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  • IIS 6+ASP.NET - many temp files generated

    - by moshe_ravid
    I have a ASP.NET + some .NET web-services running on IIS 6 (win 2003 server). The issue is that IIS is generating a lot (!) of files in "c:\WINDOWS\Temp" directory. a lot of files means thousands of files, which get to more than 3G of size so far. The files are generated by this command: C:\WINDOWS\SysWOW64\inetsrv "C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\csc.exe" /t:library /utf8output /R:"C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\vfagt\113819dd\db0d5802\assembly\dl3\fedc6ef1\006e24d8_3bc9ca01\VfAgentWService.DLL" /R:"C:\WINDOWS\assembly\GAC_MSIL\System.Web.Services\2.0.0.0__b03f5f7f11d50a3a\System.Web.Services.dll" /R:"C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\mscorlib.dll" /R:"C:\WINDOWS\assembly\GAC_MSIL\System.Xml\2.0.0.0__b77a5c561934e089\System.Xml.dll" /R:"C:\WINDOWS\assembly\GAC_MSIL\System\2.0.0.0__b77a5c561934e089\System.dll" /out:"C:\WINDOWS\TEMP\9i_i2bmg.dll" /debug- /optimize+ /nostdlib /D:_DYNAMIC_XMLSERIALIZER_COMPILATION "C:\WINDOWS\TEMP\9i_i2bmg.0.cs" The files in the temp directory are pairs of *.out & *.err, where the *.err file is zero size, and the *.out file contains the compilation output messages. What is causing IIS to generate so many files? How can I prevent it? UPDATE: The problem is that the command i described above (csc.exe) is being executed many (many) times, causing the .out & .err to be generated so many times, until it consumes the disk space. So - my question is: what is causing this command to run so many times? (i don't have that many .aspx & .asmx files in my web app). Thanks, Moe

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  • Cant install .NET application in Clients PC

    - by Niraj Doshi
    Hello all, My client's PC runs Windows 7 Ultimate with .netframework 4 client profile. I am unable to install my application developed in VS2008. I tried uninstalling .NET Framework 4 From his PC and running the Clean up tool provided by Microsoft. But still I am unable to install it successfully. It provides Error 1001. I tried running the program as administrator. I also tried to Turn on .net 3.5 feature from add or remove program. Thanks in advance. :) Edit: The error what i get is shown here. Furthermore, I have confirmed that it is a 32bit processor and i run x86 release version of setup The application is developed in a Windows 7 OS with .NET Framework 3.5 I have installed this application in 7 PCs which have .NET 3.5 installed in them and having OS Windows XP,Vista and Windows 7; and all are working fine. In clients PC, when I try to install .NET 3.5 again, the installer starts but then it disappears suddenly without doing anything I have tried turning on .NET 3.5 framework feature from control panel Program and Features. I have tried running the program as Administrator I have tried setting the application setup in Windows XP and Vista compatible mode. But still the issue persists. Thanks :)

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  • ASP.NET AJAX, WebSeal Junctions, and Sessions

    - by powella
    I've run up across a problem with ASP.NET AJAX (hooked up to WebServices directly) and accessing our site through a WebSeal junction. Listing 11. On this page; http://www.ibm.com/developerworks/tivoli/library/t-ajaxtam/index.html explains that requests to pages which do not result in a content type of text/html are not sent with cookie data. Hence, no session. ASP.NET AJAX requests are returned with a content type of "application/json; charset=utf-8". As such, the WebSeal junction is not appending the Session Cookie to the request. This results in our WebService seeing the user as invalid, due to no session information. The Junction has been setup properly with the -J parameter (thats an uppercase J, which appends the required script for WebSeal to the bottom of the page - this prevents forcing IE into quirks mode.) and we've confirmed that the necessary script exists in the output source. I'm up for any suggestions at this point, as I'm out of ideas. FWIW, the site runs perfectly when not accessed through the WebSeal Junction.

