Search Results

Search found 6728 results on 270 pages for 'srv record'.

Page 238/270 | < Previous Page | 234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242 243 244 245  | Next Page >

• MySQL to SQL Server ODBC Connector?

  - by Scott C.

  My boss wants to have data in MySQL DBs used for our website to be "linked and synced" with a Financial Server that has its DB in SQL Server. Sooooo...even though I have no idea how to accomplish this, this just sounds like an absolute nightmare especially since the MySQL DB is most likely going to be hosted in the cloud and not on a machine next to the Financial Server. Any ideas how to accomplish this? (within reason?) Also, his big thing is he wants to basically pull up the data from any record a user enters and using data pulled from that do all sorts of calculations using ANOTHER program that stores its data (apparently) in SQL Server. Thinking of all the data I might have to convert makes me very uneasy. Please tell a ODBC eliminates complicated junk like this. :/ I'm trying to talk him into just having MySQL do a nightly dump into a CSV file or something and using that (rather than connector) to update the SQL Server DBs. I guess I'm just not that comfortable with a server and/or programming I have no say over being connected DIRECTLY to my MySQL DB for the website. If there's no good answer for this, can anyone offer a suggestion as to what I can say to talk him out of this? (I'm a low-level IT guy w/ a decent grasp on programming...but I'm no expert - should I try to push this off to a seasoned IT pro?) Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• How do you pass a generic delegate argument to a method in .NET 2.0

  - by Seth Spearman

  Hello, I have a class with a delegate declaration as follows... Public Class MyClass Public Delegate Function Getter(Of TResult)() As TResult 'the following code works. Public Shared Sub MyMethod(ByVal g As Getter(Of Boolean)) 'do stuff End Sub End Class However, I do not want to explicitly type the Getter delegate in the Method call. Why can I not declare the parameter as follows... ... (ByVal g As Getter(Of TResult)) Is there a way to do it? My end goal was to be able to set a delegate for property setters and getters in the called class. But my reading indicates you can't do that. So I put setter and getter methods in that class and then I want the calling class to set the delegate argument and then invoke. Is there a best practice for doing this. I realize in the above example that I can set set the delegate variable from the calling class...but I am trying to create a singleton with tight encapsulation. For the record, I can't use any of the new delegate types declared in .net35. Answers in C# are welcome. Any thoughts? Seth

  Read the article

• Select rows from table1 and all the children from table2 into an object

  - by Patrick

  I want to pull data from table "Province_Notifiers" and also fetch all corresponding items from table "Province_Notifier_Datas". The table "Province_Notifier" has a guid to identify it (PK), table "Province_Notifier_Datas" has a column called BelongsToProvinceID witch is a foreign key to the "Province_Notifier" tables guid. I tried something like this: var records = from data in ctx.Province_Notifiers where DateTime.Now >= data.SendTime && data.Sent == false join data2 in ctx.Province_Notifier_Datas on data.Province_ID equals data2.BelongsToProvince_ID select new Province_Notifier { Email = data.Email, Province_ID = data.Province_ID, ProvinceName = data.ProvinceName, Sent = data.Sent, UserName = data.UserName, User_ID = data.User_ID, Province_Notifier_Datas = (new List<Province_Notifier_Data>().AddRange(data2)) }; This line is not working and i am trying to figure out how topull the data from table2 into that Province_Notifier_Datas variable. Province_Notifier_Datas = (new List<Province_Notifier_Data>().AddRange(data2)) I can add a record easily by adding the second table row into the Province_Notifier_Datas but i can't fetch it back. Province_Notifier dbNotifier = new Province_Notifier(); // set some values for dbNotifier dbNotifier.Province_Notifier_Datas.Add( new Province_Notifier_Data { BelongsToProvince_ID = userInput.Value.ProvinceId, EventText = GenerateNotificationDetail(notifierDetail) }); This works and inserts the data correctly into both tables. Edit: These error messages is thrown: Cannot convert from 'Province_Notifier_Data' to 'System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable' If i look in Visual Studio, the variable "Province_Notifier_Datas" is of type System.Data.Linq.EntitySet The best overloaded method match for 'System.Collections.Generic.List.AddRange(System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable)' has some invalid arguments Edit: var records = from data in ctx.Province_Notifiers where DateTime.Now >= data.SendTime && data.Sent == false join data2 in ctx.Province_Notifier_Datas on data.Province_ID equals data2.BelongsToProvince_ID into data2list select new Province_Notifier { Email = data.Email, Province_ID = data.Province_ID, ProvinceName = data.ProvinceName, Sent = data.Sent, UserName = data.UserName, User_ID = data.User_ID, Province_Notifier_Datas = new EntitySet<Province_Notifier_Data>().AddRange(data2List) }; Error 3 The name 'data2List' does not exist in the current context.

