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  • "Dictionary problem." Error with VMPlayer

    - by George Mauer
    I'm pretty new to using vmware virtualization (been a virtualbox user) so I'm hoping you guys can help me out. I recently got an external usb disk containing a vm for a client, downloaded vmplayer, set it up with "Open a Virtual Machine", ran it, easy as pie. After working with it a bit this morning, I shut the VM down and now trying to start it back up again I get this: I tried removing the vm from my library, now it happens whenever I try to add it back in. In the meantime, I can still access other virtual machines so it seems like the problem might be with the virtual disk. So two questions: This is obviously not a very helpful error message. Where can I go to get more information? My Application EventLog doesn't contain anything from VMWare. What steps can I take to fix the problem? Edit: A couple more pieces of information. I did not take any snapshots. I don't think VM Player even has that ability. I have a zip file of (what I assume) is the state of the VM when it was sent to me. I cannot unzip it as it is huge and simply requires more HD space than I have available but I did extract the vmx file and examine it. Other than the UUIDs and the fact that mine reads cleanShutdown = "FALSE" they are identical. The log contains the following lines Jun 23 10:11:18.080: vmx| SNAPSHOT: SnapshotConfigInfoRead: Unable to load dict from 'E:....\MachineName.vmsd'. Jun 23 10:11:18.080: vmx| SNAPSHOT: SnapshotConfigInfoRead failed for file 'E:....\MachineName.vmx': Dictionary problem (6) Jun 23 10:11:18.082: vmx| SNAPSHOT: Snapshot_TimeStampTiers failed: Dictionary problem (6)

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  • Juniper SSG20 IP settings for email server

    - by codemonkie
    We have 5 usable external static IP addresses leased by our ISP: .49 to .53, where .49 is assigned to the Juniper SSG20 firewall and NATed for 172.16.10.0/24 .50 is assigned to a windows box for web server and domain controller .51 is assigned to another windows box with exchange server (domain: mycompany1.com) mx record is pointing to 20x.xx.xxx.51 Currently there is a policy set for all SMTP incoming traffic addressed to .51 forward to the NATed address of the exchange server box (private IP: 172.16.10.194). We can send and receive emails for both internal and external, but the gmail is saying mails from mycomany1.com is not sent from the same IP as the mx lookup however is from 20x.xx.xxx.49: Received-SPF: neutral (google.com: 20x.xx.xxx.49 is neither permitted nor denied by best guess record for domain of [email protected]) client-ip=20x.xx.xxx.49; Authentication-Results: mx.google.com; spf=neutral (google.com: 20x.xx.xxx.49 is neither permitted nor denied by best guess record for domain of [email protected]) [email protected] and the mx record in global dns space as well as in the domain controller .50 for mail.mycompany1.com is set to 20x.xx.xxx.51 My attempt to resolve the above issue is to Update the mx record from 20x.xx.xxx.51 to 20x.xx.xxx.49 Create a new VIP for SMTP traffic addressed to 20x.xx.xxx.49 to forward to 172.16.10.194 After my changes incoming email stopped working, I believe it has something to do with the Juniper setting that SMTP addressed to .49 is not forwarded to 172.16.10.194 Also, I have been wondering is it mandatory to assign an external static IP address to the Juniper firewall? Any helps appreciated. TIA

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  • IIS 7 much slower than IIS 6

    - by JoeJoe
    I have a asp.net 3.5 web application running fine on Windows2003 IIS6. I published same exact application to IIS7.5 (Win2008R2) on a faster box (i5,8Gram) and it is significantly slower. 5-6 sec per page vs. 1-2 sec per page. During that time the Task Mgr CPU is always under 10%. Both attach to same database on other box. Benchmark is consistent from any other client browser or machine. I have connection pool on both, compression on both. Same network subnet. Forms authentication (no SSL yet). Can you give me steps on how to troubleshoot where the delays are being inserted or settings in IIS7 that I may have overlooked. Just using defaults. There is only 1 web site on each box. I understand the roles of an Application as defined in IIS has changed. There is no special Application defined in IIS.

