Search Results

Search found 25727 results on 1030 pages for 'solution'.

Page 235/1030 | < Previous Page | 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242  | Next Page >

  • Ruby on Rails - pass variable to nested form

    - by Krule
    I am trying to build a multilingual site using Rails, but I can't figure out how to pass variable to nested form. Right now I am creating nested form like this. @languages.each do @article.article_locale.build(:language_id => language.id) end But i would like to pass value of language to it so i can distinguish fields. Something like this. @languages.each do |language| @language = language @article.article_locale.build(:language_id => language.id) end However, I always end up with language of the last loop iteration. Any way to pass this variable? -- edit -- In the end, since I've got no answer I have solved this problem so it, at least, works as it should. Following code is my partial solution. In model: def self.languages Language.all end def self.language_name language = [] self.languages.each_with_index do |lang, i| language[i] = lang.longname end return language end In Controller: def new @article = Article.new Article.languages.each do |language| @article.article_locale.build(:language_id => language.id) end end In HAML View: -count = 0 -f.fields_for :article_locale do |al| %h3= Article.language_name[count] -count+=1 -field_set_tag do %p =al.label :name, t(:name) =al.text_field :name %p =al.label :description, t(:description) =al.text_area :description =al.hidden_field :language_id It's not the most elegant solution I suppose, but it works. I would really love if I could get rid of counter in view for instance.

    Read the article

  • C++ Iterator Pipelining Designs

    - by Kirakun
    Suppose we want to apply a series of transformations, int f1(int), int f2(int), int f3(int), to a list of objects. A naive way would be SourceContainer source; TempContainer1 temp1; transform(source.begin(), source.end(), back_inserter(temp1), f1); TempContainer2 temp2; transform(temp1.begin(), temp1.end(), back_inserter(temp2), f2); TargetContainer target; transform(temp2.begin(), temp2.end(), back_inserter(target), f3); This first solution is not optimal because of the extra space requirement with temp1 and temp2. So, let's get smarter with this: int f123(int n) { return f3(f2(f1(n))); } ... SourceContainer source; TargetContainer target; transform(source.begin(), source.end(), back_inserter(target), f123); This second solution is much better because not only the code is simpler but more importantly there is less space requirement without the intermediate calculations. However, the composition f123 must be determined at compile time and thus is fixed at run time. How would I try to do this efficiently if the composition is to be determined at run time? For example, if this code was in a RPC service and the actual composition--which can be any permutation of f1, f2, and f3--is based on arguments from the RPC call.

    Read the article

  • How to draw a part of a window into a memory device context?

    - by Nell
    I'm using simple statements to keep it, er, simple: The screen goes from 0, 0 to 1000, 1000 (screen coordinates). A window goes from 100, 100 to 900, 900 (screen coordinates). I have a memory device context that goes from 0, 0 to 200, 200 (logical coordinates). I need to send a WM_PRINT message to the window. I can pass the device context to the window via WM_PRINT, but I cannot pass which part of its window it should draw into the device context. Is there some way to alter the device context that will result in the window drawing a specific part of itself into the device context (say, its bottom right portion from 700, 700 to 900, 900)? (This is all under plain old GDI and in C or C++. Any solution must be too.) Please note: This problem is part of a larger solution in which the device context size is fixed and speed is crucial, so I cannot draw the window in full into a separate device context and blit the part I want from the resultant full bitmap into my device context.

    Read the article

  • breaking datetime into constituent parts ASP.NET MVC form

    - by nick
    hi guys, i have searched the web relentlessly for this and have not found anything - which is surprising because i would think it is such a common scenario! Basically, on my model i have a DateTime field which i wish the user to populate through a form. I am using the Html helper to render all other parts of the form (along with validation) So this question is in two parts... Html Helper Firstly, is there any way to use the Html helper to split the DateTime field to be rendered as the three constituent parts of a date: day, month, year (since i do not care about the time part). This could be rendered as text boxes, drop down lists or a combination of both. Model Binding And then when the form is posted, what is the best approach for binding back up to the model? I have seen Scott Hanselmann's solution to this, but it seems a little bloated for what i need - i was hoping for a slightly more elegant solution. Is it recommended to extend DefaultModelBinder and set that as default binder (since all dates would be handled in this way) or write a class that implements IModelBionder and set it as the default binder for the DateTime type? Thanks for all the help in advance :-) i'm loving MVC but it's infuriating me that something so trivial is causing so much headaches!