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  • ASP.NET sending email through exchange problem

    - by Solmead
    I have an exchange 2010 server running on Windows 2008 R2, I also have a remote webserver running Windows 2003 with multiple sites on it (all asp.net mvc 2 sites). I setup a Transport in exchange and all the websites on my remote web server can send email no problem to anyone in the exchange server and to any external domain. Now for my problem. I am having issues with that webserver, so I moved one of the websites to run on my exchange server, it runs well (low hit website) except that email doesn't work from that site. I tried changing the Transport in exchange to add the IP address of the local machine and the 127.0.0.1 addresses and it still isn't sending any email. Any ideas on how to get this working? The remote websites can still send email no problem, the version of the site that I had to move on the remote server can still email, but on the exchange server for that website email does not send. I would guess it is a Transport issue, since it is running on the same server a firewall shouldn't be the issue. I changed the smtp setting in web.config to localhost, and now I do receive email to my account on the exchange server, but I do not receive any emails on outside addresses. To add more description, this is a custom developed asp.net mvc 2 website. And no errors were being generated in the code when sending the email in either case.

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  • IIS8 Asp.net State service remote connection failure

    - by maxisam
    Recently we upgrade our web server to windows server 2012 with IIS8. We have this issue when users try to connect the asp.net state service to this web server remotely. It always popup Unable to make the session state request to the session state server. Please ensure that the ASP.NET State service is started and that the client and server ports are the same. If the server is on a remote machine, please ensure that it accepts remote requests by checking the value of HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SYSTEM\CurrentControlSet\Services\aspnet_state\Parameters\AllowRemoteConnection. If the server is on the local machine, and if the before mentioned registry value does not exist or is set to 0, then the state server connection string must use either 'localhost' or '127.0.0.1' as the server name. In IIS7 / 7.5 we use the same way and it works fine. As long as the state service is running and firewall is set properly, we don't have any problem. However, in IIS8 it doesn't work. (We even turn off firewall to test it) Thanks for helping.

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  • ASP.NET Session State SQL Server 2008 R2 Freezes with High CPU Usage

    - by jtseng
    Our ASP.Net website uses SQL Server as the session state provider. We currently host the database on SQL Server 2005 since it does not play well on 2008 R2. We would like to know why, and how to fix it. hardware setup Our current session state server has SQL Server 2005 with the files hosted on a single local disk. It is one of our oldest servers since it has served us well, and we never felt the need to upgrade it. The database is about 2 GB holding 6000 sessions. (The sessions are a little big, but we need it.) We have another server with SQL Server 2008 R2 with a much faster CPU, much more RAM, and a much faster hard disk. situation One day, we have a huge surge in traffic. The transaction log growth on SQL Server freezes the server for 10's of seconds, allowing only a few requests through in minutes. So we load up the new server with ASPState with very large data and log files and point all of our applications to the new server. It chugs along fine for about 5 minutes, and then the CPU usage jumps up to 50% of the 16 cores that Standard Edition can use and freezes for 10's of seconds at a time. The files do not record any autogrowth events. The disk queue is nice and low. RAM usage is low. CPU usage on our old server has never been higher than 5%. What happened on the new server? Alternatively, I would like to hear success stories with ASP.NET session state server running on SQL Server 2008 R2 with an average write load of 30MB/sec with bursts up to 200MB/sec.

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  • What's needed in a complete ASP.NET environment?

