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  • TinyMCE is glitchy in IE8

    - by Force Flow
    I'm using the jQuery version of TinyMCE 3.3.9.3 In firefox, it works fine (10 sec video depicting it in use): http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=TrAE0igfT3I In IE8 (in IE8 standards mode), I can't type or click any buttons. However, if I use ctrl+v to paste, then I can start typing, but the buttons still don't work (a 45 sec video depicting it in use): http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=iBSRlE8D8F4 The jQuery TinyMCE demo on TinyMCE's site works for me in IE8. Here's the init code: $().ready(function(){ function tinymce_focus(){ $('.defaultSkin table.mceLayout').css({'border-color' : '#6478D7'}); $('.defaultSkin table.mceLayout tr.mceFirst td').css({'border-top-color' : '#6478D7'}); $('.defaultSkin table.mceLayout tr.mceLast td').css({'border-bottom-color' : '#6478D7'}); } function tinymce_blur(){ $('.defaultSkin table.mceLayout').css({'border-color' : '#93a6e1'}); $('.defaultSkin table.mceLayout tr.mceFirst td').css({'border-top-color' : '#93a6e1'}); $('.defaultSkin table.mceLayout tr.mceLast td').css({'border-bottom-color' : '#93a6e1'}); } $('textarea.tinymce').tinymce({ script_url : 'JS/tinymce/tiny_mce.js', theme : "advanced", mode : "exact", theme : "advanced", invalid_elements : "b,i,iframe,font,input,textarea,select,button,form,fieldset,legend,script,noscript,object,embed,table,img,a,h1,h2,h3,h4,h5,h6", //theme options theme_advanced_buttons1 : "cut,copy,paste,pastetext,pasteword,selectall,|,undo,redo,|,cleanup,removeformat,|", theme_advanced_buttons2 : "bold,italic,underline,|,bullist,numlist,|,forecolor,backcolor,|", theme_advanced_buttons3 : "", theme_advanced_buttons4 : "", theme_advanced_toolbar_location : "top", theme_advanced_toolbar_align : "left", theme_advanced_statusbar_location : "none", theme_advanced_resizing : false, //plugins plugins : "inlinepopups,paste", dialog_type : "modal", paste_auto_cleanup_on_paste : true, setup: function(ed){ ed.onInit.add(function(ed){ //check for addEventListener -- primarily supported by firefox only var edDoc = ed.getDoc(); if ("addEventListener" in edDoc){ edDoc.addEventListener("focus", function(){ tinymce_focus(); }, false); edDoc.addEventListener("blur", function(){ tinymce_blur(); }, false); } }); } }); }); Any ideas as to why it's not working in IE8?

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  • Don't Understand Sql Server Error

    - by Jonathan Wood
    I have a table of users (User), and need to create a new table to track which users have referred other users. So, basically, I'm creating a many-to-many relation between rows in the same table. So I'm trying to create table UserReferrals with the columns UserId and UserReferredId. I made both columns a compound primary key. And both columns are foreign keys that link to User.UserID. Since deleting a user should also delete the relationship, I set both foreign keys to cascade deletes. When the user is deleted, any related rows in UserReferrals should also delete. But this gives me the message: 'User' table saved successfully 'UserReferrals' table Unable to create relationship 'FK_UserReferrals_User'. Introducing FOREIGN KEY constraint 'FK_UserReferrals_User' on table 'UserReferrals' may cause cycles or multiple cascade paths. Specify ON DELETE NO ACTION or ON UPDATE NO ACTION, or modify other FOREIGN KEY constraints. Could not create constraint. See previous errors. I don't get this error. A cascading delete only deletes the row with the foreign key, right? So how can it cause "cycling cascade paths"? Thanks for any tips.