    Read the article

  • Objective-C: alloc of object within init of another object (memory management)

    - by Stefan Klumpp
    In my .h file I have: NSMutableArray *myArray; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray *myArray; My .m file looks basically like this: @synthesize myArray; - (id) init { self = [super init]; if (self != nil) { self.myArray = .... ? // here I want to create an empty array } return self; } - (void) dealloc { [self.myArray release]; [super dealloc]; } What I'm not sure about is what do to in the init. 1) self.myArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; 2) NSMutableArray *tmp = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; self.myArray = tmp; [tmp release]; Solution 1 doesn't seem right to me, because of my @property (retain) setting I automatically increase the retain counter when setting self.myArray, but additionally I have already a "+1 retain" due to the [NSMutableArray alloc]. Thus the second solution seems more correct to me, even though it is cumbersome. Also am I wondering if self.myArray = ... is actually the same as [self setMyArray:...] and thus does increase the retain count.

    Read the article

  • Quickly accessing files in a 'project'

    - by bbbscarter
    Hi all. I'm looking for a way to quickly open files in my project's source tree. What I've been doing so far is adding files to the file-name-cache like so: (file-cache-add-directory-recursively (concat project-root "some/sub/folder") ".*\\.\\(py\\)$") after which I can use anything-for-files to access any file in the source tree with about 4 keystrokes. Unfortunately, this solution started falling over today. I've added another folder to the cache and emacs has started running out of memory. What's weird is that this folder contains less than 25% of files I'm adding, and yet emacs memory use goes up from 20mb to 400mb on adding just this folder. The total number of files is around 2000, so this memory use seems very high. Presumably I'm abusing the file cache. Anyway, what do other people do for this? I like this solution for its simplicity and speed; I've looked at some of the many, many project management packages for emacs and none of them really grabbed me... Thanks in advance! Simon

    Read the article

  • Help me refactor my World Cup Challenge Script

    - by kylemac
    I am setting up a World Cup Challenge between some friends, and decided to practice my Ruby and write a small script to automate the process. The Problem: 32 World Cup qualifiers split into 4 tiers by their Fifa ranking 8 entries Each entry is assigned 1 random team per tier Winner takes all :-) I wrote something that suffices yet is admittedly brute force. But, in my attempt to improve my Ruby, I acknowlege that this code isn't the most elegant solution around - So I turn to you, the experts, to show me the way. It may be more clear to check out this gist - https://gist.github.com/91e1f1c392bed8074531 My Current (poor) solution: require 'yaml' @teams = YAML::load(File.open('teams.yaml')) @players = %w[Player1 Player2 Player3 Player4 Player5 Player6 Player7 Player8] results = Hash.new players = @players.sort_by{rand} players.each_with_index do |p, i| results[p] = Array[@teams['teir_one'][i]] end second = @players.sort_by{rand} second.each_with_index do |p, i| results[p] << @teams['teir_two'][i] end third = @players.sort_by{rand} third.each_with_index do |p, i| results[p] << @teams['teir_three'][i] end fourth = @players.sort_by{rand} fourth.each_with_index do |p, i| results[p] << @teams['teir_four'][i] end p results I am sure there is a better way to iterate through the tiers, and duplicating the @players object ( dup() or clone() maybe?) So from one Cup Fan to another, help me out.

    Read the article

  • Can't authenticate mobile client with node.js (using passport.js)

    - by Pazinio
    I'm trying to build some CRUD application with node.js as a back-end API (express) and web-app (backbone) and mobile client (native android) as front-ends.(I'm node.js beginner) My server solution is based on the following great tutorial 'easy-node-authentication'. In my android app I have managed to get the user Google-Token after I completed the authentication step with Google Plus SDK.(mobile to google-plus directly request). I'm trying to understand and find right and elegant way to re-use a given google-token and authenticate again my android user through Google-Plus account to ensure the mobile client holds real token, then add a new entry (id, token, email, name) to my users table DB within my node back-end. The question is: what should be my next step in case I want to keep my back-end without changes? should I send a GET request with the token as a cookie to /auth/google? maybe to /auth/google/callback? another URL? Does this make sense at all? Please note: I'm aware to the fact the mentioned above 'easy-node-auth' solution is based on sessions and cookies. having said that, i'm still trying to understand if there is a convenient way to integrate both (android and node) as it works good for my web-app and node. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Facebook Connect: Permissions Error [200] using "stream.publish" with PHP

