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  • What is the best way to automatically transpose a LilyPond source file into multiple keys?

    - by Michael Steele
    problem I'm using LilyPond to typeset sheet music for a church choir to perform. Depending on who is available on any given week, songs will be played in various keys. We have an amazing pianist who can play anything we throw at her and the guitarists will typically pencil in alternate chords, but I want to make things easier by having beautifully typeset sheet music available in any key we want. So say we're going to sing our ABCs. First I'll take whatever source transcriptions available and enter it into a LilyPond script: melody = \relative c' { c c g g a a g2 f f e e d d c2 } I want the ability to transpose this automatically, so if I want the whole thing in 'G' I wrap the song in a \transpose call like so: melody = \transpose c g \relative c' { c c g g a a g2 f f e e d d c2 } What I really want is to substitute something for the 'g' and generate the output for melody multiple times. Simple LilyPond variables don't seem to work here, and so far I've been unsuccessful in defining a scheme function to do this. What I've resorted to for the moment is taking the above file, call it twinkle.ly and turning it into an M4 script called twinkle.ly.m4, the contents of which look like this: melody = \transpose c _key \relative c' { c c g g a a g2 f f e e d d c2 } I then compile the while thing by executing the following line: > m4 -D _key=g twinkle.ly.m4 > twinkle_g.ly && lilypond twinkle_g.ly I've written a Makefile to do this for me, defining rules for every song I have and every key I'm interested in. question There's got to be a better way of going about this. Given that Lilypond supports embedded scheme, I would prefer to not use a macro preprocessed on it. Has anybody else come up with a solution to this same problem?

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  • What's the most concise cross-browser way to access an <iframe> element's window and document?

    - by Bungle
    I'm trying to figure out the best way to access an <iframe> element's window and document properties from a parent page. The <iframe> may be created via JavaScript or accessed via a reference stored in an object property or a variable, so, if I understand correctly, that rules out the use of document.frames. I've seen this done a number of ways, but I'm unsure about the best approach. Given an <iframe> created in this way: var iframe = document.createElement('iframe'); document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0].appendChild(iframe); I'm currently using this to access the document, and it seems to work OK across the major browsers: var doc = iframe.contentWindow || iframe.contentDocument; if (doc.document) { doc = doc.document; } I've also see this approach: var iframe = document.getElementById('my_iframe'); iframe = (iframe.contentWindow) ? iframe.contentWindow : (iframe.contentDocument.document) ? iframe.contentDocument.document : iframe.contentDocument; iframe.document.open(); iframe.document.write('Hello World!'); iframe.document.close(); That confuses me, since it seems that if iframe.contentDocument.document is defined, you're going to end up trying to access iframe.contentDocument.document.document. There's also this: var frame_ref = document.getElementsByTagName('iframe')[0]; var iframe_doc = frame_ref.contentWindow ? frame_ref.contentWindow.document : frame_ref.contentDocument; In the end, I guess I'm confused as to which properties hold which properties, whether contentDocument is equivalent to document or whether there is such a property as contentDocument.document, etc. Can anyone point me to an accurate/timely reference on these properties, or give a quick briefing on how to efficiently access an <iframe>'s window and document properties in a cross-browser way (without the use of jQuery or other libraries)? Thanks for any help!

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  • How to fix codesign when it says user cancelled the operation? (And I didn't)

    - by eipipuz
    I'm compiling an iPhone app meant to be Distributed. It's my first app so I followed the "iPhone Provisioning Profiles" instructions. Unfortunately it fails with this: CodeSign build/*_*_.app cd "/Users/videojuegos/Documents/*_*_" setenv IGNORE_CODESIGN_ALLOCATE_RADAR_7181968 /Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/Developer/usr/bin/codesign_allocate setenv PATH "/Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/Developer/usr/bin:/Developer/usr/bin:/usr/bin:/bin:/usr/sbin:/sbin" /usr/bin/codesign -f -s "iPhone Distribution: ******" "--resource-rules=/Users/videojuegos/Documents/*_*_/build/*_*_.app/ResourceRules.plist" --entitlements "/Users/videojuegos/Documents/*_*_/build/Unity-iPhone.build/Distribution-iphoneos/Unity-iPhone.build/*_*_.xcent" "/Users/videojuegos/Documents/*_*_/build/*_*_.app" /Users/videojuegos/Documents/*_*_/build/*_*_.app: The operation was cancelled by the user. Command /usr/bin/codesign failed with exit code 1 I thought Keychain wasn't allowing Codesign to work but as far as I can tell that isn't the case. I also attempted running these commands from a terminal and it failed with this message: Users/videojuegos/Documents/*_*_/build/Unity-iPhone.build/Distribution-iphoneos/Unity-iPhone.build/*_*_.xcent: cannot read entitlement data I have made the xcode setting from scratch three times. Googled it. No results. I don't have any idea what else to try. Any suggestions?

