't like the "myCallback" usage at the bottom there. It says: Undeclared Use of Identifier 'myCallback.' That method is declared in the header file, and I've even tried making it static. Nothing seems to make this error go away. I know I must be doing something fundamentally wrong here, but for the life of me I can't figure out what - I can't even find other code samples in this area that could help me figure out what I'm missing. Many thanks!

    Read the article

  • SSIS Lookup with Lookup Component Vs Script Component.

    - by Nev_Rahd
    Hello, I need to load Dimensions from EDW Tables (which does maintain historical records) and is of type Key-Value-Parameter. My scenario is ok if got a record in EDW as below Key1 Key2 Code Value EffectiveDate EndDate CurrentFlag 100 555 01 AAA 2010-01-01 11.00.00 9999-12-31 Y 100 555 02 BBB 2010-01-01 11.00.00 9999-12-31 Y This need to be loaded into DM by pivoting it as key1 and key2 combinations makes Natural key for DM SK NK 01 02 EffectiveDate EndDate CurrentFlag 1 100-555 AAA BBB 2010-01-01 11.00.00 9999-12-31 Y My ssis package does this all good pivoting... looking up the incoming NK in DIM.. if new will insert .. else with further lookup with effective date and determine if the incoming for same natural key got any new (change) in attribute.. if so updates the current record byy setting its end date and insert the new one with new attribute value and pulling the recent records values for other attributes. My problem is if the same natural key comes twice with same attribute in single extract my first lookup which on natural key .. will let both records pass and try to insert.. where its fails. If i get distinct records on NK the second is not picked and need to run package again. So my question how can i configure lookup or alernative way to handle this scenario when same NK comes twice in single extract, would be able to insert first record if not exists in Dim table and for second one should be able to updated with the changes with reference to one inserted above. Not sure this makes sense what am trying to explain. Will attached the screenshot once back to work desk (on monday). Thanks

    Read the article

  • using .NET web service (Dataset) from progress OpenEdge 4GL

    - by jasperdmx
    I created web service in C# .net with input parameter : DataSet in other side, i need to use this web service from progress OpenEdge 4GL 10.1 (not 10.2) the problem is Dataset in OpenEdge cant match with DataSet in .net. always return 0 in the result I'm C# programmer, so dont have deep knowledge in porgress. I did research in progress forum, but not a good result. any help ? thanks in advance. *codes***** //web service : C# .net [webmethod] public int getResult(DataSet ds) { DataTable tbl = ds.Tables["datas"]; int result=0; foreach (DataRow dr in tbl.Rows){ //only 1 record = 1 row result = Convert.toInt32(dr["field1"]); } return result; } //progress OpenEdge 10.1 --- create and fill temp-table : field1 = 30 and only 1 record --- create dataset and bind to temp-table --- connect to web service --- call webmethod : define variable result as integer no-undo. RUN getResult IN hPortType(INPUT dataset,OUTPUT result). message result view-as alert-box info button ok. --- RESULT ALWAYS 0 /****/ anyone know how to "bridge" dataset in progress openedge to .net dataset ? note: this web service works well if called from .net

    Read the article

  • String length differs from Javascript to Java code

    - by François P.
    I've got a JSP page with a piece of Javascript validation code which limits to a certain amount of characters on submit. I'm using a <textarea> so I can't simply use a length attribute like in a <input type="text">. I use document.getElementById("text").value.length to get the string length. I'm running Firefox 3.0 on Windows (but I've tested this behavior with IE 6 also). The form gets submitted to a J2EE servlet. In my Java servlet the string length of the parameter is larger than 2000! I've noticed that this can easily be reproduced by adding carriage returns in the <textarea>. I've used Firebug to assert the length of the <textare> and it really is 2000 characters long. On the Java side though, the carriage returns get converted to UNIX style (\r\n, instead of \n), thus the string length differs! Am I missing something obvious here or what ? If not, how would you reliably (cross-platform / browser) make sure that the <textarea> is limited.