    - by Sarah
    Hi all, I've been implementing Facebook Connect into a site and am using both the PHP API, to allow me to automatically post data to a user's wall, as well as the JS API, for manual posting, permissions dialogs, etc. When the user uses the manual method it works 100%...the popups are displayed correctly, and the data gets posted to their wall properly. However, when I try to use the PHP API I am getting inconsistencies. When I try posting automatically using the PHP API using one account it works perfect, every time. But for some other accounts it never works, always returning "Permissions error." The error code is 200, and I've checked the Facebook API documentation and it's pretty vague, saying only "Permissions error. The application does not have permission to perform this action." But that's not true, since it works on some accounts and doesn't work on others. First, I've made sure that the users in question have enabled the extended permission "publish_stream" and that the manual method using the JS API works, so it doesn't seem to be a problem with those specific permissions. There are no apparent differences between the Facebook accounts I've used. So my question is has anyone run into this problem and found a solution to it? Is there some sort of other permission setting that users must enable for this to work? I've been searching Google and these forums but have not found any solution. The request I am sending is: (Note: The content/image url/link url are not the actual data I use) $attachment = array( 'caption' => '{*actor*} commented on <title> "<comment>"', 'media' => array( array( 'type' => 'image', 'src' => 'http://www.test.com/image.jpg', 'href' => 'http://www.test.com' ) ) ); $Facebook->api_client->stream_publish('', $attachment); Thanks, Sarah

    Read the article

  • C++: inheritance problem

    - by Helltone
    It's quite hard to explain what I'm trying to do, I'll try: Imagine a base class A which contains some variables, and a set of classes deriving from A which all implement some method bool test() that operates on the variables inherited from A. class A { protected: int somevar; // ... }; class B : public A { public: bool test() { return (somevar == 42); } }; class C : public A { public: bool test() { return (somevar > 23); } }; // ... more classes deriving from A Now I have an instance of class A and I have set the value of somevar. int main(int, char* []) { A a; a.somevar = 42; Now, I need some kind of container that allows me to iterate over the elements i of this container, calling i::test() in the context of a... that is: std::vector<...> vec; // push B and C into vec, this is pseudo-code vec.push_back(&B); vec.push_back(&C); bool ret = true; for(i = vec.begin(); i != vec.end(); ++i) { // call B::test(), C::test(), setting *this to a ret &= ( a .* (&(*i)::test) )(); } return ret; } How can I do this? I've tried two methods: forcing a cast from B::* to A::*, adapting a pointer to call a method of a type on an object of a different type (works, but seems to be bad); using std::bind + the solution above, ugly hack; changing the signature of bool test() so that it takes an argument of type const A& instead of inheriting from A, I don't really like this solution because somevar must be public.

    Read the article

  • Retain numerical precision in an R data frame?

    - by David
    When I create a dataframe from numeric vectors, R seems to truncate the value below the precision that I require in my analysis: data.frame(x=0.99999996) returns 1 (see update 1) I am stuck when fitting spline(x,y) and two of the x values are set to 1 due to rounding while y changes. I could hack around this but I would prefer to use a standard solution if available. example Here is an example data set d <- data.frame(x = c(0.668732936336141, 0.95351462456867, 0.994620622127435, 0.999602102672081, 0.999987126195509, 0.999999955814133, 0.999999999999966), y = c(38.3026509783688, 11.5895099585560, 10.0443344234229, 9.86152339768516, 9.84461434575695, 9.81648333804257, 9.83306725758297)) The following solution works, but I would prefer something that is less subjective: plot(d$x, d$y, ylim=c(0,50)) lines(spline(d$x, d$y),col='grey') #bad fit lines(spline(d[-c(4:6),]$x, d[-c(4:6),]$y),col='red') #reasonable fit Update 1 Since posting this question, I realize that this will return 1 even though the data frame still contains the original value, e.g. > dput(data.frame(x=0.99999999996)) returns structure(list(x = 0.99999999996), .Names = "x", row.names = c(NA, -1L), class = "data.frame") Update 2 After using dput to post this example data set, and some pointers from Dirk, I can see that the problem is not in the truncation of the x values but the limits of the numerical errors in the model that I have used to calculate y. This justifies dropping a few of the equivalent data points (as in the example red line).