    - by Christian W
    We have a ASP3.0 application with a few ASP.NET (2.0) dittys mixed in. (Our longtime goal is to migrate everything to ASP.NET but that's not important for this issue) Our current test/deploy workflow is like this: 1 Use notepad++ or VS2008 to fix a bug/feature (depending on what I have open) 2 Open my virtual test-server 3 Copy the fixed file over, either with explorer, or if I can be bothered to open it, WinMerge 4 Test that the fix works 5 Close the virtual test-server 6 Connect to our host with VPN 7 Use WinMerge to update the files necessary 8 Pray to higher powers that the production environment is not so different that something bombs. To make things worse, only I have access to my "test-server". So I'm the only one testing it. I really want to make this a bit more robust, I even have a subversion setup running. But I always forget to commit changes... And I don't even work in my checked out folder, but a copy of what is currently in production... Can someone recommend some good reading on deploying, testing, staging and stuff like that. I currently use VS2008 and want to use subversion or GIT (or any other free VCS). Since I'm the only developer, teamsystem is not really an option (cost-related). I have found myself developing an "improved" feature, only to find a bug in the same feature in the production system. And since my "improved" feature incorporated deleting some old functionality, I have to fix bugs directly in production... That's not a fun feeling... (I have inherited this system recently... So it's not directly my fault that it is like this ;) )

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  • User authentication -- username mismatch in IIS in ASP.NET application

    - by Cory Larson
    Last week, an employee's Active Directory username was changed (or a new one was created for them). For the purposes of this example, let's assume these usernames: Old: Domain\11111 New: Domain\22222 When this user now logs in using their new username, and attempts to browse to any one of a number of ASP.NET applications using only Windows Authentication (no Anonymous enabled), the system authenticates but our next layer of database-driven permissions prevents them from being authorized. We tracked it down to a mismatch of usernames between their logon account and who IIS thinks they are. Below are the outputs of several ASP.NET variables from apps running in a Windows 2008 IIS7.5 environment: Request.ServerVariables["AUTH_TYPE"]: Negotiate Request.ServerVariables["AUTH_USER"]: Domain\11111 Request.ServerVariables["LOGON_USER"]: Domain\22222 Request.ServerVariables["REMOTE_USER"]: Domain\11111 HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name: Domain\11111 System.Threading.Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name: Domain\11111 From the above, I can see that only the LOGON_USER server variable has the correct value, which is the account the user used to log on to their machine. However, we use the "AUTH_USER" variable for looking up the database permissions. In a separate testing environment (completely different server: Windows 2003, IIS6), all of the above variables show "Domain\22222". So this seems to be a server-specific issue, like the credentials are somehow getting cached either on their machine or on the server (the former seems more plausible). So the question is: how do I confirm whether it's the user's machine or the server that is botching the request? How should I go about fixing this? I looked at the following two resources and will be giving the first one a try shortly: http://www.interworks.com/blogs/jvalente/2010/02/02/removing-saved-credentials-passwords-windows-xp-windows-vista-or-windows-7 http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2325005/classic-asp-request-servervariableslogon-user-returning-wrong-username/5299080#5299080 Thanks.

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  • Connection between Asp.Net and Oracle 10g Express Edition

    - by l3gion
    Hello, I'm struggling to find a way to connect my Asp .Net + C# application with my Oracle 10g Express Edition. Here's my scenario, I'm at Mac OS and I have 2 Virtual machines, one for Win 7 (VS 2010 app) and another with a Parallels Virtual Appliance with Oracle 10g Express Edition 1.1. Which provider (Oledb, ODP.NET, etc..) should I use? How to make the connection to the server in C#? Right now I have this: <appSettings> <add key="conn" value="Data Source=10.211.55.11;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=l3gion;Password=l3gion;" /> </appSettings> And at the .cs file: SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand("insert_thing", new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["conn"])); cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; *insert_thing is a stored procedure Using this I got this error: A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) I've searched for some possible solutions. Tried some, including: firewall disabled, allow remote connection at oracle express edition using this cmd line ("EXEC DBMS_XDB.SETLISTENERLOCALACCESS(FALSE);").. The error persists. Can anyone guide me into the right direction? I'm a newbie with this type of things. Thank you for your patience. regards

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  • Windows 7 logon script net use fails