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  • How can I get write permission for the Web (Inetpub) directory on a new Win 7 machine?

    - by marcipollo
    I mirror my Web site on my laptop, and am trying to move the mirror site to a new laptop. I copied the files to the Inetpub directory, and can view them perfectly, but they are read-only (the check-mark is grey, not black), and I cannot change the permission. When I un-check the read-only attribute on the Inetpub directory, and click "apply" it displays a dialog box stating that I need administrative permission to change the attributes. (I am logged in as an administrator). When I click "continue," it pops up another dialog box saying access is denied to the attributes of the file: c:\inetpub\custerr\en-us\500-100.asp That dialog box has an "ignore" button, and if I click that, it appears to work through the directory tree setting the permissions. It leaves all of the files (leafs) set to "read-write," but the directories remain "read only." I am using 64-bit Windows 7. I stopped the IIS service while doing all of this. Might it have something to do with the fact that I copied the files from a different machine in the workgroup (my old laptop)?

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  • wireless to wired internet

    - by Mark T
    My wife uses an old computer which doesn't really like having an internet connection via a USB wireless adapter. I've tried several, and none have been satisfactory. The connection gets dropped often and it is frustrating for her. A wireless card also had the same trouble. Repositioning the computer made no difference. (Two laptops, nearby, connect just fine and stay up, so it isn't the router.) However, the computer always worked well when I had an Ethernet cable connected to it. I know there is a box which will connect to my wireless network and provide an Ethernet cable connection. But the terminology used is so complex, I can't tell what it is I really need. In case that wasn't clear, here it is in different words: What I need is just the opposite of a wireless router. My wireless router takes my cable modem's Ethernet connection and makes it available to wireless clients. What I want is a box which is a wireless client to my wireless router and provides an Ethernet cable connection that I can connect to any device. I need to know the right name for a box with such capabilities. If you know of some inexpensive examples, that would also be helpful. I'm running a wireless G network with a Linksys Router.

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  • is there a way to run a command before puppet implements a change?

    - by Patrick
    I want to have puppet run a specific command before performing any type of change. I am aware of the prerun_command option in the main puppet.conf, but this is not what I'm looking for. I want the command to only run if something is about to change, not on every puppet run. Here's the scenario. Let's say I have a bunch of web servers behind a load balancer. I then want puppet to update the web site files. But in order to prevent issues where some files have been updated, but other files haven't, and the mixed versions causing problems, I want to take the server out of the load balancer pool. I could write a script which when run will tell the load balancer to remove the box from the pool. Then puppet can do the change, and use postrun_command to put the box back in the pool once complete. But I need a way to run that script to remove the server from the pool. The only solution I can think of is to keep 2 copies of the files on the box. One a staging copy, and when puppet updates that, use a notify action to trigger the removal script, and then copy from staging into the live location. But I was hoping for something a little more generic that would work on any change being performed (upgrading a package, restarting a service, creating a user, anything).

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  • D-Link wireless router losing outbound data

    - by gsteinert
    I have a Linux box running the Apache web server behind a D-Link wireless router (nothing fancy, just standard kit that comes with Virgin Media broadband). My issue is that when requesting web pages (from within the network or via the web), the back end of the page seems to be being dropped. For example, I tried to display a text-only file, and all I could get was the first 40-70% of the file (it changed slightly with each refresh). The apache access logs show that only part of the data was being sent (~6000 bytes instead of the 12000+ bytes of the file). Removing my router from the equation fixes the issue and I can download any files no matter the size with no problems. My theory is that the uploaded packets are either being dropped or held up by the config of the router. Is there anything I can do to alleviate the problem? (Perhaps a way of reconfiguring the router to upload packets harder/better/faster/stronger or an option in apache that provides a workaround) As a last resort I will get a second NIC for my Linux box and turn it into a router, but that would mean the box will be on 24/7... not the most ideal of circumstances. Gary