  Read the article

• Magento products will not show in category

  - by Aaron

  I've recently been tasked with the build and deployment of a large Ecommerce site. In the past we've had to use the clients legacy X-cart installation for redevelopment (too far integrated with their existing work flow). We'd heard good things about Magento, so I've set up a test install to get to grips with it. After a couple of initial issues, there is a live development site which displays categories on the default theme. The problem we've hit now is that products don't display..! After a lot more in-depth research into this, all I've been able to discover is that quite a number of developers endorse using other solutions entirely, with the other 50% saying after the steep learning curve the platform is as wonderful as we'd initially been led to believe. Now, my test category is showing, so I know this is configured properly. I've set up three test products and associated them with this (all done following the Magento user guide), checked double checked and thrice checked the products are enabled and visible individually, yet still the front end says the category has no products in it. I've cleared the cache repeatedly, reset everything possible many times in index management - no products show up. I have to make a call tomorrow morning on whether we're going ahead with Magento. If I can't even get it to show products I'm going to have to go with something with a more established track record and more community support available. Can anybody advise what could possibly be wrong here?

  Read the article

• Check the code n point the mistake

  - by Vibha

  here is the code: Ext.onReady(function(){ alert("inside onReady"); Ext.QuickTips.init(); var employee = Ext.data.Record.create([ {name:'firstname'}, {name:'lastname'}]); var myReader = new Ext.data.JsonReader({ root:"EmpInfo", },employee); var store = new Ext.data.JsonStore({ id:'ID' ,root:'EmpInfo' ,totalProperty:'totalCount' ,url:'test.php' ,autoLoad:true ,fields:[ {name:'firstname', type:'string'} ,{name:'lastname', type:'string'} ] }); var myPanel = new Ext.grid.GridPanel({ store: store ,columns:[{ dataIndex:'firstname' ,header:'First Name' ,width:139 },{ dataIndex:'lastname' ,header:'Middle Name' ,width:139 } ] }); var myWindow = new Ext.Window({ width:300, height:300, layout:'fit', closable:false, resizable:false, items:[myPanel] }); myWindow.show(); }); And php code is: true, "data" = array( "firstname" = "ABC" , "lastname" = "MNO") ); $_SESSION["err"] = isset($_SESSION["err"]) ? !$_SESSION["err"] : true; header("Content-Type: application/json"); echo json_encode($o); ? I want to print the values ABC and MNO in the grid panel. i'm using extjs 2.3. please help me out. Thanks