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  • Convert a Relative URL to an Absolute URL in Actionscript / Flex

    - by Bear
    I am working with Flex, and I need to take a relative URL source property and convert it to an absolute URL before loading it. The specific case I am working with involves tweaking SoundEffect's load method. I need to determine if a file will be loaded from the local file system or over the network from looking at the source property, and the easiest way I've found to do this is to generate the absolute URL. I'm having trouble generating the absolute URL for sound effect in particular. Here were my initial thoughts, which haven't worked. Look for the DisplayObject that the Sound Effect targets, and use its loaderInfo property. The target is null when the SoundEffect loads, so this doesn't work. Look at FlexGlobals.topLevelApplication, at the url or loaderInfo properties. Neither of these are set, however. Look at the FlexGlobals.topLevelApplication.systemManager.loaderInfo. This was also not set. The SoundEffect.as code basically boils down to var url:String = "mySound.mp3"; /*>> I'd like to convert the URL to absolute form here and tweak it as necessary <<*/ var req:URLRequest = new URLRequest(url); var loader:Loader = new Loader(); loader.load(req); Does anyone know how to do this? Any help clarifying the rules of how relative urls are resolved for URLRequests in ActionScript would also be much appreciated. edit I would also be perfectly satisfied with some way to tell whether the url will be loaded from the local file system or over the network. Looking at an absolute URL it would just be easy to look at the prefix, like file:// or http://.

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  • ASP.Net MVC vs ASP.Net for Complex workflows

    - by Grant Sutcliffe
    I have just become involved in migrating a series of complex workflows with InfoPath UIs to Web-based UIs. I am new to ASP.Net MVC but have started to evaluate it as the technology versus classic ASP.Net for the job. As is typical of most workflows, in each state there are a number of business rules that determine (a) who can view what content; (2) who can edit what content; (3) what the user action options might be (Edit; Reject; Approve), etc. In essence, there is a lot of logic that needs to be applied to each request before presenting the appropriate view. Being more experienced in ASP.Net, I know that presenting the form(s) as required can be easily achieved through code behind pages (enable / disable / hide fields). I have not seen how this can be achieved with ASP.Net MVC (but am realising that new thinking is required of me when working with MVC - ‘Give only the content on a particular View + limited user action options’). Therefore, if using ASP.Net MVC, it looks like I would need to create a lot of views. Much of the content in each view would be the same. Only field enabled status or buttons would differ in most instances for these views in each state. For example: Step01Initiate (‘Has Save’ button); Step01OriginatorView (has ‘Edit’ Button) ; Step01OriginatorEdit (has ‘Save’ button); Step01Review (has ‘Accept’ / ‘Reject’ buttons); Step01ReviewReject (for reviewer notes; has ‘Save’ / ‘Cancel’ buttons). With workflows of up to six states, this would result in a lot of views. I can see the advantages of choosing ASP.MVC (1) ‘thin’ Views in terms of content; and (2) with logic consolidation in Controllers and different Models. Am I thinking along the right lines in terms of applying the MVC – ‘plenty of views’; or is there a better way to achieve my goal (using ASP.Net MVC or classic ASP.Net)?