    Read the article

  • Loading GWT Messages from a Database

    - by Lars Tackmann
    In GWT one typically loads i18n strings using a interface like this: public interface StatusMessage extends Messages { String error(String username); : } which then loads the actual strings from a StatusMessage.property file: error=User: {0} does not have access to resource This is a great solution, however my client is unbendable in his demand for putting the i18n strings in a database so they can be changed at runtime (though its not a requirement that they be changed realtime). One solution is to create a async service which takes a message ID and user locale and returns a string. I have implemented this and find it terribly ugly (and it introduces a huge amount of extra communication with the server, plus it makes property placeholder replacement rather complicated). So my question is this, can I in some nice way implement a custom message provider that loads the messages from the backend in one big swoop (for the current user session). If it can also hook into the default GWT message mechanism, then I would be completely happy (i.e. so I can create a interface like above and keep using the the nice {0}, {1}... property replacement format). Other suggestions for clean database driven messages in GWT are also welcome.

    Read the article

  • Suitable data structures for saving files in localStorage (HTML5) ?

    - by WmasterJ
    It is nice when there isn't a DB to maintain and users to authenticate. My professor has asked me to convert a recent research project of his that uses Bespin and calculates errors made by users in a code editor as part of his research. The goal is to convert from MySQL to using HTML5 localStorage completely. Doesn't seem so hard to do, even though digging in his code might take some time. Question: I need to store files and state (last placement of cursor and active file). I have already done so by implementing the recommendations in another stackoverflow thread. But would like your input considering how to structure the content to use. My current solution Hashmap like solution with javascript objects: files = {}; // later, saving files[fileName] = data; And then storing in localStorage using some recommendations localStorage.setObject("files", files); // Note that setObject(key, data) does not exist but is added // using Storage.prototype.setObject = function() {... Currently I'm also considering using some type of numeric id. So that names can be changed without any hassle renaming the key in the hashmap. What is your opinion on the way it is solved and would you do it any differently?

    Read the article

  • How to create a desktop shortcut to a website with website logo as icon?

    - by Wbdvlpr
    Hi I need a solution which allows users to create a desktop shortcut to a website, preferably with website logo as shortcut icon. There are ways users can create shortcut such as drag drop favicon or right click create new shortcut etc. This works but also creates the shortcut with default IE icon on windows. I am trying to avoid this method for this icon and some other reasons. I thought of creating a website-title.URL file, and tell users to download and save file to their desktop, again this works but doesn't solve the icon problem as the website logo (.ico) has to be at local disk and at a pre-specified location [IconFile=path]. I was wondering if it is possible to create a some sort of installer or windows application which users can download from the website. Once its executed by user, it creates this .URL file on user desktop which have IconFile path pre-specified, and copy the website-logo.ico at path specified in .URL file etc. So my questions are - Is it possible to create such a solution? What programming languages can be used to achieve this? Can this installer/app be made to work on non-windows machines as well? From developments point of view how big project it is? if I have to hire a programmer to do this. Please let me know if you need more information. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Images not shown when publishing MVC application to virtual directory inside default web-site

    - by Michael Sagalovich
    Hi! I am developing an application using ASP.NET MVC 1 and VS2008. When I deploy it to the default web-site in my IIS6 on WinXP, all images are shown correctly, path to any given image is localhost/Content/ImagesUI/[image].[ext] When I deploy it to the virtual directory, created inside the same site, any image request returns IIS standard 404 error page, while the path is localhost/[DirectoryName]/Content/ImagesUI/[image].[ext] - that seems to be correct, true? I am mapping .* to c:\windows\microsoft.net\framework\v2.0.50727\aspnet_isapi.dll in both site and directory configurations. When this mapping is removed, images are shown correctly. However, all other URLs do not work, of course. When I am trying to open an image in browser using the URL to it, aspnet_wp.exe process is not even started (I restarted IIS to test it) - I merely get 404 or the image, depending on the presence of * mapping. Thus, I suppose it has nothing to do neither with routes registered for MVC, nor with ASP. The solution that I found is to make Content folder a virtual directory and remove * mapping from its configuration. While that's OK to some extent, I want a better solution, which will explain and eliminate the cause of the problem, not just workaround it. Thanks for your help!