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  • Remote Desktop connection to vista vs. xp

    - by CMP
    I am trying to log into my work computer remotely. I am using Windows 7 on my laptop. I have created a vpn connection to the network, and I am doing a remote desktop connection directly to the ip of my box (192.168.xxx.yyy). If I do a remote connection to a different box, running xp, it goes into remote desktop mode immediately and I see the windows login dialog as I am used to seeing. If I try remoting to my box, which is running vista, I do not see the remote desktop mode, but an additional dialog on my local machine asking for my credentials. It defaults in my local username. It allows me to log in as a different user, but the domain it has is still my local domain, not my work domain, so none of my usernames or passwords work. There doesn't appear to be a way to change the domain. Trying to hit several more boxes, it appears to act differently on xp and vista target machines. I feel like this must be a configuration issue, but I am not sure what the problem is. Any idea on how I can connect?

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  • How to connect android client to the localhost of Apache server (php) inside my laptop?

    - by user1796310
    I'm trying to create android apps which able sending data through wifi connection to my laptop Apache Server and MySQL database. I use the samsung galaxy tab 10.1 as my mobile device. and the protocol i used is HttpGet or HttpPost. And i use XAMPP( with Apache& SQL) to do the server and process the php. But, due to android cannot detect adhoc network from laptop, i use Virtual Router ( for window 7) to create virtual access point and make the tablet able connect to my laptop. But the problem is: [1] in my apps (client-android), where the httpget or httppost to which url? localhost in my laptop- 127.0.0.1 or localhost in android 10.0.0.1? or the ip address of the virtual router? [2]so, if i want access from android to the localhost(laptop-Apache) to call the php to run? which port? which ip address /url that i need to put in android apps(httpget)? and do i need to modify anything in httpconfig for XAMPP? thanks alot.

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  • What is the alternative of Apache's global Alias in IIS? (e.g. Alias /phpMyAdmin "c:/AppServ/www/phpMyAdmin")

    - by Sk8erPeter
    I know there's an "Add Virtual Directory..." option in every given sites in IIS with which I can set up e.g. phpMyAdmin's path to be reached with prepending /phpmyadmin to the address (e.g. http://example.com/phpmyadmin), but isn't there a "global" setting similar to Apache's Alias? For example, in Apache this setting looks like this: <IfModule mod_alias.c> Alias /phpMyAdmin "c:/AppServ/www/phpMyAdmin" Alias /phpmyadmin "c:/AppServ/www/phpMyAdmin" </IfModule> This way I reach phpmyadmin with every hosts. (http://example1.com/phpmyadmin, http://example2.com/phpmyadmin also does work) But in IIS, do I have to add a virtual directory to every sites? I'm just curious, because we would like to serve some domain's content, so there would be multiple sites. It would be more comfortable to do it once (or have the opportunity to remove it once), but if I have to, I do add a virtual directory for each sites. (I know, maybe it's the better solution, because I can have a site where I don't want phpmyadmin to be available, but I was just curious.) Thanks in advance!

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  • How many bootable partitions are possible to have on one hard drive?

    - by draiden
    This may not be the correct place to post this; if that's the case, just let me know and point me in the right direction please! I'm thinking of building a box that needs to be lightweight and portable, and would need to be able to boot multiple installations of windows. I am needing to have multiple installations so that I can, for example, plug the box in to the network at one location, boot in to that location's partition, and have full access to everything I would normally need to do on a computer that has already been set up on that network. Then, when I go to the next client, I would be able to do the same thing, with the new location's partition, and have all of those network settings, drive mappings, etc., available there. Obviously I'd need to go through and set them all up on the different locations/networks, I'm not expecting it to magically know where I am and what I'm doing. It would be like I'm carrying around a computer that is configured for each place I need to go in one little box, instead of having to have multiple computers or having to reconfigure all the settings and such every time I go to another client. Or is there an easier way to do this that I haven't learned of?