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  • jQuery date picker not persistant after AJAX

    - by ILMV
    So I'm using the jQuery date picker, and it works well. I am using AJAX to go and get some content, obviously when this new content is applied the bind is lost, I learnt about this last week and discovered about the .live() method. But how do I apply that to my date picker? Because this isn't an event therefore .live() won't be able to help... right? This is the code I'm using to bind the date picker to my input: $(".datefield").datepicker({showAnim:'fadeIn',dateFormat:'dd/mm/yy',changeMonth:true,changeYear:true}); I do not want to call this metho everytime my AJAX fires, as I want to keep that as generic as possible. Cheers :-) EDIT As @nick requested, below is my wrapper function got the ajax() method: var ajax_count = 0; function getElementContents(options) { if(options.type===null) { options.type="GET"; } if(options.data===null) { options.data={}; } if(options.url===null) { options.url='/'; } if(options.cache===null) { options.cace=false; } if(options.highlight===null || options.highlight===true) { options.highlight=true; } else { options.highlight=false; } $.ajax({ type: options.type, url: options.url, data: options.data, beforeSend: function() { /* if this is the first ajax call, block the screen */ if(++ajax_count==1) { $.blockUI({message:'Loading data, please wait'}); } }, success: function(responseText) { /* we want to perform different methods of assignment depending on the element type */ if($(options.target).is("input")) { $(options.target).val(responseText); } else { $(options.target).html(responseText); } /* fire change, fire highlight effect... only id highlight==true */ if(options.highlight===true) { $(options.target).trigger("change").effect("highlight",{},2000); } }, complete: function () { /* if all ajax requests have completed, unblock screen */ if(--ajax_count===0) { $.unblockUI(); } }, cache: options.cache, dataType: "html" }); } What about this solution, I have a rules.js which include all my initial bindings with the elements, if I were to put these in a function, then call that function on the success callback of the ajax method, that way I wouldn't be repeating code... Hmmm, thoughts please :D

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  • Managing/Storing complex application form

    - by mickyjtwin
    I am developing an online application form, which can be of two categories, either domestic/international. Each different type has commong questions, and also specific questions. They are approx 6 pages/steps of questions. The application form can also be saved at the end of each step, and can be completed at a later date. Some questions will vary depending on answers to previous questions, so there are some complex business rules. In terms of storage of results, would it be best to store the answers in and XML field in SQL? What would be the best way to reference a question to an answer. There is no need for the form to be dynamic in rendering questions etc. e.g. <Application id="123" type="Domestic"> <Answers> <EmailAddress>[email protected]</EmailAddress> <HomePhone>555-5555</HomePhone> <Suburb>MySuburb</Suburb> <Guardians> <Guardian type="Mother"> <FirstName>Mom</FirstName> </Guardian> </Guardians> <Answers> </Application>

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  • Practices for keeping JavaScript and CSS in sync?

    - by Rene Saarsoo
    I'm working on a large JavaScript-heavy app. Several pieces of JavaScript have some related CSS rules. Our current practice is for each JavaScript file to have an optional related CSS file, like so: MyComponent.js // Adds CSS class "my-comp" to div MyComponent.css // Defines .my-comp { color: green } This way I know that all CSS related to MyComponent.js will be in MyComponent.css. But the thing is, I all too often have very little CSS in those files. And all too often I feel that it's too much effort to create a whole file to just contain few lines of CSS - it would be easier to just hardcode the styles inside JavaScript. But this would be the path to the dark side... Lately I've been thinking of embedding the CSS directly inside JavaScript - so it could still be extracted in the build process and merged into one large CSS file. This way I wouldn't have to create a new file for every little CSS-piece. Additionally when I move/rename/delete the JavaScript file I don't have to additionally move/rename/delete the CSS file. But how to embed CSS inside JavaScript? In most other languages I would just use string, but JavaScript has some issues with multiline strings. The following looks IMHO quite ugly: Page.addCSS("\ .my-comp > p {\ font-weight: bold;\ color: green;\ }\ "); What other practices have you for keeping your JavaScript and CSS in sync?

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  • How does the last integer promotion rule ever get applied in C?

    - by SiegeX
    6.3.1.8p1: Otherwise, the integer promotions are performed on both operands. Then the following rules are applied to the promoted operands: If both operands have the same type, then no further conversion is needed. Otherwise, if both operands have signed integer types or both have unsigned integer types, the operand with the type of lesser integer conversion rank is converted to the type of the operand with greater rank. Otherwise, if the operand that has unsigned integer type has rank greater or equal to the rank of the type of the other operand, then the operand with signed integer type is converted to the type of the operand with unsigned integer type. Otherwise, if the type of the operand with signed integer type can represent all of the values of the type of the operand with unsigned integer type, then the operand with unsigned integer type is converted to the type of the operand with signed integer type. Otherwise, both operands are converted to the unsigned integer type corresponding to the type of the operand with signed integer type. For the bolded rule to be applied it would seem to imply you need to have have an unsigned interger type who's rank is less than the signed integer type and the signed integer type cannot hold all the values of the unsigned integer type. Is there a real world example of such a case or is this statement serving as a catch-all to cover all possible permutations?