    Read the article

  • Getting text between quotes using regular expression

    - by Camsoft
    I'm having some issues with a regular expression I'm creating. I need a regex to match against the following examples and then sub match on the first quoted string: Input strings ("Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit.") ('Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. ') ('Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. ', 'arg1', "arg2") Must sub match Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Regex so far: \((["'])([^"']+)\1,?.*\) The regex does a sub match on the text between the first set of quotes and returns the sub match displayed above. This is almost working perfectly, but the problem I have is that if the quoted string contains quotes in the text the sub match stops at the first instance, see below: Failing input strings ("Lorem ipsum dolor \"sit\" amet, consectetur adipiscing elit.") Only sub matches: Lorem ipsum dolor ("Lorem ipsum dolor 'sit' amet, consectetur adipiscing elit.") The entire match fails. Notes The input strings are actually php code function calls. I'm writing a script that will scan .php source files for a specific function and grab the text from the first parameter.

    Read the article

  • Custom ConfigurationSection: CallbackValidator called with empty string

    - by Paolo Tedesco
    I am writing a custom configuration section, and I would like to validate a configuration property with a callback, like in this example: using System; using System.Configuration; class CustomSection : ConfigurationSection { [ConfigurationProperty("stringValue", IsRequired = false)] [CallbackValidator(Type = typeof(CustomSection), CallbackMethodName = "ValidateString")] public string StringValue { get { return (string)this["stringValue"]; } set { this["stringValue"] = value; } } public static void ValidateString(object value) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty((string)value)) { throw new ArgumentException("string must not be empty."); } } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { CustomSection cfg = (CustomSection)ConfigurationManager.GetSection("customSection"); Console.WriteLine(cfg.StringValue); } } And my App.config file looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name="customSection" type="CustomSection, config-section"/> </configSections> <customSection stringValue="lorem ipsum"/> </configuration> My problem is that when the ValidateString function is called, the value parameter is always an empty string, and therefore the validation fails. If i just remove the validator, the string value is correctly initialized to the value in the configuration file. What am I missing? EDIT I discovered that actually the validation function is being called twice: the first time with the default value of the property, which is an empty string if nothing is specified, the second time with the real value read from the configuration file. Is there a way to modify this behavior?

    Read the article

  • Wrappers/law of demeter seems to be an anti-pattern...

    - by Robert Fraser
    I've been reading up on this "Law of Demeter" thing, and it (and pure "wrapper" classes in general) seem to generally be anti patterns. Consider an implementation class: class Foo { void doSomething() { /* whatever */ } } Now consider two different implementations of another class: class Bar1 { private static Foo _foo = new Foo(); public static Foo getFoo() { return _foo; } } class Bar2 { private static Foo _foo = new Foo(); public static void doSomething() { _foo.doSomething(); } } And the ways to call said methods: callingMethod() { Bar1.getFoo().doSomething(); // Version 1 Bar2.doSomething(); // Version 2 } At first blush, version 1 seems a bit simpler, and follows the "rule of Demeter", hide Foo's implementation, etc, etc. But this ties any changes in Foo to Bar. For example, if a parameter is added to doSomething, then we have: class Foo { void doSomething(int x) { /* whatever */ } } class Bar1 { private static Foo _foo = new Foo(); public static Foo getFoo() { return _foo; } } class Bar2 { private static Foo _foo = new Foo(); public static void doSomething(int x) { _foo.doSomething(x); } } callingMethod() { Bar1.getFoo().doSomething(5); // Version 1 Bar2.doSomething(5); // Version 2 } In both versions, Foo and callingMethod need to be changed, but in Version 2, Bar also needs to be changed. Can someone explain the advantage of having a wrapper/facade (with the exception of adapters or wrapping an external API or exposing an internal one).

    Read the article

  • Zend: How to authenticate using OpenId on local server.