  Read the article

• Converting rows to Columns in SQL

  - by Ram

  I have a table (actually a view, but simplified my example to a table) which gives me some data like this id CompanyName website 1 Google google.com 2 Google google.net 3 Google google.org 4 Google google.in 5 Google google.de 6 Microsoft Microsoft.com 7 Microsoft live.com 8 Microsoft bing.com 9 Microsoft hotmail.com I am looking to convert it to get a result like this CompanyName website1 website2 website3 website 4 website5 website6 ----------- ------------- ---------- ---------- ----------- --------- -------- Google google.com google.net google.org google.in google.de NULL Microsoft Microsoft.com live.com bing.com hotmail.com NULL NULL I have looked into pivot but looks like the record(row values) cannot be dynamic (i.e can only be certain predefined values). Also, if there are more than 6 websites, I want to limit it to the first 6 Dynamic pivot makes sense, but I would have to incorporate it into my view ?? Is there a simpler solution for this ? Here are the SQL scripts CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Company]( [id] [int] NULL, [CompanyName] [varchar](50) NULL, [website] [varchar](50) NULL ) ON [PRIMARY] GO insert into company values (1,'Google','google.com') insert into company values (2,'Google','google.net') insert into company values (3,'Google','google.org') insert into company values (4,'Google','google.in') insert into company values (5,'Google','google.de') insert into company values (6,'Microsoft','Microsoft.com') insert into company values (7,'Microsoft','live.com') insert into company values (8,'Microsoft','bing.com') insert into company values (9,'Microsoft','hotmail.com')

  Read the article

• How to specify multiple values in where with AR query interface in rails3

  - by wkhatch

  Per section 2.2 of rails guide on Active Record query interface here: which seems to indicate that I can pass a string specifying the condition(s), then an array of values that should be substituted at some point while the arel is being built. So I've got a statement that generates my conditions string, which can be a varying number of attributes chained together with either AND or OR between them, and I pass in an array as the second arg to the where method, and I get: ActiveRecord::PreparedStatementInvalid: wrong number of bind variables (1 for 5) which leads me to believe I'm doing this incorrectly. However, I'm not finding anything on how to do it correctly. To restate the problem another way, I need to pass in a string to the where method such as "table.attribute = ? AND table.attribute1 = ? OR table.attribute1 = ?" with an unknown number of these conditions anded or ored together, and then pass something, what I thought would be an array as the second argument that would be used to substitute the values in the first argument conditions string. Is this the correct approach, or, I'm just missing some other huge concept somewhere and I'm coming at this all wrong? I'd think that somehow, this has to be possible, short of just generating a raw sql string.

  Read the article

• CodeIgniter: Where should a particular functionality go ?

  - by Samnan

  I have an application in codeigniter and a page needs to perform the following tasks 1 - controller decides which model to use based of the url and parameters 2 - controller loads the model and get the data from it 3 - controller formats the data in a particular format, depending on the items in it 4 - controller loads a common view, which will display the data (formatted data contains simple display fields) now there is a search page, which needs to do a text query against all of the possible text fields in database in all tables. It needs to show each type of data in its own formatted output on a single page as a list. The problem: The search controller can do the search, dynamically load model for each record type, and get the data from model. Problem comes when the data needs to be formatted. It looks that ideally the search controller should load another controller which will provide formatted data ... There is where it gets out of control ... My question is: What am I doing wrong? Is there any better way to do this? How would you do the same to solve the problem?

  Read the article

• How to provide a temporary URL for custom domain in Wordpress multisite install?

  - by Milan Babuškov

  I have a website with Wordpress 3.0.4 installation, set up as multisite install. Some users register their blogs as something.mydomain.com and that works automatically. However, some users prefer to use their own domain names like something.com. This also works fine once they set up the CNAME record to point to my server. However, it takes 24-48 hours for that change to take effect. I'd like to be able to offer the user a temporary URL that would work out-of-the-box until the DNS changes are propagated, but I have not idea how to do it? For example: something.com should also be accessible as: something.tempdomain.com I have control over "tempdomain" DNS setup. I thought about replacing $_SERVER variables in index.php or .htaccess file when temporary domain is accessed, and this works for the first page load. However, all the links in generated page point to original domain which is not yet ready. UPDATE: I managed to get it working for the site itself by manipulating $_SERVER variables so Wordpress thinks it's creating a page for different site. I did this in index.php, so before any WP code is run I'm using ob_start and ob_get_contents later to get the page generated by Wordpress and then str_replace the links back to temporary domain. The problem I still have is the admin page. Even though the link says: http://site1.tempdomain.com/wp-admin when opened in browser it redirects to maindomain.com/wp-signup.php?new=site1.tempdomain I don't understand how WP detects that I supplied "fake" domain when $_SERVER vars are changed?