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  • is it possible to add DataRelation to DataSet if child table contains rows that have no parent in pa

    - by matti
    If I fill the DataSet with DataAdapters that select all rows from Orders and Customers and call: private void CreateRelation() { // Get the DataColumn objects from two DataTable objects // in a DataSet. Code to get the DataSet not shown here. DataColumn parentColumn = DataSet1.Tables["Customers"].Columns["CustID"]; DataColumn childColumn = DataSet1.Tables["Orders"].Columns["CustID"]; // Create DataRelation. DataRelation relCustOrder; relCustOrder = new DataRelation("CustomersOrders", parentColumn, childColumn); // Add the relation to the DataSet. DataSet1.Relations.Add(relCustOrder); } (from http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.data.datarelation.aspx) there will be a runtime error if there is orders that do not have customers. This might happen when a buggy program has not deleted customer's orders when customer was deleted. What can I do except put Orders select string a additional where-condition: CUSTID IN (SELECT DISTINCT CUSTID FROM CUSTOMERS) OR: is it really that way (that all children have to have parents)? My code might have a bug also. The exception occurs when IN MY CODE I add the relation to filled DataSet. The exception is: An unhandled exception of type 'System.ArgumentException' occurred in System.Data.dll Additional information: This constraint cannot be enabled as not all values have corresponding parent values. Thanks & Best Regards - Matti

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  • How Can I Prevent Memory Leaks in IE Mobile?

    - by Jake Howlett
    Hi All, I've written an application for use offline (with Google Gears) on devices using IE Mobile. The devices are experiencing memory leaks at such a rate that the device becomes unusable over time. The problem page fetches entries from the local Gears database and renders a table of each entry with a link in the last column of each row to open the entry ( the link is just onclick="open('myID')" ). When they've done with the entry they return to the table, which is RE-rendered. It's the repeated building of this table that appears to be the problem. Mainly the onclick events. The table is generated in essence like this: var tmp=""; for (var i=0; i<100; i++){ tmp+="<tr><td>row "+i+"</td><td><a href=\"#\" id=\"LINK-"+i+"\""+ " onclick=\"afunction();return false;\">link</a></td></tr>"; } document.getElementById('view').innerHTML = "<table>"+tmp+"</table>"; I've read up on common causes of memory leaks and tried setting the onclick event for each link to "null" before re-rendering the table but it still seems to leak. Anybody got any ideas? In case it matters, the function being called from each link looks like this: function afunction(){ document.getElementById('view').style.display="none"; } Would that constitute a circular reference in any way? Jake

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  • Need to find current connections in mysql media server log table.

    - by Roger
    Hi, I have a media server logging to a mysql database and it records a seperate row for each connect, play, stop, disconnect event. What I would like to do is find connect events that do not have a related disconnect event or play events that do not have a related stop event. date time category event clientId stream streamId =============================================================================== 2010-04-21 10:30:00 session connect 1 2010-04-21 10:30:05 stream start 1 stream1 1 2010-04-21 10:35:00 stream stop 1 stream1 1 2010-04-21 10:35:00 session disconnect 1 2010-04-21 10:35:00 session connect 2 2010-04-21 10:35:05 stream start 2 stream2 1 2010-04-21 10:35:08 session connect 3 2010-04-21 10:35:13 stream start 3 stream1 1 2010-04-21 10:37:05 stream stop 2 stream2 1 2010-04-21 10:37:10 stream start 2 stream1 2 I would like to be able to get a total of current sessions and in a seperate query, a total of current streams being played. Thanks, Roger.

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  • NHibernate HiLo generation and SQL 2005/8 Schemas

    - by Kirk Clawson
    I have an issue on my hands that I've spent several days searching for an answer to no avail... We're using HiLo Id generation, and everything seems to be working fine, as long as the entity table is in the same schema as the hibernate_unique_key table. The table structure is pretty simple. I have my hi value table in the db as dbo.hibernate_unique_key. Several entity table are also in the dbo schema, and they work without issue. Then we have tables under the "Contact" schema (such as Contact.Person and Contact.Address). In the Person Mapping file: <class name="Person" table="Person" schema="Contact"> <id name="Id" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="hilo"> <param name="max_lo">100</param> </generator> </id> ... When I try to insert a Person entity, I get an error of "Invalid object name 'Contact.hibernate_unique_key'. That error is certainly clear enough. So I add: <param name="schema">dbo</param> to my mapping file/generator element. Now, when the SessionFactory is built, I get a "An item with the same key has already been added." error. So now I'm a bit stuck. I can't leave the HiLo generator without a schema, because it picks up the schema from the Class, and I can't specify the schema because it's already been added (presumably because it's my "default_schema" as identified in my XML cfg file). Am I completely hosed here? Must I either A) Keep all my tables in the dbo schema or B) Create a separate HiLo Key table for each unique schema in the DB? Neither of those scenarios is particularly palatable for my application, so I'm hoping that I can "fix" my mapping files to address this issue.

