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  • What is faster: multiple `send`s or using buffering?

    - by dauerbaustelle
    I'm playing around with sockets in C/Python and I wonder what is the most efficient way to send headers from a Python dictionary to the client socket. My ideas: use a send call for every header. Pros: No memory allocation needed. Cons: many send calls -- probably error prone; error management should be rather complicated use a buffer. Pros: one send call, error checking a lot easier. Cons: Need a buffer :-) malloc/realloc should be rather slow and using a (too) big buffer to avoid realloc calls wastes memory. Any tips for me? Thanks :-)

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  • Python: How to run unittest.main() for all source files in a subdirectory?

    - by Pete
    I am developing a Python module with several source files, each with its own test class derived from unittest right in the source. Consider the directory structure: dirFoo\ test.py dirBar\ __init__.py Foo.py Bar.py To test either Foo.py or Bar.py, I would add this at the end of the Foo.py and Bar.py source files: if __name__ == "__main__": unittest.main() And run Python on either source, i.e. $ python Foo.py ........... ---------------------------------------------------------------------- Ran 11 tests in 2.314s OK Ideally, I would have "test.py" automagically search dirBar for any unittest derived classes and make one call to "unittest.main()". What's the best way to do this in practice? I tried using Python to call execfile for every *.py file in dirBar, which runs once for the first .py file found & exits the calling test.py, plus then I have to duplicate my code by adding unittest.main() in every source file--which violates DRY principles.

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  • How to adjust microphone gain from C# (needs to work on XP & W7)...

    - by Ed
    First, note that I know there are a few questions like this already posted; however they don't seem to address the problem adequately. I have a C# application, with all the pInvoke hooks to talk to the waveXXX API, and I'm able to do capture and play back of audio with that. I'm also able to adjust speaker (WaveOut) volume with that API. The problem is that for whatever reason, that API does not allow me to adjust microphone (WaveIn) volume. So, I managed to find some mixer code that I've also pulled in and access through pInvoke and that allows me to adjust microphone volume, but only on my W7 PC. The mixer code I started with comes from here: http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/isvvba/thread/05dc2d35-1d45-4837-8e16-562ee919da85 and it works, but is written to adjust speaker volume. I added the SetMicVolume method shown here... public static void SetMicVolume(int mxid, int percentage) { bool rc; int mixer, vVolume; MIXERCONTROL volCtrl = new MIXERCONTROL(); int currentVol; mixerOpen(out mixer, mxid, 0, 0, MIXER_OBJECTF_WAVEIN); int type = MIXERCONTROL_CONTROLTYPE_VOLUME; rc = GetVolumeControl(mixer, MIXERLINE_COMPONENTTYPE_SRC_MICROPHONE, type, out volCtrl, out currentVol); if (rc == false) { mixerClose(mixer); mixerOpen(out mixer, 0, 0, 0, 0); rc = GetVolumeControl(mixer, MIXERLINE_COMPONENTTYPE_SRC_MICROPHONE, type, out volCtrl, out currentVol); if (rc == false) throw new Exception("SetMicVolume/GetVolumeControl() failed"); } vVolume = ((int)((float)(volCtrl.lMaximum - volCtrl.lMinimum) / 100.0F) * percentage); rc = SetVolumeControl(mixer, volCtrl, vVolume); if (rc == false) throw new Exception("SetMicVolume/SetVolumeControl() failed"); mixerClose(mixer); } Note the "second attempt" to call GetVolumeControl(). This is done because on XP, in the first call to GetVolumeControl (refer to site above for that code), the call to mixerGetLineControlsA() fails with XP systems returning MIXERR_INVALCONTROL. Then, with this second attempt using mixerOpen(out mixer, 0, 0, 0, 0), the code doesn't return a failure but the mic gain is unaffected. Note, as I said above, this works on W7 (the second attempt is never executed because it doesn't fail using mixerOpen(out mixer, mxid, 0, 0, MIXER_OBJECTF_WAVEIN)). I admit to not having a good grasp on the mixer API, so that's what I'm looking into now; however if anyone has a clue why this would work on W7, but not XP, I'd sure like to hear it. Meanwhile, if I figure it out before I get a response, I'll post my own answer...

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  • casting BSTR as char* in a dll; different results depnding on VB/C# caller.