  Read the article

• MySQL running on an EC2 m1.small instance has high load but low memory usage, possible resolutions?

  - by Tosh

  I have a MySQL server 5.0.75 Ubuntu, on an m1.small instance running on Amazon's EC2 as part of an application. During peak usage the server load will rise very high, while the memory usage stays low and the application server is no longer responsive since it's waiting for query results. The application server has only 5-8 apache processes running (mod_perl processes). The data directory uses only 140MB of data so the MyIsam tables aren't very big. The queries are pretty complicated with some big joins being performed, and the application makes a lot of queries. mysqltuner reports everything OK except "Maximum possible memory usage: 1.7G (99% of installed RAM)" but I'm nowhere close to using that. My question is, where should I be looking to fix this? Is this something that can be tuned away, or do I just need a larger instance/server? Googling indicates either or also upgrading MySQL server. Any pointers in the right direction would be greatly appreciated, thanks! EDIT: I just discovered this in my slow queries log: # Time: 101116 11:17:00 # User@Host: user[pass] @ [host] # Query_time: 4063 Lock_time: 1035 Rows_sent: 0 Rows_examined: 19960174 SELECT * FROM contacts WHERE contacts.contact_id IN (SELECT external_id FROM contact_relations WHERE external_table = 'contacts' AND contact_id IN (SELECT contact_id FROM contacts WHERE (company_name like '%%butan%%%' OR country like '%%butan%%%' OR city like '%%butan%%%' OR email1 like '%%butan%%%') AND (company_name is not null and company_name != ''))); Which actually brings up a different but related question: If I have a contact table containing: John Smith,The Fun Factory,555-1212,[email protected] What's the best way to search for that record using "factory" as a search key? Fulltext rarely seems to find items in the middle of a word, for example "actor" should bring up "Factory"

  Read the article

• AWK: compare apache dates without using regular expression

  - by smallmeans

  I'm writing a loganalysis application and wanted to grab apache log records between two certain dates. Assume that a date is formated as such: 22/Dec/2009:00:19 (day/month/year:hour:minute) Currently, I'm using a regular expression to replace the month name with its numeric value, remove the separators, so the above date is converted to: 221220090019 making a date comparison trivial.. but.. Running a regex on each record for large files, say, one containing a quarter million records, is extremely costly.. is there any other method not involving regex substitution? Thanks in advance Edit: here's the function doing the convertion/comparison function dateInRange(t, from, to) { sub(/[[]/, "", t); split(t, a, "[/:]"); match("JanFebMarAprMayJunJulAugSepOctNovDec", a[2]); a[2] = sprintf("%02d", (RSTART + 2) / 3); s = a[3] a[2] a[1] a[4] a[5]; return s >= from && s <= to; } "from" and "to" are the intervals in the aforementioned format, and "t" is the raw apache log date/time field (e.g [22/Dec/2009:00:19:36)

  Read the article

• Accessing an Access DB from Outlook via VBA

  - by camastanta

  Hi The situation: In Outlook I get a message from a server. The content of the message needs to be put into an Access db. But, there may not exist another message with the same date. So, I need to look into a db if there is already a message with the same date and time. If there exists one, then it needs to be replaced and otherwise the message needs to be added to the database. The database contains a list of current positions from the vehicles on the road. The problem: I have problems to compare a date time with a date time in an Access DB via VBA. The query I use returns no records but there is a record in the database. This is the query I use: adoRS.Open "SELECT * FROM currentpositions WHERE ((currentpositions. [dateLT])=" & "#" & date_from_message & "#" & ")", adoConn, adOpenStatic, adLockOptimistic Second I need to now what the result is of that query. How can I determine the number of records that my query gives me? Thanks camastanta