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  • Can't change pivot table's Access data source - bug in Excel 2000 SP3?

    - by Ron West
    I have a set of Excel 2000 SP3 worksheets that have Pivot Tables that get data from an Access 2000 SP3 database created by a contractor who left our company. Unfortunately, he did all his work on his private area on the company (Novell) network and now that he has left us, the drive spec has been deleted and is invalid. We were able to get the database files restored to our network area by our IT Service Desk people, but we now have to re-link everything to point to our group area instead of the now-nonexistent private area. If I follow the advice given elsewhere on this site (open wizard, click 'Back' to get to 'Step 2 of 3', click 'Get Data...' I get a message that the old filespec is an invalid path and I need to check that the path name is invalid and that I am connected to the server on which the file resides. I then click on OK and get a Login dialog with a 'Database...' button on the right. I click this and get a 'Select Database' dialog which allows me to choose the appropriate database in its correct new location. I then click OK, which takes me back to the 'Login' screen. I can confirm that it has accepted my new location by clicking on 'Database...' as before and the NEW location is still shown. So far so good - but if I then click on OK I get two unhelpful messages - first I get one saying that Excel 'Could not use '|'; file already in use.' - although no other files are in use. Clicking on OK takes me back to the 'Login' dialog. Clicking OK again gives me the same message as before telling me that the OLD filespec is invalid (as if I hadn't changed anything) - but clicking on the 'Database...' button shows that the correct (NEW) database location is still selected. Can anyone tell me a way of using VBA to change the link information without having to spend hours fighting the PivotTable Wizard - preferably similar to this way you update an Access Tabledef:- db.TableDefs(strLinkName).Connect = strNewLink db.TableDefs(strLinkName).RefreshLink Thanks!

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  • "The specified table does not exist" - for the administrator it does! Vista only issue

    - by Simon Nunn
    Hello, I've got a weird bug occurring in a compact database on a Vista deployment machine. Basically the sdf file seem to be schizophrenic. The client application get the entitled error when running as a user but not when I use run as administrator. I don't see this problem on my XP development machine. I installed management studio onto the deployment machine and opened two versions of the application, one as user and one as administrator. When I query: SELECT TABLE_NAME FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES I see 21 tables on the one and 26 on the other, and the administrator is seeing less tables. It turns out that the user version, with 26 rows, is a previous incarnation of this database. Any ideas on why this is happening?

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  • Auto width on tables

    - by Hulk
    A html table cols and rows are generated dynamically, i.e, for the first instance it could be two rows and there columns. and next time it could be two rows and 10 columns My question is how to adjust the with automatically of the table so that the table always appears 100% in the page adjusting the coulmn size and row size <table> <tr><td></td><td></td><td></td></tr> <tr><td></td><td></td><td></td></tr> </table> <table> <tr><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td></tr> <tr><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td></tr> <tr><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td></tr> </table> Thanks..

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  • Single value data to multiple values of data in database relation

    - by Sofiane Merah
    I have such a hard time picturing this. I just don't have the brain to do it. I have a table called reports. --------------------------------------------- | report_id | set_of_bads | field1 | field2 | --------------------------------------------- | 123 | set1 | qwe | qwe | --------------------------------------------- | 321 | 123112 | ewq | ewq | --------------------------------------------- I have another table called bads. This table contains a list of bad data. ------------------------------------- | bad_id | set_it_belongs_to | field2 | field3 | ------------------------------------- | 1 | set1 | qwe | qwe | ------------------------------------- | 2 | set1 | qee | tte | ------------------------------------- | 3 | set1 | q44w | 3qwe | ------------------------------------- | 4 | 234 | qoow | 3qwe | ------------------------------------- Now I have set the first field of every table as the primary key. My question is, how do I connect the field set_of_bads to set_it_belongs_to in the bads table. This way if I want to get the entire set of data that is set1 by calling on the reports table I can do it. Example: hey reports table.. bring up the row that has the report_id 123. Okay thank you.. Now get all the rows from bads that has the set_of_bads value from the row with the report_id 123. Thanks.