    - by NAVEED
    I am using zend framework. Now I want to authenticate users with other already registered accounts using RPX. I am following the 3 steps as described at RPX site: 1- Get the Widget 2- Receive Tokens 3- Choose Providers I created a controller(person) and action(signin) to show widget and my own signin form. When following action (http://test.dev/#person/personsignin) is called then my own login form and widget is shown successfully. # is used in above URL for AJAX indication. public function personsigninAction() { $this->view->jsonEncoded = true; // Person Signin Form $PersonSigninForm = new Form_PersonSignin(); $this->view->PersonSigninForm = $PersonSigninForm; $this->view->PersonSigninForm->setAction( $this->view->url() ); $request = $this->getRequest(); if ( $request->isPost() ) { } } There are two problems while login using openid widget: When I am authenticated from outside(for example: Yahoo) then I am redirected to http://test.dev, therefor indexAction in called in indexController and home page is shown. I want to redirect to http://test.dev/#person/personsignin after authentication and want to set session in isPost() condition of personsigninAction() (described above). For now I consider indexAction to be called when outside authentication is done. Now I posted the code from http://gist.github.com/291396 in indexAction to follow step 3 mentioned above. But it is giving me following error: An error occured: Invalid parameter: apiKey Am I using the right way to use this. This is my very first attempt to this stuff. Can someone tell me the exact steps using my above actions? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to make Stack.Pop threadsafe

    - by user260197
    I am using the BlockingQueue code posted in this question, but realized I needed to use a Stack instead of a Queue given how my program runs. I converted it to use a Stack and renamed the class as needed. For performance I removed locking in Push, since my producer code is single threaded. My problem is how can thread working on the (now) thread safe Stack know when it is empty. Even if I add another thread safe wrapper around Count that locks on the underlying collection like Push and Pop do, I still run into the race condition that access Count and then Pop are not atomic. Possible solutions as I see them (which is preferred and am I missing any that would work better?): Consumer threads catch the InvalidOperationException thrown by Pop(). Pop() return a nullptr when _stack-Count == 0, however C++-CLI does not have the default() operator ala C#. Pop() returns a boolean and uses an output parameter to return the popped element. Here is the code I am using right now: generic <typename T> public ref class ThreadSafeStack { public: ThreadSafeStack() { _stack = gcnew Collections::Generic::Stack<T>(); } public: void Push(T element) { _stack->Push(element); } T Pop(void) { System::Threading::Monitor::Enter(_stack); try { return _stack->Pop(); } finally { System::Threading::Monitor::Exit(_stack); } } public: property int Count { int get(void) { System::Threading::Monitor::Enter(_stack); try { return _stack->Count; } finally { System::Threading::Monitor::Exit(_stack); } } } private: Collections::Generic::Stack<T> ^_stack; };

    Read the article

  • Why does calling abort() on ajax request cause error in ASP.Net MVC (IE8)

    - by user169867
    I use jquery to post to an MVC controller action that returns a table of information. The user of the page triggers this by clicking on various links. In the event the user decides to click a bunch of these links in quick succession I wanted to cancel any previous ajax request that may not have finished. I've found that when I do this (although its fine from the client's POV) I will get errors on the web application saying that "The parameters dictionary contains a null entry for parameter srtCol of non-nullable type 'System.Int32'" Now the ajax post deffinately passes in all the parameters, and if I don't try and cancel the ajax request it works just fine. But if I do cancel the request by calling abort() on the XMLHttpRequest object that ajax() returns before it finishes I get the error from ASP.Net MVC. Example: //Cancel any pevious request if (req) { req.abort(); req = null; } //Make new request req= $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: "/Myapp/GetTbl", data: {srtCol: srt, view: viewID}, success: OnSuccess, error: OnError, dataType: "html" }); I've noticed this only happen is IE8. In FF it seems to not cuase a problem. Does anyone know how to cancel an ajax request in IE8 without causing errors for MVC? Thanks for any help.