  Read the article

• Define "Validation in the Model"

  - by sunwukung

  There have been a couple of discussions regarding the location of user input validation: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/659950/should-validation-be-done-in-form-objects-or-the-model http://stackoverflow.com/questions/134388/where-do-you-do-your-validation-model-controller-or-view These discussions were quite old, so I wanted to ask the question again to see if anyone had any fresh input. If not, I apologise in advance. If you come from the Validation in the Model camp - does Model mean OOP representation of data (i.e. Active Record/Data Mapper) as "Entity" (to borrow the DDD terminology) - in which case you would, I assume, want all Model classes to inherit common validation constraints. Or can these rules simply be part of a Service in the Model - i.e. a Validation service? For example, could you consider Zend_Form and it's validation classes part of the Model? The concept of a Domain Model does not appear to be limited to Entities, and so validation may not necessarily need to be confined to this Entities. It seems that you would require a lot of potentially superfluous handing of values and responses back and forth between forms and "Entities" - and in some instances you may not persist the data recieved from user input, or recieve it from user input at all.

  Read the article

• SQL with HAVING and temp table not working in Rails

  - by chrisrbailey

  I can't get the following SQL query to work quite right in Rails. It runs, but it fails to do the "HAVING row_number = 1" part, so I'm getting all the records, instead of just the first record from each group. A quick description of the query: it is finding hotel deals with various criteria, and in particular, priortizing them being paid, and then picking the one with the highest dealrank. So, if there are paid deal(s), it'll take the highest one of those (by dealrank) first, if no paid deals, it takes the highest dealrank unpaid deal for each hotel. Using MAX(dealrank) or something similar does not work as a way to pick off the first row of each hotel group, which is why I have the enclosing temptable and the creation of the row_number column. Here's the query: SELECT *, @num := if(@hid = hotel_id, @num + 1, 1) as row_number, @hid := hotel_id as dummy FROM ( SELECT hotel_deals.*, affiliates.cpc, (CASE when affiliates.cpc 0 then 1 else 0 end) AS paid FROM hotel_deals INNER JOIN hotels ON hotels.id = hotel_deals.hotel_id LEFT OUTER JOIN affiliates ON affiliates.id = hotel_deals.affiliate_id WHERE ((hotel_deals.percent_savings = 0) AND (hotel_deals.booking_deadline = ?)) GROUP BY hotel_deals.hotel_id, paid DESC, hotel_deals.dealrank ASC) temptable HAVING row_number = 1 I'm currently using Rails' find_by_sql to do this, although I've also tried putting it into a regular find using the :select, :from, and :having parts (but :having won't get used unless you have a :group as well). If there is a different way to write this query, that'd be good to know too. I am using Rails 2.3.5, MySQL 5.0.x.

  Read the article

• How to make ActiveRecord work with legacy partitioned/sharded databases/tables?

  - by Utensil

  thanks for your time first...after all the searching on google, github and here, and got more confused about the big words(partition/shard/fedorate),I figure that I have to describe the specific problem I met and ask around. My company's databases deals with massive users and orders, so we split databases and tables in various ways, some are described below: way database and table name shard by (maybe it's should be called partitioned by?) YZ.X db_YZ.tb_X order serial number last three digits YYYYMMDD. db_YYYYMMDD.tb date YYYYMM.DD db_YYYYMM.tb_ DD date too The basic concept is that databases and tables are seperated acording to a field(not nessissarily the primary key), and there are too many databases and too many tables, so that writing or magically generate one database.yml config for each database and one model for each table isn't possible or at least not the best solution. I looked into drnic's magic solutions, and datafabric, and even the source code of active record, maybe I could use ERB to generate database.yml and do database connection in around filter, and maybe I could use named_scope to dynamically decide the table name for find, but update/create opertions are bounded to "self.class.quoted_table_name" so that I couldn't easily get my problem solved. And even I could generate one model for each table, because its amount is up to 30 most. But this is just not DRY! What I need is a clean solution like the following DSL: class Order < ActiveRecord::Base shard_by :order_serialno do |key| [get_db_config_by(key), #because some or all of the databaes might share the same machine in a regular way or can be configed by a hash of regex, and it can also be a const get_db_name_by(key), get_tb_name_by(key), ] end end Can anybody enlight me? Any help would be greatly appreciated~~~~