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  • mysql database normalization question

    - by Chocho
    here is my 3 tables: table 1 -- stores user information and it has unique data table 2 -- stores place category such as, toronto, ny, london, etc hence this is is also unique table 3 -- has duplicate information. it stores all the places a user have been. the 3 tables are linked or joined by these ids: table 1 has an "table1_id" table 2 has an "table2_id" and "place_name" table 3 has an "table3_id", "table1_id", "place_name" i have an interface where an admin sees all users. beside a user is "edit" button. clicking on that edit button allows you to edit a specific user in a form fields which has a multiple drop down box for "places". if an admin edits a user and add 1 "places" for the user, i insert that information using php. if the admin decides to deselect that 1 "places" do i delete it or mark it as on and off? how about if the admin decides to select 2 "places" for the user; change the first "places" and add an additional "places". will my table just keep growing and will i have just redundant information? thanks.

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  • showing null rows using join

    - by Pradyut Bhattacharya
    Hi, In mysql i m selecting from a table shouts having a foreign key to another table named "roleuser" with the matching column as user_id Now the user_id column in the shouts table for some rows is null (not actually null but with no inserts in mysql) How to show all the rows of the shouts table either with user_id null or not I m executing the sql statement SELECT s.*, r.firstname, r.lastname FROM shouts s left join roleuser r where r.user_id = s.user_id limit 50; which does not executes and shows You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near 'where r.user_id = s.user_id limit 50' at line 2 but using inner join the sql executes which shows rows which only have user_id values in the shouts table. the nulls are not shown. SELECT s.*, r.firstname, r.lastname FROM shouts s inner join roleuser r where r.user_id = s.user_id limit 50; How can i show all the rows from the shouts table and null values in the firstname and lastname columns where the user_id is null in the shouts table. If not at all possible with sql may be using stored procedures... Thanks Pradyut

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  • database design to speed up hibernate querying of large dataset

    - by paddydub
    I currently have the below tables representing a bus network mapped in hibernate, accessed from a Spring MVC based bus route planner I'm trying to make my route planner application perform faster, I load all the above tables into Lists to perform the route planner logic. I would appreciate if anyone has any ideas of how to speed my performace Or any suggestions of another method to approach this problem of handling a large set of data Coordinate Connections Table (INT,INT,INT)( Containing 50,000 Coordinate Connections) ID, FROMCOORDID, TOCOORDID 1 1 2 2 1 17 3 1 63 4 1 64 5 1 65 6 1 95 Coordinate Table (INT,DECIMAL, DECIMAL) (Containing 4700 Coordinates) ID , LAT, LNG 0 59.352669 -7.264341 1 59.352669 -7.264341 2 59.350012 -7.260653 3 59.337585 -7.189798 4 59.339221 -7.193582 5 59.341408 -7.205888 Bus Stop Table (INT, INT, INT)(Containing 15000 Stops) StopID RouteID COORDINATEID 1000100001 100 17 1000100002 100 18 1000100003 100 19 1000100004 100 20 1000100005 100 21 1000100006 100 22 1000100007 100 23 This is how long it takes to load all the data from each table: stop.findAll = 148ms, stops.size: 15670 Hibernate: select coordinate0_.COORDINATEID as COORDINA1_2_, coordinate0_.LAT as LAT2_, coordinate0_.LNG as LNG2_ from COORDINATES coordinate0_ coord.findAll = 51ms , coordinates.size: 4704 Hibernate: select coordconne0_.COORDCONNECTIONID as COORDCON1_3_, coordconne0_.DISTANCE as DISTANCE3_, coordconne0_.FROMCOORDID as FROMCOOR3_3_, coordconne0_.TOCOORDID as TOCOORDID3_ from COORDCONNECTIONS coordconne0_ coordinateConnectionDao.findAll = 238ms ; coordConnectioninates.size:48132 Hibernate Annotations @Entity @Table(name = "STOPS") public class Stop implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue @Column(name = "COORDINATEID") private Integer CoordinateID; @Column(name = "LAT") private double latitude; @Column(name = "LNG") private double longitude; } @Table(name = "COORDINATES") public class Coordinate { @Id @GeneratedValue @Column(name = "COORDINATEID") private Integer CoordinateID; @Column(name = "LAT") private double latitude; @Column(name = "LNG") private double longitude; } @Entity @Table(name = "COORDCONNECTIONS") public class CoordConnection { @Id @GeneratedValue @Column(name = "COORDCONNECTIONID") private Integer CoordinateID; /** * From Coordinate_id value */ @Column(name = "FROMCOORDID", nullable = false) private int fromCoordID; /** * To Coordinate_id value */ @Column(name = "TOCOORDID", nullable = false) private int toCoordID; //private Coordinate toCoordID; }