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  • jquery validator message styling error in IE08 only when customised using errorPlacement function

    - by John Slaytor
    Going back to the errorplacement solution by Nadia (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/860055/jquery-override-default-validation-error-message-display-css-popup-tooltip-like) I have tried it and it works like a charm in Safari and Firefox but causes IE08 to bypass the jqueryvalidator and go straight to the server side validator. My code is this - as soon as I insert 'error element.... it is unstable in IE08. All help much appreciated <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#sampleform").validate({ rules: { dinername: "required", venue: "required", contact: "required", dinertelephone: "required", venuetime: "required", numberdiners: "required", dineremail: { required: true, email: true}, datepicker: { required: true,date: true} }, messages: { dinername: "Your name?", numberdiners: "How many guests?", dinertelephone: "Your mobile?", venue: "Which restaurant?", venuetime: "Your arrival time?", datepicker: "Your booking date?", dineremail: "Please enter a valid email address", }, errorElement: "div", errorPlacement: function(error, element) { element.before(error); offset = element.offset(); error.css('right', offset.right); error.css('right', offset.right - element.outerHeight()); } }); }); </script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $("#datepicker") .datepicker({minDate: 0, maxDate: '+6M +0D',dateFormat: 'DD, d M yy',onClose: function() {$(this).valid();} }); }); </script> The relevant webpage is http://www.johnslaytor.com.au/nilgiris/forms/bookingform/bookingform.html

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  • jquery validate not submitting after modal close bootstrap

    - by Mariana Hernandez
    I have a modal where i insert some data, but when i open the modal, close it, and the click the modal show button again, it doesnt submit of course because the validate is "acting" in the modal, but i closed it so its not showing... how can i prevent this? thanks it is similar to this jquery functions within modal only work on first open, after close and re-open they stop working but my functions are <script> $(document).ready(function() { $("#myModal").modal('show'); }); </script> and the validation one <script> $(document).ready(function(){ $('#form1').validate( { ignore: "", rules: { usu_login: { required: true }, usu_password: { required: true }, usu_email: { required: true }, usu_nombre1: { required: true }, usu_apellido1: { required: true }, usu_fecha_nac: { required: true }, usu_cedula: { required: true }, usu_telefono1: { required: true }, rol_id: { required: true }, dependencia_id: { required: true }, }, highlight: function(element) { $(element).closest('.grupo').addClass('has-error'); if($(".tab-content").find("div.tab-pane.active:has(div.has-error)").length == 0) { $(".tab-content").find("div.tab-pane:hidden:has(div.has-error)").each(function(index, tab) { var id = $(tab).attr("id"); $('a[href="#' + id + '"]').tab('show'); }); } }, unhighlight: function(element) { $(element).closest('.grupo').removeClass('has-error'); } }); }); </script> So i dont know how to apply the answer of the above =(

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  • Aggregate Pattern and Performance Issues

    - by Mosh
    Hello, I have read about the Aggregate Pattern but I'm confused about something here. The pattern states that all the objects belonging to the aggregate should be accessed via the Aggregate Root, and not directly. And I'm assuming that is the reason why they say you should have a single Repository per Aggregate. But I think this adds a noticeable overhead to the application. For example, in a typical Web-based application, what if I want to get an object belonging to an aggregate (which is NOT the aggregate root)? I'll have to call Repository.GetAggregateRootObject(), which loads the aggregate root and all its child objects, and then iterate through the child objects to find the one I'm looking for. In other words, I'm loading lots of data and throwing them out except the particular object I'm looking for. Is there something I'm missing here? PS: I know some of you may suggest that we can improve performance with Lazy Loading. But that's not what I'm asking here... The aggregate pattern requires that all objects belonging to the aggregate be loaded together, so we can enforce business rules.