    Read the article

  • Change URL Submitted to Depending on Form Selection

    - by Chris
    I have a form which I need to submit to one of three different URLs depending on a selection made in the form. I suspect the easiest solution is to use jQuery to insert the appropriate path before the rest of the form parameters as the selection is made, but not sure on what the code would be. Any pointers greratly appreciated! <form id="myForm" action='/booking/default-path' accept-charset='utf-8' method='get'> <select name="paramA" id="paramA"> <option id="optionA" value="A" selected="selected">Option A</option> <option id="optionB" value="B">Option B</option> </select> <select name="currency" id="currency"> <option id="GBP" value="GBP" selected="selected">British Pounds</option> <option id="EUR" value="EUR">Euros</option> <option id="USD" value="USD">US Dollars</option> </select> <input type="submit" value="submit" id="submit" name="submit" /> </form> Where the three different URLs would be: ../booking/default-path-gbp?...[params here]... ../booking/default-path-eur?...[params here]... ../booking/default-path-usd?...[params here]... I know it would be a lot easier to incorporate the parameter in the usual way and just use one submission URL root, but unfortunately I'm submitting to an eComms system out of my control and am stuck with having to find a solution to this. Should be easy I think, but not sure where to start, jQuery used elsewhere, so would prefer to use this framework in any solutions.

    Read the article

  • Deleting list items via ProcessBatchData()

    - by q-tuyen
    You can build a batch string to delete all of the items from a SharePoint list like this: 1: //create new StringBuilder 2: StringBuilder batchString= new StringBuilder(); 3: 4: //add the main text to the stringbuilder 5: batchString.Append(""); 6: 7: //add each item to the batch string and give it a command Delete 8: foreach (SPListItem item in itemCollection) 9: { 10: //create a new method section 11: batchString.Append(""); 12: //insert the listid to know where to delete from 13: batchString.Append("" + Convert.ToString(item.ParentList.ID) + ""); 14: //the item to delete 15: batchString.Append("" + Convert.ToString(item.ID) + ""); 16: //set the action you would like to preform 17: batchString.Append("Delete"); 18: //close the method section 19: batchString.Append(""); 20: } 21: 22: //close the batch section 23: batchString.Append(""); 24: 25: //preform the batch 26: SPContext.Current.Web.ProcessBatchData(batchString.ToString()); The only disadvantage that I can think of right know is that all the items you delete will be put in the recycle bin. How can I prevent that? I also found the solution like below: // web is a the SPWeb object your lists belong to // Before starting your deletion web.Site.WebApplication.RecycleBinEnabled = false; // When your are finished re-enable it web.Site.WebApplication.RecycleBinEnabled = true; Ref [Here](http://www.entwicklungsgedanken.de/2008/04/02/how-to-speed-up-the-deletion-of-large-amounts-of-list-items-within-sharepoint/) But the disadvantage of that solution is that only future deletion will not be sent to the Recycle Bins but it will delete all existing items as well which user do not want. Any idea to prevent not to delete existing items? Many thanks in advance, TQT

    Read the article

  • Why aren't variables declared in "try" in scope in "catch" or "finally"?

    - by Jon Schneider
    In C# and in Java (and possibly other languages as well), variables declared in a "try" block are not in scope in the corresponding "catch" or "finally" blocks. For example, the following code does not compile: try { String s = "test"; // (more code...) } catch { Console.Out.WriteLine(s); //Java fans: think "System.out.println" here instead } In this code, a compile-time error occurs on the reference to s in the catch block, because s is only in scope in the try block. (In Java, the compile error is "s cannot be resolved"; in C#, it's "The name 's' does not exist in the current context".) The general solution to this issue seems to be to instead declare variables just before the try block, instead of within the try block: String s; try { s = "test"; // (more code...) } catch { Console.Out.WriteLine(s); //Java fans: think "System.out.println" here instead } However, at least to me, (1) this feels like a clunky solution, and (2) it results in the variables having a larger scope than the programmer intended (the entire remainder of the method, instead of only in the context of the try-catch-finally). My question is, what were/are the rationale(s) behind this language design decision (in Java, in C#, and/or in any other applicable languages)?