    Read the article

  • Globally disabling FxCop errors in TeamCity

    - by Dave
    Ok, another FxCop question for today. I've read the arguments regarding the IdentifiersShouldBeCasedCorrectly rule, and whether or not it should be "XML" or "Xml". Well, I'm an "XML" guy and I want to stay that way. Therefore, I do not want FxCop to correct me all of the time. I have been using the SuppressMessage attribute only for specific cases. I have also used FxCop to mark a ton of errors and copied them as "module" level SuppressMessage statements into assemblyinfo.cs. That works pretty well. However, now I really want to globally disable this annoying IdentifiersShouldBeCasedCorrectly rule. I'm using TeamCity 5.0.3, and am not using an FxCop project file (however, I could do this). I was hoping that I could pass a parameter to FxCopCmd to tell it to ignore this error, but it doesn't look that way from the documentation. So... is there anything I can do short of creating an FxCop project file on the TeamCity build server and using it for the FxCop build runner?

    Read the article

  • What is the best way to update an unattached entity on Entity Framework?

    - by Carlos Loth
    Hi, In my project I have some data classes to retrieve data from the database using the Entity Framework. We called these classes *EntityName*Manager. All of them have a method to retrieve entities from database and they behave most like this: static public EntityA SelectByName(String name) { using (var context = new ApplicationContext()) { var query = from a in context.EntityASet where a.Name == name select a; try { var entityA = query.First(); context.Detach(entityA); return entityA; } catch (InvalidOperationException ex) { throw new DataLayerException( String.Format("The entityA whose name is '{0}' was not found.", name), ex); } } } You can see that I detach the entity before return it to the method caller. So, my question is "what is the best way to create an update method on my *EntityA*Manager class?" I'd like to pass the modified entity as a parameter of the method. But I haven't figured out a way of doing it without going to the database and reload the entity and update its values inside a new context. Any ideas? Thanks in advance, Carlos Loth.

    Read the article

  • Writing Russian in XML

    - by zavié
    Hi, I am writing a Xml Tag Renamer class with Java which reads in a XML, renames the tags and write them back into another XML file using DocumentBuilderFactory and TransformerFactory (text nodes are preserved). It worked fine before with German and English texts, until today, when I tried to rename a XML file with russian text. Instead of the source texts I got ????? in the newly created XML file. I've tried setting Encoding Any idea how to correct this? Thanks! PS. Strings were correct before entering TransformerFactory, as I checked in the debugger. I've tried setting OutputKeys.ENCODING to UTF-8 and ISO-8859-5. None of them helped. The Transformer part: // Output the XML // Set up a transformer TransformerFactory transFactory = TransformerFactory.newInstance(); Transformer transformer = transFactory.newTransformer(); transformer.setOutputProperty(OutputKeys.OMIT_XML_DECLARATION, "no"); // Fix to a bug about indent in transformer transformer.setOutputProperty ("{http://xml.apache.org/xslt}indent-amount", "4"); transformer.setOutputProperty(OutputKeys.INDENT, "yes"); // TODO encoding parameter transformer.setOutputProperty(OutputKeys.ENCODING, "UTF-8"); // Create string from xml tree StringWriter sw = new StringWriter(); StreamResult result = new StreamResult(sw); DOMSource source = new DOMSource(doc); transformer.transform(source, result); String xmlString = sw.toString(); xmlString.replaceAll("\n", System.getProperty("line.separator")); // Write to file BufferedWriter output = new BufferedWriter(new FileWriter(outputPath)); output.write(xmlString); output.close();

    Read the article

  • Basic jUnit Questions

    - by Epitaph
    I was testing a String multiplier class with a multiply() method that takes 2 numbers as inputs (as String) and returns the result number (as String) `public String multiply(String num1, String num2); I have done the implementation and created a test class with the following test cases involving the input String parameter as 1) valid numbers 2) characters 3) special symbol 4) empty string 5) Null value 6) 0 7) Negative number 8) float 9) Boundary values 10) Numbers that are valid but their product is out of range 11) numbers will + sign (+23) 1) I'd like to know if "each and every" assertEquals() should be in it's own test method? Or, can I group similar test cases like testInvalidArguments() to contains all asserts involving invalid characters since ALL of them throw the same NumberFormatException ? 2) If testing an input value like character ("a"), do I need to include test cases for ALL scenarios? "a" as the first argument "a" as the second argument "a" and "b" as the 2 arguments 3) As per my understanding, the benefit of these unit tests is to find out the cases where the input from a user might fail and result in an exception. And, then we can give the user with a meaningful message (asking them to provide valid input) instead of an exception. Is that the correct? And, is it the only benefit? 4) Are the 11 test cases mentioned above sufficient? Did I miss something? Did I overdo? When is enough? 5) Following from the above point, have I successfully tested the multiply() method?