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  • Redirect without changing URL

    - by Coobadivin
    Here's the setup. We have a hardware load balancer with an http virtual cluster. Let's call this virtual cluster example1.com. This virtual cluster load balances between two squid reverse proxies which are also on the same physical servers as the web servers. Squid listens on 80 and points to itself as the cache_peer web server which listens on 81. We also have a standalone web server which we will call example2.com. What we are trying to do is create a subdirectory on example1.com called example1.com/example2. This will point to example2.com, but we want our users to stay at example1.com/example2 in their browser. So, it's like a redirect without actually being a redirect. How the hell do I go about doing this? Is this even possible? I'm looking at squid docs in the meantime. example1.com is running a proprietary web server - not Apache :( We can't host example2.com's content in example1.com's file system. These are two very different platforms.

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  • How many bootable partitions are possible to have on one hard drive?

    - by draiden
    This may not be the correct place to post this; if that's the case, just let me know and point me in the right direction please! I'm thinking of building a box that needs to be lightweight and portable, and would need to be able to boot multiple installations of windows. I am needing to have multiple installations so that I can, for example, plug the box in to the network at one location, boot in to that location's partition, and have full access to everything I would normally need to do on a computer that has already been set up on that network. Then, when I go to the next client, I would be able to do the same thing, with the new location's partition, and have all of those network settings, drive mappings, etc., available there. Obviously I'd need to go through and set them all up on the different locations/networks, I'm not expecting it to magically know where I am and what I'm doing. It would be like I'm carrying around a computer that is configured for each place I need to go in one little box, instead of having to have multiple computers or having to reconfigure all the settings and such every time I go to another client. Or is there an easier way to do this that I haven't learned of?

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  • Howto detect fake RAM

    - by Michael
    I just bought a virtual server which should have 2GB of RAM. Now i got a server with 4gb which looks very strange to me. I think it is just a virtual RAM. dmidecode only ouputs /dev/mem: Operation not permitted How can i check if it's a real RAM or just a virtual one? free -m outputs: total used free shared buffers cached Mem: 4093 364 3728 0 0 346 -/+ buffers/cache: 18 4074 Swap: 0 0 0 Output from cat /proc/user_beancounters Version: 2.5 uid resource held maxheld barrier limit failcnt 137: kmemsize 8922287 10194944 2145910784 2145910784 0 lockedpages 0 0 523904 523904 0 privvmpages 13387 59112 9223372036854775807 9223372036854775807 0 shmpages 769 785 9223372036854775807 9223372036854775807 0 dummy 0 0 9223372036854775807 9223372036854775807 0 numproc 22 54 9223372036854775807 9223372036854775807 0 physpages 93377 106010 0 1047808 0 vmguarpages 0 0 9223372036854775807 9223372036854775807 0 oomguarpages 2471 2473 9223372036854775807 9223372036854775807 0 numtcpsock 5 21 9223372036854775807 9223372036854775807 0 numflock 4 13 9223372036854775807 9223372036854775807 0 numpty 1 1 9223372036854775807 9223372036854775807 0 numsiginfo 0 39 9223372036854775807 9223372036854775807 0 tcpsndbuf 102592 381632 9223372036854775807 9223372036854775807 0 tcprcvbuf 81920 4820184 9223372036854775807 9223372036854775807 0 othersockbuf 4624 61632 9223372036854775807 9223372036854775807 0 dgramrcvbuf 0 9248 9223372036854775807 9223372036854775807 0 numothersock 39 56 9223372036854775807 9223372036854775807 0 dcachesize 4178917 4232732 1072955392 1072955392 0 numfile 378 535 9223372036854775807 9223372036854775807 0 dummy 0 0 9223372036854775807 9223372036854775807 0 dummy 0 0 9223372036854775807 9223372036854775807 0 dummy 0 0 9223372036854775807 9223372036854775807 0 numiptent 24 24 9223372036854775807 9223372036854775807 0

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  • SSH access to VM on windows 8 hyper-v