    - by Bryan
    Our network PCs currently consists of Windows XP Professional on a mixed 2008/2003 domain, with exception to one machine, which is a new Windows 7 PC we have bought for testing before we deploy the operating system. But we have discovered a problem with our logon script which automatically maps network drives for our users. The logon scripts are done via User GPOs, but the script itself is just a .cmd file using net use. The permissions are perfectly fine, as the same user can log on to a Windows XP machine and get their drives mapped without problem, but this one drive mapping constantly fails. This is repeatable using the net use command, and fails every time - it actually prompts the user for a username and password when executed interactively, yet if we enter \\server\share from a run dialog, the contents of the network share appear and are accessible without any further authentication. The Windows 7 PC (just like the XP systems) are domain members and the account being used is a domain account, which does have access to the share (as stated, it works fine on XP). I fail to understand what is happening here, as other shares on the server get mapped on the Windows 7 system. More info: The effective permissions of the share in question only grant the user 'list' permission on the root directory, the share permissions are 'everyone,full control'. I've created a new share with the same permissions just to test if it was down to the 'list' permissions on the root directory, but the Windows 7 machine maps this one fine.

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  • Why LINQ to Entities won't let me initialize just some properties of an Entity?

    - by emzero
    So I've started to add Entity Framework 4 into a legacy web application (ASP.NET WebForms). As a start I have auto-generated some entities from the database. Also I want to apply Repository Pattern. There is an entity called Visitor and its repository VisitorRepository In VisitorRepository I have the following method: public IEnumerable<Visitor> GetActiveVisitors() { var visitors = from v in _context.Visitors where v.IsActive select new Visitor { VisitorID = v.VisitorID, EmailAddress = v.EmailAddress, RegisterDate = v.RegisterDate, Company = v.Company, Position = v.Position, FirstName = v.FirstName, LastName = v.LastName }; return visitors.ToList(); } That List is then bound to a repeater and when trying to do <%# Eval('EmailAddress') #%> it throws the following exception. The entity or complex type 'Model.Visitor' cannot be constructed in a LINQ to Entities query. A) Why is this happening? How I can workaround this? Do I need to select an anonymous type and then use that to initialize my entities??? B) Why every example I've seen makes use of 'select new' (anonymous object) instead of initializing a known type? Anonymous types are useless unless you are retrieving the data and showing it in the same layer. As far as I know anonymous types cannot be returned from methods? So what's the real point of them??? Thank you all

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  • Explicit casting doesn't work in default model binding

    - by Felix
    I am using ASP.NET MVC2 and Entity Framework. I am going to simplify the situation a little; hopefully it will make it clearer, not more confusing! I have a controller action to create address, and the country is a lookup table (in other words, there is a one-to-many relationship between Country and Address classes). Let's say for clarity that the field in the Address class is called Address.Land. And, for the purposes of the dropdown list, I am getting Country.CountryID and Country.Name. I am aware of Model vs. Input validation. So, if I call the dropdown field formLand - I can make it work. But if I call the field Land (that is, matching the variable in Address class) - I am getting the following error: "The parameter conversion from type 'System.String' to type 'App.Country' failed because no type converter can convert between these types." OK, this makes sense. A string (CountryID) comes from the form and the binder doesn't know how to convert it to Country type. So, I wrote the converter: namespace App { public partial class Country { public static explicit operator Country(string countryID) { AppEntities context = new AppEntities(); Country country = (Country) context.GetObjectByKey( new EntityKey("AppEntities.Countries", "CountryID", countryID)); return country; } } } FWIW, I tried both explicit and implicit. I tested it from the controller - Country c = (Country)"fr" - and it works fine. However, it never got invoked when the View is posted. I am getting the same "no type converter" error in the model. Any ideas how to hint to the model binder that there is a type converter? Thanks

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  • How do I eliminate Error 3002?