    Read the article

  • How to mmap the stack for the clone() system call on linux?

    - by Joseph Garvin
    The clone() system call on Linux takes a parameter pointing to the stack for the new created thread to use. The obvious way to do this is to simply malloc some space and pass that, but then you have to be sure you've malloc'd as much stack space as that thread will ever use (hard to predict). I remembered that when using pthreads I didn't have to do this, so I was curious what it did instead. I came across this site which explains, "The best solution, used by the Linux pthreads implementation, is to use mmap to allocate memory, with flags specifying a region of memory which is allocated as it is used. This way, memory is allocated for the stack as it is needed, and a segmentation violation will occur if the system is unable to allocate additional memory." The only context I've ever heard mmap used in is for mapping files into memory, and indeed reading the mmap man page it takes a file descriptor. How can this be used for allocating a stack of dynamic length to give to clone()? Is that site just crazy? ;) In either case, doesn't the kernel need to know how to find a free bunch of memory for a new stack anyway, since that's something it has to do all the time as the user launches new processes? Why does a stack pointer even need to be specified in the first place if the kernel can already figure this out?

    Read the article

  • PHP XML Strategy: Parsing DOM to fill "Bean"

    - by Mike
    I have a question concerning a good strategy on how to fill a data "bean" with data inside an xml file. The bean might look like this: class Person { var $id; var $forename = ""; var $surname = ""; var $bio = new Biography(); } class Biography { var $url = ""; var $id; } the xml subtree containing the info might look like this: <root> <!-- some more parent elements before node(s) of interest --> <person> <name pre="forename"> Foo </name> <name pre="surname"> Bar </name> <id> 1254 </id> <biography> <url> http://www.someurl.com </url> <id> 5488 </id> </biography> </person> </root> At the moment, I have one approach using DOMDocument. A method iterates over the entries and fills the bean by "remembering" the last node. I think thats not a good approach. What I have in mind is something like preconstructing some xpath expression(s) and then iterate over the subtrees/nodeLists. Return an array containing the beans as defined above eventually. However, it seems not to be possible reusing a subtree /DOMNode as DOMXPath constructor parameter. Has anyone of you encountered such a problem?

    Read the article

  • Access and modify attributes/objects which are not part of the form backing bean

    - by spa
    I use Spring MVC (via Spring Roo) to build a small web application for administering persons. In the page for creating a person the bean Person is used as form backing object (key "person" in the model map). <form:form action="${form_url}" method="POST" modelAttribute="person"> I would like to add some attributes to the model map which can be altered by the user in the creation form. Basically, I try to add a Boolean, so that I can control which page is displayed next after the user presses the submit button. I try to modify the Boolean (key "myBoolean" in the model map) using a simple checkbox: <form:checkbox id="_myboolean_id" path="myBoolean"/> However, as I am new to Spring MVC I have some difficulties here. The Boolean object is not an attribute of the form backing object. So if I try to access it the following exception is thrown (of course): Invalid property 'myBoolean' of bean class [de.cm.model.Person]: Bean property 'myBoolean' is not readable or has an invalid getter method: Does the return type of the getter match the parameter type of the setter? Is there are way to access a value of the model map directly? The only solution I can imagine right now is a kind of wrapper object around the class Person and my additional attributes which is used as a new form backing object. However, this is more work for a IMHO simple task. Do you have a better solution?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 227 228 229 230 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238  | Next Page >