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  • The type of field isn't supported by declared persistence strategy "OneToMany"

    - by Robert
    We are new to JPA and trying to setup a very simple one to many relationship where a pojo called Message can have a list of integer group id's defined by a join table called GROUP_ASSOC. Here is the DDL: CREATE TABLE "APP"."MESSAGE" ( "MESSAGE_ID" INTEGER NOT NULL GENERATED ALWAYS AS IDENTITY (START WITH 1, INCREMENT BY 1) ); ALTER TABLE "APP"."MESSAGE" ADD CONSTRAINT "MESSAGE_PK" PRIMARY KEY ("MESSAGE_ID"); CREATE TABLE "APP"."GROUP_ASSOC" ( "GROUP_ID" INTEGER NOT NULL, "MESSAGE_ID" INTEGER NOT NULL ); ALTER TABLE "APP"."GROUP_ASSOC" ADD CONSTRAINT "GROUP_ASSOC_PK" PRIMARY KEY ("MESSAGE_ID", "GROUP_ID"); ALTER TABLE "APP"."GROUP_ASSOC" ADD CONSTRAINT "GROUP_ASSOC_FK" FOREIGN KEY ("MESSAGE_ID") REFERENCES "APP"."MESSAGE" ("MESSAGE_ID"); Here is the pojo: @Entity @Table(name = "MESSAGE") public class Message { @Id @Column(name = "MESSAGE_ID") @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) private int messageId; @OneToMany(fetch=FetchType.LAZY, cascade=CascadeType.PERSIST) private List groupIds; public int getMessageId() { return messageId; } public void setMessageId(int messageId) { this.messageId = messageId; } public List getGroupIds() { return groupIds; } public void setGroupIds(List groupIds) { this.groupIds = groupIds; } } When we try to execute the following test code we get <openjpa-1.2.3-SNAPSHOT-r422266:907835 fatal user error> org.apache.openjpa.util.MetaDataException: The type of field "pojo.Message.groupIds" isn't supported by declared persistence strategy "OneToMany". Please choose a different strategy. Message msg = new Message(); List groups = new ArrayList(); groups.add(101); groups.add(102); EntityManager em = Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory("TestDBWeb").createEntityManager(); em.getTransaction().begin(); em.persist(msg); em.getTransaction().commit(); Help!

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  • Splitting an image in GWT results in unwanted white space

    - by rancidfishbreath
    I am using GWT 2.03 and am have an image that I want to place partially in an area with a background and partially above a background. I am using a FlexTable to try to accomplish this and have used GIMP to cut the image into two sections. I am trying to load the top part of the image into row 0 and the bottom part of the image into row 1. I set the alignment of the top image to ALIGN_BOTTOM but there is a bit of space at the bottom of cell and so the two parts of the picture don't touch. Here is an image showing what I am talking about. I set the background of the cell to be yellow show where the cell boundaries are. The bottom image and background are rendering correctly. Here is the relevant code snippet: FlexTable table = new FlexTable(); table.setCellSpacing(0); table.setCellPadding(0); table.setBorderWidth(0); FlexCellFormatter formatter = table.getFlexCellFormatter(); table.setWidget(0, 0, topImage); formatter.setStyleName(0, 0, "topImageStyle"); formatter.setVerticalAlignment(0, 0, HasVerticalAlignment.ALIGN_BOTTOM); table.setWidget(1, 0, bottomImage); formatter.setStyleName(1, 0, "bottomImageStyle"); How can I get rid of that space between my image and the cell boundary?