  Read the article

• Mysql count and sum from two diferent tables

  - by Agent_x

  Hi all, i have a problem with some querys in php and mysql: I have 2 diferent tables with one field in common: table 1 id | hits | num_g | cats | usr_id |active 1 | 10 | 11 | 1 | 53 | 1 2 | 13 | 16 | 3 | 53 | 1 1 | 10 | 22 | 1 | 22 | 1 1 | 10 | 21 | 3 | 22 | 1 1 | 2 | 6 | 2 | 11 | 1 1 | 11 | 1 | 1 | 11 | 1 table 2 id | usr_id | points 1 | 53 | 300 Now i use this statement to sum just the total from the table 1 every id count + 1 too SELECT usr_id, COUNT( id ) + SUM( num_g + hits ) AS tot_h FROM table1 WHERE usr_id!='0' GROUP BY usr_id ASC LIMIT 0 , 15 and i get the total for each usr_id usr_id| tot_h | 53 | 50 22 | 63 11 | 20 until here all is ok, now i have a second table with extra points (table2) I try this: SELECT usr_id, COUNT( id ) + SUM( num_g + hits ) + (SELECT points FROM table2 WHERE usr_id != '0' ) AS tot_h FROM table1 WHERE usr_id != '0' GROUP BY usr_id ASC LIMIT 0 , 15 but it seems to sum the 300 extra points to all users: usr_id| tot_h | 53 | 350 22 | 363 11 | 320 Now how i can get the total like the first try but + the secon table in one statement? because now i have just one entry in the second table but i can be more there. thanks for all the help. =============================================================================== hi thomas thanks for your reply, i think is in the right direction, but im getting weirds results, like usr_id | tot_h 22 | NULL <== i think the null its because that usr_id as no value in the table2 53 | 1033 Its like the second user is getting all the the values. then i try this one: SELECT table1.usr_id, COUNT( table1.id ) + SUM( table1.num_g + table1.hits + table2.points ) AS tot_h FROM table1 LEFT JOIN table2 ON table2.usr_id = table1.usr_id WHERE table1.usr_id != '0' AND table2.usr_id = table1.usr_id GROUP BY table1.usr_id ASC Same result i just get the sum of all values and not by each user, i need something like this result: usr_id | tot_h 53 | 53 <==== plus 300 points on table1 22 | 56 <==== plus 100 points on table2 /////////the result i need //////////// usr_id | tot_h 53 | 353 <==== plus 300 points on table2 22 | 156 <==== plus 100 points on table2 I think the structure need to be something like this Pseudo statements ;) from table1 count all id to get the number of record where the usr_id are then sum hits + num_g and from table2 select the extra points where the usr_id are the same as table1 and get teh result: usr_id | tot_h 53 | 353 22 | 156

  Read the article

• optimistic and pessimistic locks

  - by billmce

  Working on my first php/Codeigniter project and I’ve scoured the ‘net for information on locking access to editing data and haven’t found very much information. I expect it to be a fairly regular occurrence for 2 users to attempt to edit the same form simultaneously. My experience (in the stateful world of BBx, filePro, and other RAD apps) is that the data being edited is locked using a pessimistic lock—one user has access to the edit form at the time. The second user basically has to wait for the first to finish. I understand this can be done using Ajax sending XMLHttpRequests to maintain a ‘lock’ database. The php world, lacking state, seems to prefer optimistic locking. If I understand it correctly it works like this: both users get to access the data and they each record a ‘before changes’ version of the data. Before saving their changes, the data is once again retrieved and compared the ‘before changes’ version. If the two versions are identical then the users changes are written. If they are different; the user is shown what has changed since he/she started editing and some mechanism is added to resolve the differences—or the user is shown a ‘Sorry, try again’ message. I’m interested in any experience people here have had with implementing both pessimistic and optimistic locking. If there are any libraries, tools, or ‘how-to’s available I’m appreciate a link. Thanks