    - by samw
    I'm currently attending University and prefer a Linux environment to do much of my work, but all I have is a ThinkPad running Windows 8 Pro. Cygwin is nice, but it leaves me missing things like apt-get. My latest solution is to run an Ubuntu 12.04 VM with Windows 8's Client Hyper-V and use Cygwin for SSH access. I've looked everywhere online trying to set this up, but I haven't found much help. I've done this before using VirtualBox, so I figured this would be possible as well. Could anyone provide advice for setting up this environment? I'm completely uninitiated to Linux networking, virtual networking, and... pretty much all networking configuration, so this has been quite a challenge for me. What I've done so far: Created an external virtual switch to my wireless NIC. With this, I could successfully SSH to the VM with the leased IP address. But without a static IP, I would soon get disconnected. Created an internal virtual switch and attempt to "share" my main internet connection. (I was following the description on this page) Thank you all in advance!

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  • nhibernate mapping: A collection with cascade="all-delete-orphan" was no longer referenced

    - by Chev
    Hi All I am having some probs with my fluent mappings. I have an entity with a child collection of entities i.e Event and EventItems for example. If I set my cascade mapping of the collection to AllDeleteOrphan I get the following error when saving a new entity to the DB: NHibernate.HibernateException : A collection with cascade="all-delete-orphan" was no longer referenced by the owning entity instance: Core.Event.EventItems If I set the cascade to All it works fine? Below are my classes and mapping files: public class EventMap : ClassMap<Event> { public EventMap() { Id(x => x.Id, "Id") .UnsavedValue("00000000-0000-0000-0000-000000000000") .GeneratedBy.GuidComb(); Map(x => x.Name); HasMany(x => x.EventItems) .Inverse() .KeyColumn("EventId") .AsBag() .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan(); } } public class EventItemMap : SubclassMap<EventItem> { public EventItemMap() { Id(x => x.Id, "Id") .UnsavedValue("00000000-0000-0000-0000-000000000000") .GeneratedBy.GuidComb(); References(x => x.Event, "EventId"); } } public class Event : EntityBase { private IList<EventItem> _EventItems; protected Event() { InitMembers(); } public Event(string name) : this() { Name = name; } private void InitMembers() { _EventItems = new List<EventItem>(); } public virtual EventItem CreateEventItem(string name) { EventItem eventItem = new EventItem(this, name); _EventItems.Add(eventItem); return eventItem; } public virtual string Name { get; private set; } public virtual IList<EventItem> EventItems { get { return _EventItems.ToList<EventItem>().AsReadOnly(); } protected set { _EventItems = value; } } } public class EventItem : EntityBase { protected EventItem() { } public EventItem(Event @event, string name):base(name) { Event = @event; } public virtual Event Event { get; private set; } } Pretty stumped here. Any tips greatly appreciated. Chev

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  • C# - null vs "Could not evaluate expression"

    - by Vaccano
    I have code like this: private Box mCurBox; public Box CurBox { get { return mCurBox; } set { if (mCurBox != value) { mCurBox = value; } } } When mCurBox is null then CurBox the debugger says "Could not be evaluated". If it knows that the value underneath is null then how come it can't figure it out?

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  • jQuery AutoComplete select firing after change?