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  • Building a many-to-many db schema using only an unpredictable number of foreign keys

    - by user1449855
    Good afternoon (at least around here), I have a many-to-many relationship schema that I'm having trouble building. The main problem is that I'm only working with primary and foreign keys (no varchars or enums to simplify things) and the number of many-to-many relationships is not predictable and can increase at any time. I looked around at various questions and couldn't find something that directly addressed this issue. I split the problem in half, so I now have two one-to-many schemas. One is solved but the other is giving me fits. Let's assume table FOO is a standard, boring table that has a simple primary key. It's the one in the one-to-many relationship. Table BAR can relate to multiple keys of FOO. The number of related keys is not known beforehand. An example: From a query FOO returns ids 3, 4, 5. BAR needs a unique key that relates to 3, 4, 5 (though there could be any number of ids returned) The usual join table does not work: Table FOO_BAR primary_key | foo_id | bar_id | Since FOO returns 3 unique keys and here bar_id has a one-to-one relationship with foo_id. Having two join tables does not seem to work either, as it still can't map foo_ids 3, 4, 5 to a single bar_id. Table FOO_TO_BAR primary_key | foo_id | bar_to_foo_id | Table BAR_TO_FOO primary_key | foo_to_bar_id | bar_id | What am I doing wrong? Am I making things more complicated than they are? How should I approach the problem? Thanks a lot for the help.

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  • How I shoud use BIT in MS SQL 2005

    - by adopilot
    Regarding to SQL performance. I have Scalar-Valued function for checking some specific condition in base, It returns BIT value True or False, I now do not know how I should fill @BIT parameter If I write. set @bit = convert(bit,1) or set @bit = 1 or set @bit='true' Function will work anyway but I do not know which method is recommended for daily use. Another Question, I have table in my base with around 4 million records, Daily insert is about 4K records in that table. Now I want to add CONSTRAINT on that table whit scalar valued function that I mentioned already Something like this ALTER TABLE fin_stavke ADD CONSTRAINT fin_stavke_knjizenje CHECK ( dbo.fn_ado_chk_fin(id)=convert(bit,1)) Where is filed "id" primary key of table fin_stavke and dbo.fn_ado_chk_fin looks like create FUNCTION fn_ado_chk_fin ( @stavka_id int ) RETURNS bit AS BEGIN declare @bit bit if exists (select * from fin_stavke where id=@stavka_id and doc_id is null and protocol_id is null) begin set @bit=0 end else begin set @bit=1 end return @bit; END GO Will this type and method of cheeking constraint will affect badly performance on my table and SQL at all ? If there is also better way to add control on this table please let me know.

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  • HTML Agility Pack

    - by Harikrishna
    I have html tables in one webpage like <table border=1> <tr><td>sno</td><td>sname</td></tr> <tr><td>111</td><td>abcde</td></tr> <tr><td>213</td><td>ejkll</td></tr> </table> <table border=1> <tr><td>adress</td><td>phoneno</td><td>note</td></tr> <tr><td>asdlkj</td><td>121510</td><td>none</td></tr> <tr><td>asdlkj</td><td>214545</td><td>none</td></tr> </table> Now from this webpage using html agility pack I want to extract the data of the column address and phone no only. It means for that I have find first in which table there is column address and phoneno.After finding that table I want to extract the data of that column address and phoneno what should I do ? I can get the table. But after that what should I do don't understand.

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  • Newbie T-SQL dynamic stored procedure -- how can I improve it?