    - by Toby Wilson
    I have a dll function that takes BSTR parameters. These are casted as char* before being used for other things. When the dll is called from VB code this works fine. However, when it is called from C# code, only the first character is pointed to. Both of these are excel addIns for Pre-2007 and 2007+ versions of Office, which call into a faster C++ AddIn. They actually call it directly, not through Excel. The VB function declaration looks like this: Private Declare Function Test Lib "ExcelAddIn.xll" (ByVal param As String) As String The C# function declaration looks like this: [DllImport("ExcelAddIn.xll", CharSet=CharSet.Ansi)] [return:MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.BStr)] private static extern string Test([MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.BStr)] string param); When debugging the dll and watching the input BSTR values, they appear to be correct from both; just the C# one only casts the first character. Charset=CharSet.Unicode makes no difference. Any ideas anyone?

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  • Why must I rewind IteratorIterator

    - by chris
    $arrayIter = new ArrayIterator( array(1, 2) ); $iterIter = new IteratorIterator($arrayIter); var_dump($iterIter->valid()); //false var_dump($arrayIter->valid()); //true If I first call $iterIter-rewind(), then $iterIter-valid() is true. I'm curious why it requires that rewind() be called. I imagine there's good reason for it, but I would have expected it to simply start iteration at whatever state it's inner iterator is in, and leave it as an option to rewind before beginning iteration. calling next() also seems to put it in a "valid" state(although it advances to the next position, suggesting it was previously at the first position). $arrayIter = new ArrayIterator(array(1,2)); $iterIter = new IteratorIterator($arrayIter); $iterIter->next(); var_dump($iterIter->valid()); Again, I'm curious why I need to call rewind(), despite the inner iterator being in a valid state.

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  • Getting counts of 0 from a query with a double group by

    - by Maltiriel
    I'm trying to write a query that gets the counts for a table (call it item) categorized by two different things, call them type and code. What I'm hoping for as output is the following: Type Code Count 1 A 3 1 B 0 1 C 10 2 A 0 2 B 13 2 C 2 And so forth. Both type and code are found in lookup tables, and each item can have just one type but more than one code, so there's also a pivot (aka junction or join) table for the codes. I have a query that can get this result: Type Code Count 1 A 3 1 C 10 2 B 13 2 C 2 and it looks like (with join conditions omitted): SELECT typelookup.name, codelookup.name, COUNT(item.id) FROM typelookup LEFT OUTER JOIN item JOIN itemcodepivot RIGHT OUTER JOIN codelookup GROUP BY typelookup.name, codelookup.name Is there any way to alter this query to get the results I'm looking for? This is in MySQL, if that matters. I'm not actually sure this is possible all in one query, but if it is I'd really like to know how. Thanks for any ideas.

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  • Grid view update event form javascript

    - by pranay
    I have grid control select <%--Select--% </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </columns> <pagersettings mode="NumericFirstLast" position="Top" pagebuttoncount="5" /> <pagerstyle backcolor="Pink" /> </cc:AppEngineGridView> my code on row create protected override void OnRowCreated(GridViewRowEventArgs e) { try { if (e.Row.RowType == DataControlRowType.DataRow) { e.Row.ID = this.ID + "_" + e.Row.RowIndex; e.Row.Attributes.Add("onmouseover", "this.style.cursor='pointer';this.style.font.weight='bolder';"); e.Row.Attributes.Add("onclick", "DoNav('" + ((LinkButton)e.Row.FindControl("lbtn1")).ClientID + "');"); } } protected void grduser_RowUpdating(object sender, GridViewUpdateEventArgs e) { grdview_RowClickCommand(sender, e); } Javascript : function DoNav(id) { $("#"+id).click(); } Now my question is when i click on the row it do post back but it didnt call rowupdate event How can do this i.e using javascript to call row update command of the grid.

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  • [PHP] Sending Email Notification in Facebook JavaScript API

    - by Veera
    I'm trying to send a email notification to the user from my Facebook application. I'm trying to use the FaceBook JavaScript API function notifications_sendEmail(Array recipients, String subject, String text, String fbml, Object onRequestCompleted) I can understand the first four parameters. But what's the usage of the last parameter 'onRequestCompleted'. The Doc says it's the call back function. But, what if I do not want to execute a call back function? In this case, what will be a valid values to the parameter onRequestCompleted?