    - by Zarigani
    I'm using the jQuery UI AutoComplete control (just updated to jQuery UI 1.8.1). Whenever the user leaves the text box, I want to set the contents of the text box to a known-good value and set a hidden ID field for the value that was selected. Additionally, I want the page to post back when the contents of the text box are changed. Currently, I am implementing this by having the autocomplete select event set the hidden id and then a change event on the text box which sets the textbox value and, if necessary, causes a post back. If the user just uses the keyboard, this works perfectly. You can type, use the up and down arrows to select a value and then tab to exit. The select event fires, the id is set and then the change event fires and the page posts back. If the user starts typing and then uses the mouse to pick from the autocomplete options though, the change event fires (as focus shifts to the autocomplete menu?) and the page posts back before the select event has a chance to set the ID. Is there a way to get the change event to not fire until after the select event, even when a mouse is used? $(function() { var txtAutoComp_cache = {}; var txtAutoComp_current = { label: $('#txtAutoComp').val(), id: $('#hiddenAutoComp_ID').val() }; $('#txtAutoComp').change(function() { if (this.value == '') { txtAutoComp_current = null; } if (txtAutoComp_current) { this.value = txtAutoComp_current.label ? txtAutoComp_current.label : txtAutoComp_current; $('#hiddenAutoComp_ID').val(txtAutoComp_current.id ? txtAutoComp_current.id : txtAutoComp_current); } else { this.value = ''; $('#hiddenAutoComp_ID').val(''); } // Postback goes here }); $('#txtAutoComp').autocomplete({ source: function(request, response) { var jsonReq = '{ "prefixText": "' + request.term.replace('\\', '\\\\').replace('"', '\\"') + '", "count": 0 }'; if (txtAutoComp_cache.req == jsonReq && txtAutoComp_cache.content) { response(txtAutoComp_cache.content); return; } $.ajax({ url: 'ajaxLookup.asmx/CatLookup', contentType: 'application/json; charset=utf-8', dataType: 'json', data: jsonReq, type: 'POST', success: function(data) { txtAutoComp_cache.req = jsonReq; txtAutoComp_cache.content = data.d; response(data.d); if (data.d && data.d[0]) { txtAutoComp_current = data.d[0]; } } }); }, select: function(event, ui) { if (ui.item) { txtAutoComp_current = ui.item; } $('#hiddenAutoComp_ID').val(ui.item ? ui.item.id : ''); } }); });

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  • javascript csv validation

    - by Hulk
    How to check for comma separated values in a text box and raise an alert if not found. And there is should be characters in it like A,B,C,D function validate() { //validate text box; } <input type="text" id="val" >A,B,C,D</input> <input type="button" id="save" onclick="validate()"> Thanks.

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  • MS Access 2003 - Embedded Excel Spreadsheet on Access form

    - by Justin
    lets say I have an embedded Excel Spreadsheet on a Microsoft Access form. I call the object frame ExcelFrame and I add a text box on the form called txtA1 and I add a button on the form called cmdInsert I want to type "Hello World" into the text box, click the button and have it appear in the A1 cell on that spreadsheet. What VBA do I use to accomplish this? Thanks

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  • How to receive modified model value in MVC's Post method?

    - by kapil
    HI, Does anyone know how can I receive the modified model value which I have bound to controls on view page. For instance I have used a text box on view, as follows- <%=Html.TextBoxFor(model => Model.firstName, new { id = "txtFirstName"})%> But in my post method I am not able to receive the modified value from the text box. Any solution? Thanks, Kapil

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  • Create Dialog with user Input

    - by cmptrer
    Is it possible to create an AlertDialog, or custom Dialog wit an EditText box? If not, how do I make an activity window floatable. What I want to do is show a screen with some text, a small box for the user to enter a couple digits, and then a submit and cancel button, and am trying to find out the best way to do this.

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  • Nhibernate: One-To-Many mapping problem - Cannot cascade delete without inverse. Set NULL error