    - by Andy Jones
    I'm new to T-SQL; all my experience is in a completely different database environment (Openedge). I've learned enough to write the procedure below -- but also enough to know that I don't know enough! This routine will have to go into a live environment soon, and it works, but I'm quite certain there are a number of c**k-ups and gotchas in it that I know nothing about. The routine copies data from table A to table B, replacing the data in table B. The tables could be in any database. I plan to call this routine multiple times from another stored procedure. Permissions aren't a problem: the routine will be run by the dba as a timed job. Could I have your suggestions as to how to make it fit best-practice? To bullet-proof it? ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[copyTable2Table] @sdb varchar(30), @stable varchar(30), @tdb varchar(30), @ttable varchar(30), @raiseerror bit = 1, @debug bit = 0 as begin set nocount on declare @source varchar(65) declare @target varchar(65) declare @dropstmt varchar(100) declare @insstmt varchar(100) declare @ErrMsg nvarchar(4000) declare @ErrSeverity int set @source = '[' + @sdb + '].[dbo].[' + @stable + ']' set @target = '[' + @tdb + '].[dbo].[' + @ttable + ']' set @dropStmt = 'drop table ' + @target set @insStmt = 'select * into ' + @target + ' from ' + @source set @errMsg = '' set @errSeverity = 0 if @debug = 1 print('Drop:' + @dropStmt + ' Insert:' + @insStmt) -- drop the target table, copy the source table to the target begin try begin transaction exec(@dropStmt) exec(@insStmt) commit end try begin catch if @@trancount > 0 rollback select @errMsg = error_message(), @errSeverity = error_severity() end catch -- update the log table insert into HHG_system.dbo.copyaudit (copytime, copyuser, source, target, errmsg, errseverity) values( getdate(), user_name(user_id()), @source, @target, @errMsg, @errSeverity) if @debug = 1 print ( 'Message:' + @errMsg + ' Severity:' + convert(Char, @errSeverity) ) -- handle errors, return value if @errMsg <> '' begin if @raiseError = 1 raiserror(@errMsg, @errSeverity, 1) return 1 end return 0 END Thanks!

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  • Field specific errors for ETL

    - by AaronLS
    I am creating a ETL process in MS SQL Server and I would like to have errors specific to a particular column of a particular row. For example, the data is initially loaded from excel files into a table(we'll call the Initial table) where all columns are varchar(2000) and then I stage the data to another table(the DataTypedTable) that contains more specific data types (datetime,int, etc.) or more tightly constrained varchar lengths. I need to be able to create error messages for a specific field such as: "Jan. 13th" is not a valid date format for the submission date. Please use a format of MM/DD/YYYY These error messages would need to be stored in some way such that later in the process a automated process can create reports with the error messages such that each message references a specific row and field(someone will need to go back and correct the data in the source system and resubmit the excel file). So ideally it would be inserted into a Failures tables of some sort and contain the primary key of the failed row, the column name, and the error message. Question: So I am wondering if this can be accomplished with SSIS, or some open source tool like Talend, and if so, what would be your general approach? Or what hand coded approach you would take? Couple approaches I've thought of using SQL(up until no I have done ETL by hand in SQL procs, but I want to consider other approaches. Possible C# even.): Use a cursor to read through the Initial table, and for each row insert a blank record with only the primary key into the DataTyped table, then use a single update statement for each column, such that if that update fails I can insert a very specific error message specific to that column in the error messages table. Insert all the data as is into the DataTyped table, but have duplicate columns like SubmissionDate and SubmissionDateOld. After the initial insert the *Old columns have data, the rest are blank, and I have a single update for each column that sets the SubmissionDate based on the SubmissionDateOld. In addition to suggesting an approach, I'd like to know if you are using that approach or something similar already in the work you do.

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  • UPDATE query that fixes orphaned records

    - by Jed
    I have an Access database that has two tables that are related by PK/FK. Unfortunately, the database tables have allowed for duplicate/redundant records and has made the database a bit screwy. I am trying to figure out a SQL statement that will fix the problem. To better explain the problem and goal, I have created example tables to use as reference: You'll notice there are two tables, a Student table and a TestScore table where StudentID is the PK/FK. The Student table contains duplicate records for students John, Sally, Tommy, and Suzy. In other words the John's with StudentID's 1 and 5 are the same person, Sally 2 and 6 are the same person, and so on. The TestScore table relates test scores with a student. Ignoring how/why the Student table allowed duplicates, etc - The goal I'm trying to accomplish is to update the TestScore table so that it replaces the StudentID's that have been disabled with the corresponding enabled StudentID. So, all StudentID's = 1 (John) will be updated to 5; all StudentID's = 2 (Sally) will be updated to 6, and so on. Here's the resultant TestScore table that I'm shooting for (Notice there is no longer any reference to the disabled StudentID's 1-4): Can you think of a query (compatible with MS Access's JET Engine) that can accomplish this goal? Or, maybe, you can offer some tips/perspectives that will point me in the right direction. Thanks.

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