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  • jQuery autosuggest example

    - by RUtt
    I need to implement an "autosuggest" feature on our site but it needs to re-query the on every keystroke after a certain number of keys (like every character after 2 it would need to query again). So the result isn't a limiting search. For example, the autocomplete plugins I've seen work like the following: [looking for a county] 1. customer types 'CA' and the first result would return 'Canada', 'Cambodia', and 'Camaroon' 2. customer continues to type and hits 'M' the new results would query within the only the existing 3 results (producing results of just 'Cambodia' and 'Camaroon') I need a solution that would be the equivalent of querying my datasource on each keystroke. I already have the ajax call that will return my results based on the "typed" params. For example (in the above example), it would need to make an ajax call passing 'ca' first and if the customer kept typing passing 'can' on the 3 character and so forth. Thanks.

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  • lazyinializationexception with transactional annotation in messageconvert

    - by Karl
    Hi, I have a Rest-Service exposed through spring-mvc. I have a particular method which is correctly mapped and called through a http-call. My spring application contains the hibernatetransactionmanager and transactions are configured through @Transactional-annotations. I annotated the method with @Transactional. @Transactional(readOnly = true) @Override @RequestMapping(value = "/start", method = RequestMethod.GET) @ResponseBody public List start(....) Whenever I call the http-method I get org.hibernate.LazyInitializationException from my org.springframework.http.converter.json.MappingJacksonHttpMessageConverter which is bound in my application context. Is the @Transactional annotation valid for the MessageConverter as well?

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  • waiting for 2 different events in a single thread

    - by João Portela
    component A (in C++) - is blocked waiting for alarm signals (not relevant) and IO signals (1 udp socket). has one handler for each of these. component B (java) - has to receive the same information the component A udp socket receives. periodicaly gives instructions that should be sent through component A udp socket. How to join both components? it is strongly desirable that: the changes to attach component B to component A are minimal (its not my code and it is not very pleasent to mess with). the time taken by the new operations (usually communicating with component B) interfere very little with the usual processing time of component A - this means that if the operations are going to take a "some" time I would rather use a thread or something to do them. note: since component A receives udp packets more frequently that it has component B instructions to forward, if necessary, it can only forward the instructions (when available) from the IO handler. my initial ideia was to develop a component C (in C++) that would sit inside the component A code (is this called an adapter?) that when instanciated starts the java process and makes the necessary connections (that not so little overhead in the initialization is not a problem). It would have 2 stacks, one for the data to give component B (lets call it Bstack) and for the data to give component A (lets call it Astack). It would sit on its thread (lets call it new-thread) waiting for data to be available in Bstack to send it over udp, and listen on the udp socket to put data on the Astack. This means that the changes to component A are only: when it receives a new UDP packet put it on the Bstack, and if there is something on the Astack sent it over its UDP socket (I decided for this because this socket would only be used in the main thread). One of the problems is that I don't know how to wait for both of these events at the same time using only one thread. so my questions are: Do I really need to use the main thread to send the data over component A socket or can I do it from the new-thread? (I think the answer is no, but I'm not sure about race conditions on sockets) how to I wait for both events? boost::condition_variable or something similar seems the solution in the case of the stack and boost::asio::io_service io_service.run() seems like the thing to use for the socket. Is there any other alternative solution for this problem that I'm not aware of? Thanks for reading this long text but I really wanted you to understand the problem.

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  • ReaderWriterLockSlim question.

    - by Kamarey
    There are lots written about the ReaderWriterLockSlim class which allows multiple read and a single write. All of these (at least that I had found) tell how to use it without much explanation why and how it works. The standard code sample is: lock.EnterUpgradeableReadLock(); try { if (test if write is required) { lock.EnterWriteLock(); try { change the resourse here. } finally { lock.ExitWriteLock(); } } } finally { lock.ExitUpgradeableReadLock(); } The question is: if upgradeable lock permits only a single thread to enter its section, why I should call EnterWriteLock method within? What will happen if I don't? Or what will happen if instead of EnterUpgradeableReadLock I will call EnterWriteLock and will write to a resource without using upgradeable lock at all?

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  • Custom setter methods in Core-Data

    - by andrewebling
    I need to write a custom setter method for a field (we'll call it foo) in my subclass of NSManagedObject. foo is defined in the data model and Xcode has autogenerated @property and @dynamic fields in the .h and .m files respectively. If I write my setter like this: - (void)setFoo: (NSObject *)inFoo { [super setFoo: inFoo]; [self updateStuff]; } then I get a compiler warning on the call to super. Alternatively, if I do this: - (void)setFoo: (NSObject *)inFoo { [super setValue: inFoo forKey: inFoo]; [self updateStuff]; } then I end up in an infinite loop. So what's the correct approach to write a custom setter for a subclass of NSManagedObject?