    - by Andrew
    Say I have the following table definitions in SQL Server 2008: CREATE TABLE Person (PersonId INT IDENTITY NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, Name VARCHAR(50) NOT NULL, ManyMoreIrrelevantColumns VARCHAR(MAX) NOT NULL) CREATE TABLE Model (ModelId INT IDENTITY NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, ModelName VARCHAR(50) NOT NULL, Description VARCHAR(200) NULL) CREATE TABLE ModelScore (ModelId INT NOT NULL REFERENCES Model (ModelId), Score INT NOT NULL, Definition VARCHAR(100) NULL, PRIMARY KEY (ModelId, Score)) CREATE TABLE PersonModelScore (PersonId INT NOT NULL REFERENCES Person (PersonId), ModelId INT NOT NULL, Score INT NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (PersonId, ModelId), FOREIGN KEY (ModelId, Score) REFERENCES ModelScore (ModelId, Score)) The idea here is that each Person may have only one ModelScore per Model, but each Person may have a score for any number of defined Models. As far as I can tell, this SQL should enforce these constraints naturally. The ModelScore has a particular "meaning," which is contained in the Definition. Nothing earth-shattering there. Now, I try translating this into Entity Framework using the designer. After updating the model from the database and doing some editing, I have a Person object, a Model object, and a ModelScore object. PersonModelScore, being a join table, is not an object but rather is included as an association with some other name (let's say ModelScorePersonAssociation). The mapping details for the association are as follows: - Association - Maps to PersonModelScore - ModelScore ModelId : Int32 <=> ModelId : int Score : Int32 <=> Score : int - Person PersonId : Int32 <=> PersonId : int On the right-hand side, the ModelId and PersonId values have primary key symbols, but the Score value does not. Upon compilation, I get: Error 3002: Problem in Mapping Fragment starting at line 5190: Potential runtime violation of table PersonModelScore's keys (PersonModelScore.ModelId, PersonModelScore.PersonId): Columns (PersonModelScore.PersonId, PersonModelScore.ModelId) are mapped to EntitySet ModelScorePersonAssociation's properties (ModelScorePersonAssociation.Person.PersonId, ModelScorePersonAssociation.ModelScore.ModelId) on the conceptual side but they do not form the EntitySet's key properties (ModelScorePersonAssociation.ModelScore.ModelId, ModelScorePersonAssociation.ModelScore.Score, ModelScorePersonAssociation.Person.PersonId). What have I done wrong in the designer or otherwise, and how can I fix the error? Many thanks!

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  • Linq to Entities and POCO foreign key relations mapping (1 to 0..1) problem

    - by brainnovative
    For my ASP.NET MVC 2 application I use Entity Framework 1.0 as my data access layer (repository). But I decided I want to return POCO. For the first time I have encountered a problem when I wanted to get a list of Brands with their optional logos. Here's what I did: public IQueryable<Model.Products.Brand> GetAll() { IQueryable<Model.Products.Brand> brands = from b in EntitiesCtx.Brands.Include("Logo") select new Model.Products.Brand() { BrandId = b.BrandId, Name = b.Name, Description = b.Description, IsActive = b.IsActive, Logo = /*b.Logo != null ? */new Model.Cms.Image() { ImageId = b.Logo.ImageId, Alt = b.Logo.Alt, Url = b.Logo.Url }/* : null*/ }; return brands; } You can see in the comments what I would like to achieve. It worked fine whenever a Brand had a Logo otherwise it through an exception that you can assign null to the non-nullable type int (for Id). My workaround was to use nullable in the POCO class but that's not natural - then I have to check not only if Logo is null in my Service layer or Controllers and Views but mostly for Logo.ImageId.HasValue. It's not justified to have a non null Logo property if the id is null. Can anyone think of a better solution?

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  • Idiomatic default sort using WCF RIA, EF4, Silverlight?