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  • Help needed in grokking password hashes and salts

    - by javafueled
    I've read a number of SO questions on this topic, but grokking the applied practice of storing a salted hash of a password eludes me. Let's start with some ground rules: a password, "foobar12" (we are not discussing the strength of the password). a language, Java 1.6 for this discussion a database, postgreSQL, MySQL, SQL Server, Oracle Several options are available to storing the password, but I want to think about one (1): Store the password hashed with random salt in the DB, one column Found on SO and elsewhere is the automatic fail of plaintext, MD5/SHA1, and dual-columns. The latter have pros and cons MD5/SHA1 is simple. MessageDigest in Java provides MD5, SHA1 (through SHA512 in modern implementations, certainly 1.6). Additionally, most RDBMSs listed provide methods for MD5 encryption functions on inserts, updates, etc. The problems become evident once one groks "rainbow tables" and MD5 collisions (and I've grokked these concepts). Dual-column solutions rest on the idea that the salt does not need to be secret (grok it). However, a second column introduces a complexity that might not be a luxury if you have a legacy system with one (1) column for the password and the cost of updating the table and the code could be too high. But it is storing the password hashed with a random salt in single DB column that I need to understand better, with practical application. I like this solution for a couple of reasons: a salt is expected and considers legacy boundaries. Here's where I get lost: if the salt is random and hashed with the password, how can the system ever match the password? I have theory on this, and as I type I might be grokking the concept: Given a random salt of 128 bytes and a password of 8 bytes ('foobar12'), it could be programmatically possible to remove the part of the hash that was the salt, by hashing a random 128 byte salt and getting the substring of the original hash that is the hashed password. Then re hashing to match using the hash algorithm...??? So... any takers on helping. :) Am I close?

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  • String Manipulation: Spliting Delimitted Data

    - by Milli Szabo
    I need to split some info from a asterisk delimitted data. Data Format: NAME*ADRESS LINE1*ADDRESS LINE2 Rules: 1. Name should be always present 2. Address Line 1 and 2 might not be 3. There should be always three asterisks. Samples: MR JONES A ORTEGA*ADDRESS 1*ADDRESS2* Name: MR JONES A ORTEGA Address Line1: ADDRESS 1 Address Line2: ADDRESS 2 A PAUL*ADDR1** Name: A PAUL Address Line1: ADDR1 Address Line2: Not Given My algo is: 1. Iterate through the characters in the line 2. Store all chars in a temp variables until first * is found. Reject the data if no char is found before first occurence of asterisk. If some chars found, use it as the name. 3. Same as step 2 for finding address line 1 and 2 except that this won't reject the data if no char is found My algo looks ugly. The code looks uglier. Spliting using //* doesn't work either since name can be replaced with address line 1 If the data is *Address 1*Address2, split will create two indexes in the array where index 0 will have the value of Address 1 and index 2 will have the value of Address2. Where's the name. Was there a name? Any suggestion?

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  • How to disable mod_security2 rule (false positive) for one domain on centos 5

    - by nicholas.alipaz
    Hi I have mod_security enabled on a centos5 server and one of the rules is keeping a user from posting some text on a form. The text is legitimate but it has the words 'create' and an html <table> tag later in it so it is causing a false positive. The error I am receiving is below: [Sun Apr 25 20:36:53 2010] [error] [client 76.171.171.xxx] ModSecurity: Access denied with code 500 (phase 2). Pattern match "((alter|create|drop)[[:space:]]+(column|database|procedure|table)|delete[[:space:]]+from|update.+set.+=)" at ARGS:body. [file "/usr/local/apache/conf/modsec2.user.conf"] [line "352"] [id "300015"] [rev "1"] [msg "Generic SQL injection protection"] [severity "CRITICAL"] [hostname "www.mysite.com"] [uri "/node/181/edit"] [unique_id "@TaVDEWnlusAABQv9@oAAAAD"] and here is /usr/local/apache/conf/modsec2.user.conf (line 352) #Generic SQL sigs SecRule ARGS "((alter|create|drop)[[:space:]]+(column|database|procedure|table)|delete[[:space:]]+from|update.+set.+=)" "id:1,rev:1,severity:2,msg:'Generic SQL injection protection'" The questions I have are: What should I do to "whitelist" or allow this rule to get through? What file do I create and where? How should I alter this rule? Can I set it to only be allowed for the one domain, since it is the only one having the issue on this dedicated server or is there a better way to exclude table tags perhaps? Thanks guys

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  • Properties vs. Fields: Need help grasping the uses of Properties over Fields.