  Read the article

• setMessage for Zend_Validate_EmailAddress doesn't work

  - by iSenne

  Hello everybody. I have a form and I want to set my custom errors in it. I am using Zend, and I have the following code... //Create validators $formMustBeEmail = new Zend_Validate_EmailAddress(); $formMustBeEmail->setMessage(array( Zend_Validate_EmailAddress::INVALID => "1. Invalid type given, value should be a string", Zend_Validate_EmailAddress::INVALID_FORMAT => "2. '%value%' is no valid email address in the basic format local-part@hostname", Zend_Validate_EmailAddress::INVALID_HOSTNAME => "3. '%hostname%' is no valid hostname for email address '%value%'", Zend_Validate_EmailAddress::INVALID_MX_RECORD => "4. '%hostname%' does not appear to have a valid MX record for the email address '%value%'", Zend_Validate_EmailAddress::INVALID_SEGMENT => "5. '%hostname%' is not in a routable network segment. The email address '%value%' should not be resolved from public network.", Zend_Validate_EmailAddress::DOT_ATOM => "6. '%localPart%' can not be matched against dot-atom format", Zend_Validate_EmailAddress::QUOTED_STRING => "7. '%localPart%' can not be matched against quoted-string format", Zend_Validate_EmailAddress::INVALID_LOCAL_PART => "8. '%localPart%' is no valid local part for email address '%value%'", Zend_Validate_EmailAddress::LENGTH_EXCEEDED => "9. '%value%' exceeds the allowed length", Then I make the form... $this->addElement('text', 'email'); $emailElement = $this->getElement('email'); $emailElement ->setLabel('Emailadres') ->setOrder(1) ->setRequired(true) ->addValidator($formMustBeTest) ->addValidator($formMustBeEmail) ->addFilter(new Zend_Filter_StripTags()); But it doesn't work. I still get the normal errors made by Zend. Can anyone see what I am doing wrong? Tnx in advanced...

  Read the article

• AudioRecord - empty buffer

  - by Arxas

  I' m trying to record some audio using AudioRecord class. Here is my code: int audioSource = AudioSource.MIC; int sampleRateInHz = 44100; int channelConfig = AudioFormat.CHANNEL_IN_MONO; int audioFormat = AudioFormat.ENCODING_PCM_16BIT; int bufferSizeInShorts = 44100; int bufferSizeInBytes = 2*bufferSizeInShorts; short Data[] = new short[bufferSizeInShorts]; Thread recordingThread; AudioRecord audioRecorder = new AudioRecord(audioSource, sampleRateInHz, channelConfig, audioFormat, bufferSizeInBytes); @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.activity_main); } @Override public boolean onCreateOptionsMenu(Menu menu) { getMenuInflater().inflate(R.menu.activity_main, menu); return true; } public void startRecording(View arg0) { audioRecorder.startRecording(); recordingThread = new Thread(new Runnable() { public void run() { while (Data[bufferSizeInShorts-1] == 0) audioRecorder.read(Data, 0, bufferSizeInShorts); } }); audioRecorder.stop(); } Unfortunately my short array is empty after the recording is over. May I kindly ask you to help me figure out what's wrong?