    - by Duncan Bayne
    I've got two Silverlight 4.0 ComboBoxes; the second displays the children of the entity selected in the first: <ComboBox Name="cmbThings" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Things,Mode=TwoWay}" DisplayMemberPath="Name" SelectionChanged="CmbThingsSelectionChanged" /> <ComboBox Name="cmbChildThings" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=SelectedThing.ChildThings,Mode=TwoWay}" DisplayMemberPath="Name" /> The code behind the view provides a (simple, hacky) way to databind those ComboBoxes, by loading Entity Framework 4.0 entities through a WCF RIA service: public EntitySet<Thing> Things { get; private set; } public Thing SelectedThing { get; private set; } protected override void OnNavigatedTo(NavigationEventArgs e) { var context = new SortingDomainContext(); context.Load(context.GetThingsQuery()); context.Load(context.GetChildThingsQuery()); Things = context.Things; DataContext = this; } private void CmbThingsSelectionChanged(object sender, SelectionChangedEventArgs e) { SelectedThing = (Thing) cmbThings.SelectedItem; if (PropertyChanged != null) { PropertyChanged.Invoke(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("SelectedThing")); } } public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; What I'd like to do is have both combo boxes sort their contents alphabetically, and I'd like to specify that behaviour in the XAML if at all possible. Could someone please tell me what is the idiomatic way of doing this with the SL4 / EF4 / WCF RIA technology stack?

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  • Why is ExecuteFunction method only available through base.ExecuteFunction in a child class of Object

    - by Matt
    I'm trying to call ObjectContext.ExecuteFunction from my objectcontext object in the repository of my site. The repository is generic, so all I have is an ObjectContext object, rather than one that actually represents my specific one from the Entity Framework. Here's an example of code that was generated that uses the ExecuteFunction method: [global::System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCode("System.Data.Entity.Design.EntityClassGenerator", "4.0.0.0")] public global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectResult<ArtistSearchVariation> FindSearchVariation(string source) { global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectParameter sourceParameter; if ((source != null)) { sourceParameter = new global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectParameter("Source", source); } else { sourceParameter = new global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectParameter("Source", typeof(string)); } return base.ExecuteFunction<ArtistSearchVariation>("FindSearchVariation", sourceParameter); } But what I would like to do is something like this... public class Repository<E, C> : IRepository<E, C>, IDisposable where E : EntityObject where C : ObjectContext { private readonly C _ctx; // ... public ObjectResult<E> ExecuteFunction(string functionName, params[]) { // Create object parameters return _ctx.ExecuteFunction<E>(functionName, /* parameters */) } } Anyone know why I have to call ExecuteFunction from base instead of _ctx? Also, is there any way to do something like I've written out? I would really like to keep my repository generic, but with having to execute stored procedures it's looking more and more difficult... Thanks, Matt

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  • How to tell what name RIA Services/EF Model uses for Associations?

    - by Nick Gotch
    Hi, I'm working on a C#.NET 3.5 WCF RIA Services app and having an issue with my Entity Framework model. My entity Foo is mapped to a DB table and has a primary key called FooId. My Bar is mapped to a DB view. I've selectively designed this view to generate a composite key in the EF using two of the columns (by making sure they were non-nullable and the others are all nullable. This was done using NULLIF and ISNULL in the view design.) I'm able to add this view to the model with no problem but I keep running into an issue when I try to map an association between the two. Foo should contain many Bars but I keep getting the following error when I add the association: Unable to retrieve AssociationType for association 'FK_Bar_Foo' According to this page, it looks like this might work if I can properly name the association (since RIA Services looks for specific names.) I've tried several variants of names that match the pattern of other associations with no success. Does anyone know if there's a place I can look to find out what name it's looking for? Thanks,

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  • How much business logic belongs in RIA services layer?