    Read the article

  • What's the best practice for handling system-specific information under version control?

    - by Joe
    I'm new to version control, so I apologize if there is a well-known solution to this. For this problem in particular, I'm using git, but I'm curious about how to deal with this for all version control systems. I'm developing a web application on a development server. I have defined the absolute path name to the web application (not the document root) in two places. On the production server, this path is different. I'm confused about how to deal with this. I could either: Reconfigure the development server to share the same path as the production Edit the two occurrences each time production is updated. I don't like #1 because I'd rather keep the application flexible for any future changes. I don't like #2 because if I start developing on a second development server with a third path, I would have to change this for every commit and update. What is the best way to handle this? I thought of: Using custom keywords and variable expansion (such as setting the property $PATH$ in the version control properties and having it expanded in all the files). Git doesn't support this because it would be a huge performance hit. Using post-update and pre-commit hooks. Possibly the likely solution for git, but every time I looked at the status, it would report the two files as being changed. Not really clean. Pulling the path from a config file outside of version control. Then I would have to have the config file in the same location on all servers. Might as well just have the same path to begin with. Is there an easy way to deal with this? Am I over thinking it?

    Read the article

  • I have a bunch of template parameters that I want to hide from my users. How can I do this?

    - by Alex
    I have a superclass which is defined in terms of a few internal types it uses. Subclassing is performed as so: template <class InternalType1, class InternalType2> class Super { ... } class Sub : Super <interalTypeClass1, interalTypeClass2> { ... } But when I want to write a function that takes a pointer to the superclass, this happens : template <class InternalType1, class InternalType2> void function(Super<InternalType1, InternalType2>* in) { ... } The user really shouldn't know anything about the inside classes, and should really just concern himself with the use of the function. Some of these template lists become very very large, and expecting the user to pass them every time is wasteful, in my opinion. Any suggestions? EDIT: The function needs to know the internal types in use, so unless there is a way to access template types at compile time, I think there is no solution? Potential solution: Have each class do the following: #define SubTemplateArgs <SubTypeName, SubInternalType1, SubInternalType2> ?

    Read the article

  • Undefined Variable? But I defined it...

    - by Rob
    Well before anyone claims that theres a duplicate question... (I've noticed that people who can't answer the question tend to run and look for a duplicate, and then report it.) Here is the duplicate you are looking for: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2481382/php-claims-my-defined-variable-is-undefined However, this isn't quite a duplicate. It gives me a solution, but I'm not really looking for this particular solution. Here is my problem: Notice: Undefined variable: custom Now here is my code: $headers = apache_request_headers(); // Request the visitor's headers. $customheader = "Header: 7ddb6ffab28bb675215a7d6e31cfc759"; //This is what the header should be. foreach ($headers as $header => $value) { $custom .= "$header: $value"; } Clearly, $custom is defined. According to the other question, it's a global and should be marked as one. But how is it a global? And how can I make it a (non-global)? The script works fine, it still displays what its supposed to and acts correctly, but when I turn on error messages, it simply outputs that notice as well. I suppose its not currently necessary to fix it, but I'd like to anyway, as well as know why its doing this.

    Read the article

  • efficient thread-safe singleton in C++

    - by user168715
    The usual pattern for a singleton class is something like static Foo &getInst() { static Foo *inst = NULL; if(inst == NULL) inst = new Foo(...); return *inst; } However, it's my understanding that this solution is not thread-safe, since 1) Foo's constructor might be called more than once (which may or may not matter) and 2) inst may not be fully constructed before it is returned to a different thread. One solution is to wrap a mutex around the whole method, but then I'm paying for synchronization overhead long after I actually need it. An alternative is something like static Foo &getInst() { static Foo *inst = NULL; if(inst == NULL) { pthread_mutex_lock(&mutex); if(inst == NULL) inst = new Foo(...); pthread_mutex_unlock(&mutex); } return *inst; } Is this the right way to do it, or are there any pitfalls I should be aware of? For instance, are there any static initialization order problems that might occur, i.e. is inst always guaranteed to be NULL the first time getInst is called?