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  • how do i use htaccess to make http requests work properly

    - by Gabriel
    I currently have css and javascript file calls (amongst other things) like the following: href="/css/default.css" src="/js/ui_control.js" putting the preceding / in to make the files relative to the root. This works great when my page is in the root of the domain. However, I'm currently in the middle of transferring my site to a new hosting provider and as such have a temporary URL which is: HOST-IP/~username As such, all file calls are trying to be called from HOST-IP/css/default.css etc instead of within the ~username sub-folder. Of course I can wait until the domain name servers propagate but that's beside the point. How would I go about writing a rule in the .htaccess file that would redirect all file calls that start with a /, from going to HOST-IP/FILE-CALL, and instead to go to HOST-IP/~USERNAME/FILE-CALL. ? Any ideas?

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  • Saving a 'Date' using DataMapper on AppEngine+JRuby

    - by Ryan Montgomery
    I have a a model as follows: class Total include DataMapper::Resource property :id, Serial property :amount, Float, :default => 0.00 property :day, Date belongs_to :calendar end I am trying to select a specific Total from the data-store. class Calendar include DataMapper::Resource property :id, Serial property :name, String has n, :totals def get_total_for(date) return Total.first(:day => date, :calendar => self) end end When I call get_total_for(DateTime.now) I receive the following error on the call to the data-store. java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: day: org.jruby.RubyObject is not a supported property type. Is Date not allowed for usage in AppEngine? Is this a DataMapper issue? I have tried changing the name of the :day property to something else (hoping it was just a name conflict) but it doesn't seem to matter. Thanks for any help you can provide.

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  • Passing value from :locals to link_remote_to

    - by Teef L
    In my edit.haml file, I have =render :partial => 'old_question_tags', :locals => {:current_question => @question.id}. I'd like to pass the value in :current_question to a link_to_remote call in _old_question_tags.haml: #{link_to_remote image_tag('red-x.png', {:alt => "Remove #{t.name} tag"}), :url => {:action => 'remove_old_tag_from_question', :tag_remove => t.id, :current_question => current_question}} But I get this error on the link_to_remote line: ActionView::TemplateError (undefined local variable or method `current_question' for #<ActionView::Base:0xdb2fec8>) In _old_question_tags.haml, if I just print current_question (using =current_question), it prints the number without any problems. How do I properly pass that value to the partial so that I can pass it to the link_to_remote call?

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  • The remote server returned an error: (407) Proxy Authentication Required

    - by chris
    I'm getting this error when I call a web service: "The remote server returned an error: (407) Proxy Authentication Required". I get the general idea and I can get the code to work by adding myProxy.Credentials= NetworkCredential("user", "password", "domain"); or by using DefaultCredentials in code. My problem is that the call to the web service works in production without this. It seems like there is a non code solution involving Machine.config, but what is it? At the moment I can't get to the production boxes machine.config file to see what that looks like. I tried updating my machine.config as follows, but I still get the 407 error.

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  • How Two Programs Can Talk To Each Other In Java?

    - by Arnon
    My first time here... I want to ?reduce? the CPU usage/ROM usage/RAM usage - in general ?speaking?, all system resources that my App use - how doesn't? :) For this reason i want to split the preferences window from the rest of the application, and let the preferences window to run as ?independent? program. The preferences program ?should? write to a Property file(not a problem at all) and to send a "update signal" to the main program - which mean, to call the update method(that i wrote) that found in the Main class. How can i call the update method in the Main program from the preferences program? Or in the other hand... There is a way to build preferences window that take system resources just when it's appear? Is this approach - of separating programs and let them talk to each other(somehow) - is a right approach for speeding up my programs? tnx

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  • Why is my form triggering the wrong controller action?