    - by KnaveT
    Hi, I have the current scenario whereby an Article has only 1 Outcome each. Each Article may or may not have an Outcome. In theory, this is a one-to-one mapping, but since NHibernate does not really support one-to-one, I used a One-To-Many to substitute. My Primary Key on the child table is actually the ArticleID (FK). So I have the following setup: Classes public class Article { public virtual Int32 ID { get;set;} private ICollection<ArticleOutcome> _Outcomes {get;set;} public virtual ArticleOutcome Outcome { get { if( this._Outcomes !=null && this._Outcomes.Count > 0 ) return this._Outcomes.First(); return null; } set { if( value == null ) { if( this._Outcomes !=null && this._Outcomes.Count > 0 ) this._Outcomes.Clear(); } else { if( this._Outcomes == null ) this._Outcomes = new HashSet<ArticleOutcome>(); else if ( this._Outcomes.Count >= 1 ) this._Outcomes.Clear(); this._Outcomes.Add( value ); } } } } public class ArticleOutcome { public virtual Int32 ID { get;set; } public virtual Article ParentArticle { get;set;} } Mappings public class ArticleMap : ClassMap<Article> { public ArticleMap() { this.Id( x=> x.ID ).GeneratedBy.Identity(); this.HasMany<ArticleOutcome>( Reveal.Property<Article>("_Outcomes") ) .AsSet().KeyColumn("ArticleID") .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() //Cascade.All() doesn't work too. .LazyLoad() .Fetch.Select(); } } public class ArticleOutcomeMap : ClassMap<ArticleOutcome> { public ArticleOutcomeMap(){ this.Id( x=> x.ID, "ArticleID").GeneratedBy.Foreign("ParentArticle"); this.HasOne( x=> x.ParentArticle ).Constrained (); //This do not work also. //this.References( x=> x.ParentArticle, "ArticleID" ).Not.Nullable(); } } Now my problem is this: It works when I do an insert/update of the Outcome. e.g. var article = new Article(); article.Outcome = new ArticleOutcome { xxx = "something" }; session.Save( article ); However, I encounter SQL errors when attempting to delete via the Article itself. var article = session.Get( 123 ); session.Delete( article ); //throws SQL error. The error is something to the like of Cannot insert NULL into ArticleID in ArticleOutcome table. The deletion works if I place Inverse() to the Article's HasMany() mapping, but insertion will fail. Does anyone have a solution for this? Or do I really have to add a surrogate key to the ArticleOutcome table?

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  • Is MVVM pointless?

    - by joebeazelman
    Is orthodox MVVM implementation pointless? I am creating a new application and I considered Windows Forms and WPF. I chose WPF because it's future-proof and offer lots of flexibility. There is less code and easier to make significant changes to your UI using XAML. Since the choice for WPF is obvious, I figured that I may as well go all the way by using MVVM as my application architecture since it offers blendability, separation concerns and unit testability. Theoretically, it seems beautiful like the holy grail of UI programming. This brief adventure; however, has turned into a real headache. As expected in practice, I’m finding that I’ve traded one problem for another. I tend to be an obsessive programmer in that I want to do things the right way so that I can get the right results and possibly become a better programmer. The MVVM pattern just flunked my test on productivity and has just turned into a big yucky hack! The clear case in point is adding support for a Modal dialog box. The correct way is to put up a dialog box and tie it to a view model. Getting this to work is difficult. In order to benefit from the MVVM pattern, you have to distribute code in several places throughout the layers of your application. You also have to use esoteric programming constructs like templates and lamba expressions. Stuff that makes you stare at the screen scratching your head. This makes maintenance and debugging a nightmare waiting to happen as I recently discovered. I had an about box working fine until I got an exception the second time I invoked it, saying that it couldn’t show the dialog box again once it is closed. I had to add an event handler for the close functionality to the dialog window, another one in the IDialogView implementation of it and finally another in the IDialogViewModel. I thought MVVM would save us from such extravagant hackery! There are several folks out there with competing solutions to this problem and they are all hacks and don’t provide a clean, easily reusable, elegant solution. Most of the MVVM toolkits gloss over dialogs and when they do address them, they are just alert boxes that don’t require custom interfaces or view models. I’m planning on giving up on the MVVM view pattern, at least its orthodox implementation of it. What do you think? Has it been worth the trouble for you if you had any? Am I just a incompetent programmer or does MVVM not what it's hyped up to be?

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  • Make CSRF middleware work in Django's 404 error pages

    - by jack
    I put a login box alone with a keyword search box in 404.html in a Django project so in case a 404 error is raised, visitors get more options to jump to other parts. But the CSRF middleware doesn't work in 404 error page with no csrf token rendered. I tried move 'django.middleware.csrf.CsrfViewMiddleware' to first of MIDDLEWARE_CLASSES in settings.py but did not work either. Anyone knows a solution?

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