    - by jkohlhepp
    I have been experimenting recently with Silverlight, RIA Services, and Entity Framework using .NET 4.0. I'm trying to figure out if that stack makes sense for use in any of my upcoming projects. It certainly seems like these technologies can be very productive for developing applications, but I'm struggling to decide how an application on top of this stack should be architected. The main issue I have is that in most of the demos I've seen most of the business logic ends up as DataAnnotations and custom validations in the RIA Services domain service class. This seems inappropriate to me. I view the domain service as basically a glorified web service that happens to make it easy to push information to the client. But most of what I've seen seems to orient the domain service as the main source of business logic in the application. So, my questions: What is the best location for business logic (rules, validations, behaviors, authorization) in an application using this stack? Are there any guidelines published at an architectural level for using this stack? My questions pertain to large, complex, and long-lived applications. Obviously for an application of only a few screens this is less of a concern. Edit: Another thing I meant to mention is that obviously you can make the domain service class stupid, but then you lose a lot of the automagic entity information (e.g. validations) being pushed to the client. And then if you lose that is there any point to using RIA services?

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  • How do I add ROW_NUMBER to a LINQ query or Entity?

    - by Whozumommy
    I'm stumped by this easy data problem. I'm using the Entity framework and have a database of products. My results page returns a paginated list of these products. Right now my results are ordered by the number of sales of each product, so my code looks like this: return Products.OrderByDescending(u => u.Sales.Count()); This returns an IQueryable dataset of my entities, sorted by the number of sales. I want my results page to show the rank of each product (in the dataset). My results should look like this: Page #1 1. Bananas 2. Apples 3. Coffee Page #2 4. Cookies 5. Ice Cream 6. Lettuce I'm expecting that I just want to add a column in my results using the SQL ROW_NUMBER variable...but I don't know how to add this column to my results datatable. My resulting page does contain a foreach loop, but since I'm using a paginated set I'm guessing using that number to fake a ranking number would NOT be the best approach. So my question is, how do I add a ROW_NUMBER column to my query results in this case?

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  • Deep copy objects from different namespaces

    - by Wasim
    Hi all, I have the following situation: I have class User with the follwing properies : public class User { string user name ; List <Contact> contacts ; List <BookMark> book marks; . . . } I have the same class in a different namespace , with some different properties . BWT , it's the same situation of it's classes (Contact) and (BookMark). I need to make a deep copy of the same properties from the two classes . Actually , I arrive to this situation by having an Entity Framework edmx file . I created the first database (SQL server 2008) from this model . And copied he same edmx file to another project and created the database with SQL CE db. Now I get the first data model objects by WCF service and need to persist them in the local database in my application . The objects are the same but there are some changs because of the modeling issue with a different databse. Do you have any workarround about this assue. Thanks in advance ...

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  • Breeze Expand not working on WebAPI with EF

    - by Rodney
    I have published a WebAPI service which returns a list of items. I am implementing Breeze and have managed to get it basically working with filtering/sorting. However, the Expand is not working. http://www.ftter.com/desktopmodules/framework/api/dare/dares/?$filter=DareId%20eq%2010&expand%20eq%20ToUser You can see the ToUserId ForeignKey in the response above, but the ToUser properties are NULL (the user definitely exists) You can see the ToUser EF navigation property in the metadata. When I use .Include on the server side I can populate it with EF, but I don't want to do this. [HttpGet] [Queryable(AllowedQueryOptions = AllowedQueryOptions.All)] public HttpResponseMessage Dares() { var response = Request.CreateResponse(HttpStatusCode.OK, (IQueryable<Dare>)contextProvider.Context.Dares); return ControllerUtilities.GetResponseWithCorsHeader(response); } and here is the generated class from my EF model (using Database First) public partial class Dare { public int DareId { get; set; } public int ToUserId { get; set; } public virtual User ToUser { get; set; } }

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  • Effective books for learning the intricacies of business application development?