    - by pghtech
    First off, I have read through a list of postings on this topic and I don't feel I have grasped properties because of what I had come to understand about encapsulation and field modifiers (private, public..ect). One of the main aspects of C# that I have come to learn is the importance of data protection within your code by the use of encapsulation. I 'thought' I understood that to be because of the ability of the use of the modifiers (private, public, internal, protected). However, after learning about properties I am sort of torn in understanding not only properties uses, but the overall importance/ability of data protection (what I understood as encapsulation) within C#. To be more specific, everything I have read when I got to properties in C# is that you should try to use them in place of fields when you can because of: 1) they allow you to change the data type when you can't when directly accessing the field directly. 2) they add a level of protection to data access However, from what I 'thought' I had come to know about the use of field modifiers did #2, it seemed to me that properties just generated additional code unless you had some reason to change the type (#1) - because you are (more or less) creating hidden methods to access fields as opposed to directly. Then there is the whole modifiers being able to be added to Properties which further complicates my understanding for the need of properties to access data. I have read a number of chapters from different writers on "properties" and none have really explained a good understanding of properties vs. fields vs. encapsulation (and good programming methods). Can someone explain: 1) why I would want to use properties instead of fields (especially when it appears I am just adding additional code 2) any tips on recognizing the use of properties and not seeing them as simply methods (with the exception of the get;set being apparent) when tracing other peoples code? 3) Any general rules of thumb when it comes to good programming methods in relation to when to use what? Thanks and sorry for the long post - I didn't want to just ask a question that has been asked 100x without explaining why I am asking it again.

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  • Need some help understanding this problem about maximizing graph connectivity

    - by Legend
    I was wondering if someone could help me understand this problem. I prepared a small diagram because it is much easier to explain it visually. Problem I am trying to solve: 1. Constructing the dependency graph Given the connectivity of the graph and a metric that determines how well a node depends on the other, order the dependencies. For instance, I could put in a few rules saying that node 3 depends on node 4 node 2 depends on node 3 node 3 depends on node 5 But because the final rule is not "valuable" (again based on the same metric), I will not add the rule to my system. 2. Execute the request order Once I built a dependency graph, execute the list in an order that maximizes the final connectivity. I am not sure if this is a really a problem but I somehow have a feeling that there might exist more than one order in which case, it is required to choose the best order. First and foremost, I am wondering if I constructed the problem correctly and if I should be aware of any corner cases. Secondly, is there a closely related algorithm that I can look at? Currently, I am thinking of something like Feedback Arc Set or the Secretary Problem but I am a little confused at the moment. Any suggestions? PS: I am a little confused about the problem myself so please don't flame on me for that. If any clarifications are needed, I will try to update the question.

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  • jQuery Validation plugin results in empty AJAX POST

    - by user305412
    Hi, I have tried to solve this issue for at couple of days with no luck. I have a form, where I use the validation plugin, and when I try to submit it, it submits empty vars. Now, if I remove the validation, everything works fine. Here is my implementation: $(document).ready(function(){ $("#myForm").validate({ rules: { field1: { required: true, minlength: 5 }, field2: { required: true, minlength: 10 } }, messages: { field1: "this is required", field2: "this is required", }, errorLabelContainer: $("#validate_msg"), invalidHandler: function(e, validator) { var errors = validator.numberOfInvalids(); if (errors) { $("#validate_div").show(); } }, onkeyup: false, success: false, submitHandler: function(form) { doAjaxPost(form); } }); }); function doAjaxPost(form) { // do some stuff $(form).ajaxSubmit(); return false; } As I wrote this does not work when I have my validation, BUT if I remove that, and just add an onsubmit="doAjaxPost(this.form); return false"; to my HTML form, it works - any clue??? Now here is the funny thing, everything works as it should in Safari, but not in firefox 3.6.2 (Mac OS X)!