    - by COCoach
    This form has multiple submit buttons, when clicked, it calls a simple JavaScript function to change the value of a hidden input (function is called "setHidden". This worked before, after some other not relevant code, it has ceased working. Essentially, the action it is supposed to call is never called, instead it seems to default back to a previous URL. The Form: <form action="/League/RemoveOwner" method="post"> <input type="hidden" value="1007" name="lid"/> <input type="hidden" value="0" id="index" name="index"/> <input type="image" src="../../Resources/Images/Delete.png" height="12" alt="Remove Owner" title="Remove Owner" onclick="setHidden('index', '1031')"/></a> coach<br /> </form> The Controller: [HttpPost] public ActionResult RemoveOwner(int id, string index) { //yada return PartialView(); } When clicking the image, it should call the remove owner controller, instead it calls the "View" controller: public ActionResult View(int id) { //yada return View(); }

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  • How can I receive messages using over http without MSMQ

    - by pduncan
    I need a reliable messaging framework that runs over http/https (due to client security requirements) and that doesn't use MSMQ (because some clients will use Windows XP Home). The clients only need to be able to receive messages, not send them. We already have a message queue on the server for each user, and the receivers have been getting messages by connecting to an HttpHandler on the server and getting a Stream from WebResponse.GetResponseStream() We keep this stream open, and pull messages off of it using Stream.Read(). This MOSTLY works, but Stream.Read() is a blocking call, and we can't reliably interrupt it. We need to be able to stop and start the receiver without losing messages, but the old stream often hangs around, even after we call Thread.Abort on its thread. Any suggestions?

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  • removing dependancy of a private function inside a public function using Rhino Mocks

    - by L G
    Hi All, I am new to mocking, and have started with Rhino Mocks. My scenario is like this..in my class library i have a public function and inside it i have a private function call, which gets output from a service.I want to remove the private function dependency. public class Employee { public virtual string GetFullName(string firstName, string lastName) { string middleName = GetMiddleName(); return string.Format("{0} {2} {1}", firstName, lastName,middleName ); } private virtual string GetMiddleName() { // Some call to Service return "George"; } } This is not my real scenario though, i just wanted to know how to remove dependency of GetMiddleName() function and i need to return some default value while unit testing. Note : I won't be able to change the private function here..or include Interface..Keeping the functions as such, is there any way to mock this.Thank

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  • Calling HttpRequest::getRawRequestMessage() without send()

    - by danielgrad
    I am trying to call getRawRequestMessage() to get the raw HTTP content of the request described by a HttpRequest object, but I notice it always returns an empty string if I don't call send() first. Which kind of defeats my purpose (I want to send the data through other means than the HttpRequest's own send() method). Is there any other way to convert a HttpRequest object to it's raw string equivalent? To give more context: I'm working with a complex class that builds a HttpRequest object and sends requests through it and I want to add a new mode to the class that will work through raw sockets instead. The request is already built in the HttpRequest object and I would like to not have to parse the object manually to generate the HTTP message.

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  • Problems using the Razor model when creating my knockout ViewModel

    - by Emil Kantis
    I'm having problems with using the Model in a javascript call when setting up my knockout VM.. @model List<AdminGui.Models.Domain> <script src="http://ajax.aspnetcdn.com/ajax/knockout/knockout-2.2.1.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function ViewModel() { var self = this; self.domains = ko.observableArray( ko.utils.arrayMap(@Model, function(item) { return new Domain(item.guid, item.description, item.namespaces); })); } I get a syntax error on @Model in the ko.utils.arrayMap call. I suspect it might be my Razor-fu that is lacking... :)

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  • Browser based online game question

    - by Emre
    I am developing a small browser based game in asp.net. Think of a game room which has a capaticy of 22 players and players join the room by clicking a button. ( I am saving the number of players in the room in database) I need to call a method when the number of players in the room is 22. The problem is I don't know how to control the number of players in the room. I mean I think like there need to be a bacground code which has to run all the time at the server and that code controls the number and call the function. It's my first web project(school project) and I hope you all can help me.

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  • C++: Overload != When == Overloaded

    - by Mark W
    Say I have a class where I overloaded the operator == as such: Class A { ... public: bool operator== (const A &rhs) const; ... }; ... bool A::operator== (const A &rhs) const { .. return isEqual; } I already have the operator == return the proper Boolean value. Now I want to extend this to the simple opposite (!=). I would like to call the overloaded == operator and return the opposite, i.e. something of the nature bool A::operator!= (const A &rhs) const { return !( this == A ); } Is this possible? I know this will not work, but it exemplifies what I would like to have. I would like to keep only one parameter for the call: rhs. Any help would be appreciated, because I could not come up with an answer after several search attempts.

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