    - by OffApps Cory
    I am a self taught "developer". I use the term loosely because I only know enough to make myself dangerous. I have no theory background, and I only pick up things to get this little tool to work or make that control do what I want. That said, I am looking for some reading material that explains some of the theory behind application development especially from a business standpoint. Really I need to understand what all of these terms that float around really talk about. Business Logic Layer, UI abstraction level and all that. Anyone got a reading list that they feel helped them understand this stuff? I know how to code stuff up so that it works. It is not pretty mostly because I don't know the elegant way of doing it, and it is not planned out very well (I also don't know how to plan an application). Any help would be appreciated. I have read a number of books on what I thought was the subject, but they all seem to rehash basic coding and what-not. This doesn't have to be specific to VB.NET or WPF (or Entity Framework) but anything with those items would be quite helpful.

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  • SQL Server CE rollback does not undo delete.

    - by INTPnerd
    I am using SQL Server CE 3.5 and C# with the .NET Compact Framework 3.5. In my code I am inserting a row, then starting a transaction, then deleting that row from a table, and then doing a rollback on that transaction. But this does not undo the deletion. Why not? Here is my code: SqlCeConnection conn = ConnectionSingleton.Instance; conn.Open(); UsersTable table = new UsersTable(); table.DeleteAll(); MessageBox.Show("user count in beginning after delete: " + table.CountAll()); table.Insert( new User(){Id = 0, IsManager = true, Pwd = "1234", Username = "Me"}); MessageBox.Show("user count after insert: " + table.CountAll()); SqlCeTransaction transaction = conn.BeginTransaction(); table.DeleteAll(); transaction.Rollback(); transaction.Dispose(); MessageBox.Show("user count after rollback delete all: " + table.CountAll()); The messages indicate that everything works as expected until the very end where the table has a count of 0 indicating the rollback did not undo the deletion.

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  • Login fails when recreating database with Code First

    - by Mun
    I'm using ASP.NET Entity Framework's Code First to create my database from the model, and the login seems to fail when the database needs to be recreated after the model changes. In Global.asax, I've got the following: protected void Application_Start() { Database.SetInitializer(new DropCreateDatabaseIfModelChanges<EntriesContext>()); // ... } In my controller, I've got the following: public ActionResult Index() { // This is just to force the database to be created var context = new EntriesContext(); var all = (from e in context.Entries select e).ToList(); } When the database doesn't exist, it is created with no problems. However, when I make a change to the model, rebuild and refresh, I get the following error: Login failed for user 'sa'. My connection string looks like this: <add name="EntriesContext" connectionString="Server=(LOCAL);Database=MyDB;User Id=sa;Password=password" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> The login definitely works as I can connect to the server and the database from Management Studio using these credentials. If I delete the database manually, everything works correctly and the database is recreated as expected with the schema reflecting the changes made to the model. It seems like either the password or access to the database is being lost. Is there something else I need to do to get this working?

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  • How do I get my Windows Forms application to use a custom main function and get access to the Applic

    - by burble
    Hi Folks I am trying to use a Main () function in a class to control the program flow in my vb .net Windows Forms application. I have added a splash screen component and a login screen, and customised my main sdi form. I have set the startup form to be my main function in the Application Page of the Project Designer, and everything seems to work fine(ish). However, I would like to use: Me.MinimumSplashScreenDisplayTime = 5000 to ensure that the splash screen is visible, but it is not recognised by the system unless I tick the Enable Application Framework check box on the Project Designer. If I do this, on startup the program ignores the login and splash screens and all my customisation and just displays a default Form1, even though I have also specified my splash screen in the AF dropdown list. Of course, there are alternative ways to delay a splash screen, such as putting the thread temporarily to sleep (which didn't seem to work), but I suspect that there are other things in the AF that I may want to use. Any suggestions on how I can get round this please, and get a sensible means of controlling program flow? Any thoughts on the best overall structure for organising program flow would also be helpful too. I am concerned both about going down a Microsoft or an alternative custom route that may cause me problems later, as the application becomes more complex. Thankses.

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