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  • Model login constraints based on time

    - by DaDaDom
    Good morning, for an existing web application I need to implement "time based login constraints". It means that for each user, later maybe each group, I can define timeslots when they are (not) allowed to log in into the system. As all data for the application is stored in database tables, I need to somehow create a way to model this idea in that way. My first approach, I will try to explain it here: Create a tree of login constraints (called "timeslots") with the main "categories", like "workday", "weekend", "public holiday", etc. on the top level, which are in a "sorted" order (meaning "public holiday" has a higher priority than "weekday") for each top level node create subnodes, which have a finer timespan, like "monday", "tuesday", ... below that, create an "hour" level: 0, 1, 2, ..., 23. No further details are necessary. set every member to "allowed" by default For every member of the system create a 1:n relationship member:timeslots which defines constraints, e.g. a member A may have A:monday-forbidden and A:tuesday-forbidden Do a depth-first search at every login and check if the member has a constraint. Why a depth first search? Well, I thought that it may be that a member has the rules: A:monday->forbidden, A:monday-10->allowed, A:mondey-11->allowed So a login on monday at 12:30 would fail, but one at 10:30 succeed. For performance reasons I could break the relational database paradigm and set a flag for every entry in the member-to-timeslots-table which is set to true if the member has information set for "finer" timeslots, but that's a second step. Is this model in principle a good idea? Are there existing models? Thanks.

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  • StructureMap problems with bidirectional/circular dependencies

    - by leozilla
    I am currently integrating StructureMap within our business layer but have problems because of bidirectional dependencies. The layer contains multiple manager where each manager can call methods on each other, there are no restrictions or rules for communication. This also includes possible circular dependencies like in the example below. I know the design itself is questionable but currently we just want StructureMap to work and will focus on further refactoring in the future. Every manager implements the IManager interface internal interface IManager { bool IsStarted { get; } void Start(); void Stop(); } And does also have his own specific interface. internal interface IManagerA : IManager { void ALogic(); } internal interface IManagerB : IManager { void BLogic(); } Here are to dummy manager implementations. internal class ManagerA : IManagerA { public IManagerB ManagerB { get; set; } public void ALogic() { } public bool IsStarted { get; private set; } public void Start() { } public void Stop() { } } internal class ManagerB : IManagerB { public IManagerA ManagerA { get; set; } public void BLogic() { } public bool IsStarted { get; private set; } public void Start() { } public void Stop() { } } Here is the StructureMap configuration i use atm. I am still not sure how i should register the managers so currently i use a manual registration. Maybee someone could help me with this too. For<IManagerA>().Singleton().Use<ManagerA>(); For<IManagerB>().Singleton().Use<ManagerB>(); SetAllProperties(convention => { // configure the property injection for all managers convention.Matching(prop => typeof(IManager).IsAssignableFrom(prop.PropertyType)); }); After all i cannot create IManagerA because StructureMap complians about the circular dependency between ManagerA and ManagerB. Is there an easy and clean solution to solve this problem but keep to current design? br David

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  • ASP.NET MVC UpdateModel doesn't update inherited public properties??

    - by mrjoltcola
    I refactored some common properties into a base class and immediately my model updates started failing. UpdateModel() and TryUpdateModel() do not seem to update inherited public properties. I cannot find detailed info on MSDN nor Google as to the rules or semantics of these methods. The docs are terse (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd470933.aspx), simply stating: Updates the specified model instance using values from the controller's current value provider. Well that leads us to believe it is as simple as that. It makes no mention of limitations with inheritance. My assumption is the methods are reflecting on the top class only, ignoring base properties, but this seems to be an ugly shortcoming, if so. SOLVED: Eep, this turned out to have nothing to do with inheritance. My base class was implemented with public fields, not properties. Switching them to formal properties (adding {get; set; }) was all I needed. This has bitten me before, I keep wanting to use simple, public fields.