    Read the article

  • Convert a binary tree to linked list, breadth first, constant storage/destructive

    - by Merlyn Morgan-Graham
    This is not homework, and I don't need to answer it, but now I have become obsessed :) The problem is: Design an algorithm to destructively flatten a binary tree to a linked list, breadth-first. Okay, easy enough. Just build a queue, and do what you have to. That was the warm-up. Now, implement it with constant storage (recursion, if you can figure out an answer using it, is logarithmic storage, not constant). I found a solution to this problem on the Internet about a year back, but now I've forgotten it, and I want to know :) The trick, as far as I remember, involved using the tree to implement the queue, taking advantage of the destructive nature of the algorithm. When you are linking the list, you are also pushing an item into the queue. Each time I try to solve this, I lose nodes (such as each time I link the next node/add to the queue), I require extra storage, or I can't figure out the convoluted method I need to get back to a node that has the pointer I need. Even the link to that original article/post would be useful to me :) Google is giving me no joy. Edit: Jérémie pointed out that there is a fairly simple (and well known answer) if you have a parent pointer. While I now think he is correct about the original solution containing a parent pointer, I really wanted to solve the problem without it :) The refined requirements use this definition for the node: struct tree_node { int value; tree_node* left; tree_node* right; };

    Read the article

  • Click at specified client area

    - by VixinG
    Click doesn't work - I don't know why and can't find a solution :( ie. Click(150,215) should move mouse to the client area and click there. [DllImport("user32.dll")] private static extern bool ScreenToClient(IntPtr hWnd, ref Point lpPoint); [DllImport("user32", SetLastError = true)] private static extern int SetCursorPos(int x, int y); static void MouseMove(int x, int y) { Point p = new Point(x * -1, y * -1); ScreenToClient(hWnd, ref p); p = new Point(p.X * -1, p.Y * -1); SetCursorPos(p.X, p.Y); } static void Click(int x, int y) { MouseMove(x, y); SendMessage(hWnd, WM_LBUTTONDOWN, (IntPtr)0x1, new IntPtr(y * 0x10000 + x)); SendMessage(hWnd, WM_LBUTTONUP, (IntPtr)0x1, new IntPtr(y * 0x10000 + x)); } Edit: Of course I can use mouse_event for that, but I would like to see a solution for SendMessage()... [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern void mouse_event(int dwFlags, int dx, int dy, int dwData, int dwExtraInfo); const int LEFTDOWN = 0x00000002; const int LEFTUP = 0x00000004; static void Click(int x, int y) { MouseMove(x, y); mouse_event((int)(LEFTDOWN), 0, 0, 0, 0); mouse_event((int)(LEFTUP), 0, 0, 0, 0); }

    Read the article

  • lists searches in SYB or uniplate haskell

    - by Chris
    I have been using uniplate and SYB and I am trying to transform a list For instance type Tree = [DataA] data DataA = DataA1 [DataB] | DataA2 String | DataA3 String [DataA] deriving Show data DataB = DataB1 [DataA] | DataB2 String | DataB3 String [DataB] deriving Show For instance, I would like to traverse my tree and append a value to all [DataB] So my first thought was to do this: changeDataB:: Tree -> Tree changeDataB = everywhere(mkT changeDataB') chanegDataB'::[DataB] -> [DataB] changeDataB' <add changes here> or if I was using uniplate changeDataB:: Tree -> Tree changeDataB = transformBi changeDataB' chanegDataB'::[DataB] -> [DataB] changeDataB' <add changes here> The problem is that I only want to search on the full list. Doing either of these searches will cause a search on the full list and all of the sub-lists (including the empty list) The other problem is that a value in [DataB] may generate a [DataB], so I don't know if this is the same kind of solution as not searching chars in a string. I could pattern match on DataA1 and DataB3, but in my real application there are a bunch of [DataB]. Pattern matching on the parents would be extensive. The other thought that I had was to create a data DataBs = [DataB] and use that to transform on. That seems kind of lame, there must be a better solution.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242  | Next Page >