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  • Replacement for deprecated SQL Server User Defined Type with a bound Rule and Default

    - by Adam Jones
    We have a User Defined Data Type of YesNo which has an which is an alias for char(1). The type has a bound Rule (must be Y or N) and a Default (N). The aim of this is that when any of the development team create a new field of type YesNo the rule and default are automatically bound to the new column. Rules and Defaults have been deprecated and won't be available in the next a future version of SQL Server, is there another way to achieve the same functionality? I should add that I'm aware that I could use CHECK and DEFAULT constraints to replicate the functionality of the bound Rule and Defalut objects, however these would have to be applied at each usage of the type, rather than getting the functionality 'for free' by using a UDT which has a bound Rule and Default. The post relates to a database that backs an existing application, rather than a new development, so I'm aware that our use of UDT's is less than optimal. I suspect the answer to the question is 'No', however normally when features are deprecated there's usually an alternative syntax that can be used as a drop in replacement so I wanted to pose the question in-case someone knew of an alternative.

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  • How to not specify ruleset name when reading from config file?

    - by user102533
    When I read rules from a configuration file, I do something like this: IConfigurationSource configurationSource = new FileConfigurationSource("myvalidation.config"); var validator = ValidationFactory.CreateValidator<Salary>(configurationSource); The config file looks like this: <ruleset name="Default"> <properties> <property name="Address"> <validator lowerBound="10" lowerBoundType="Inclusive" upperBound="15" upperBoundType="Inclusive" negated="false" messageTemplate="" messageTemplateResourceName="" messageTemplateResourceType="" tag="" type="Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Validation.Validators.StringLengthValidator, Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Validation, Version=4.1.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" name="String Length Validator" /> </property> </properties> </ruleset> My question is - is there a way to not specify the ruleset name? It's not required for me to specify a ruleset name if I am using the attribute approach and I can validate using: ValidationResults results = Validation.Validate(salary); Now when reading from config files, I have to specify the ruleset name. There is no overload of the CreateValidator method that accepts the configuration source without specifying the ruleset name. Also, the xml in the config file requires a name attribute for ruleset

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  • jQuery validate and tabs

    - by ntan
    Hi i am using jQuery validate for my form validation. The form is inside tabs.When i get an error i add an icon to the tab that error exist to be visual by the user So far so good. My problem is that after correct the error i can not remove the error in tab icon. I was assuming that validator is accessible via success but its not Assuming that the first tab (tab0) has 3 field for validation (field1,field2,field3) Here is the full code $("form#Form1") .validate({ invalidHandler: function(form, validator) { //TAB 0 if (validator.errorMap.field1 != "" && validator.errorMap.field2 != "" && validator.errorMap.field3 != "") { if ($("#tabs>ul>li").eq(0).find("img").length == 0) { $("#tabs>ul>li").eq(0).prepend("<img src=\"error.gif\">"); } } }, errorClass: "errorField", errorElement: "p", errorPlacement: function(error, element) { var parent = element.parent(); parent.addClass("error"); error.prependTo( parent ); }, //validator in not accessible via success //so my code its not working success: function(element,validator) { var parent = element.parent(); parent.removeClass("error"); $(parent).children("p.errorField").remove(); //TAB 0 if (validator.errorMap.field1 == "" && validator.errorMap.field2 == "" && validator.errorMap.field2 == "") { if ($("#tabs>ul>li").eq(0).find("img").length == 0) { $("#tabs>ul>li").eq(0).find("img").remove(); } } }, rules: { field1: { required: true }, field2: { required: true }, field3: { required: true } } }); Any suggestion is welcome.

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  • If the address of a function can not be resolved during deduction, is it SFINAE or a compiler error?

    - by Faisal Vali
    In C++0x SFINAE rules have been simplified such that any invalid expression or type that occurs in the "immediate context" of deduction does not result in a compiler error but rather in deduction failure (SFINAE). My question is this: If I take the address of an overloaded function and it can not be resolved, is that failure in the immediate-context of deduction? (i.e is it a hard error or SFINAE if it can not be resolved)? Here is some sample code: struct X { // template T* foo(T,T); // lets not over-complicate things for now void foo(char); void foo(int); }; template struct S { template struct size_map { typedef int type; }; // here is where we take the address of a possibly overloaded function template void f(T, typename size_map::type* = 0); void f(...); }; int main() { S s; // should this cause a compiler error because 'auto T = &X::foo' is invalid? s.f(3); } Gcc 4.5 states that this is a compiler error, and clang spits out an assertion violation. Here are some more related questions of interest: Does the FCD-C++0x clearly specify what should happen here? Are the compilers wrong in rejecting this code? Does the "immediate-context" of deduction need to be defined a little better? Thanks!

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