  Read the article

• Determining the chances of an event occurring when it hasn't occurred yet

  - by sanity

  A user visits my website at time t, and they may or may not click on a particular link I care about, if they do I record the fact that they clicked the link, and also the duration since t that they clicked it, call this d. I need an algorithm that allows me to create a class like this: class ClickProbabilityEstimate { public void reportImpression(long id); public void reportClick(long id); public double estimateClickProbability(long id); } Every impression gets a unique id, and this is used when reporting a click to indicate which impression the click belongs to. I need an algorithm that will return a probability, based on how much time has past since an impression was reported, that the impression will receive a click, based on how long previous clicks required. Clearly one would expect that this probability will decrease over time if there is still no click. If necessary, we can set an upper-bound, beyond which we consider the click probability to be 0 (eg. if its been an hour since the impression occurred, we can be pretty sure there won't be a click). The algorithm should be both space and time efficient, and hopefully make as few assumptions as possible, while being elegant. Ease of implementation would also be nice. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• Rationale in selecting Hash Key type

  - by Amrish

  Guys, I have a data structure which has 25 distinct keys (integer) and a value. I have a list of these objects (say 50000) and I intend to use a hash table to store/retrieve them. I am planning to take one of these approaches. Create a integer hash from these 25 integer keys and store it on a hash table. (Yeah! I have some means to handle collisions) Make a string concatenation on the individual keys and use it as a hash key for the hash table. For example, if the key values are 1,2,4,6,7 then the hash key would be "12467". Assuming that I have a total of 50000 records each with 25 distinct keys and a value, then will my second approach be a overkill when it comes to the cost of string comparisons it needs to do to retrieve and insert a record? Some more information! Each bucket in the hash table is a balanced binary tree. I am using the boost library's hash_combine method to create the hash from the 25 keys.

  Read the article

• SQL Compact performance on device

  - by Ben M

  My SQL Compact database is very simple, with just three tables and a single index on one of the tables (the table with 200k rows; the other two have less than a hundred each). The first time the .sdf file is used by my Compact Framework application on the target Windows Mobile device, the system hangs for well over a minute while "something" is done to the database: when deployed, the DB is 17 megabytes, and after this first usage, it balloons to 24 megs. All subsequent usage is pretty fast, so I'm assuming there's some sort of initialization / index building going on during this first usage. I'd rather not subject the user to this delay, so I'm wondering what this initialization process is and whether it can be performed before deployment. For now, I've copied the "initialized" database back to my desktop for use in the setup project, but I'd really like to have a better answer / solution. I've tried "full compact / repair" in the VS Database Properties dialog, but this made no difference. Any ideas? For the record, I should add that the database is only read from by the device application -- no modifications are made by that code.

  Read the article

• Obfuscating ids in Rails app

  - by fphilipe

  I'm trying to obfuscate all the ids that leave the server, i.e., ids appearing in URLs and in the HTML output. I've written a simple Base62 lib that has the methods encode and decode. Defining—or better—overwriting the id method of an ActiveRecord to return the encoded version of the id and adjusting the controller to load the resource with the decoded params[:id] gives me the desired result. The ids now are base62 encoded in the urls and the response displays the correct resource. Now I started to notice that subresources defined through has_many relationships aren't loading. e.g. I have a record called User that has_many Posts. Now User.find(1).posts is empty although there are posts with user_id = 1. My explanation is that ActiveRecord must be comparing the user_id of Post with the method id of User—which I've overwritten—instead of comparing with self[:id]. So basically this renders my approach useless. What I would like to have is something like defining obfuscates_id in the model and that the rest would be taken care of, i.e., doing all the encoding/decoding at the appropriate locations and preventing ids to be returned by the server. Is there any gem available or does somebody have a hint how to accomplish this? I bet I'm not the first trying this.

  Read the article

• Passing models between controllers in MVC4

  - by wtfsven

  I'm in the middle of my first foray into web development with MVC4, and I've run into a problem that I just know is one of the core issues in web development in general, but can't seem to wrap my mind around it. So I have two models: Employee and Company. Employee has a Company, therefore /Employee/Create contains a field that is either a dropdown list for selecting an existing Company, or an ActionLink to /Company/Create if none exists. But here's the issue: If a user has to create a Company, I need to preserve the existing Employee model across both Views--over to /Company/Create, then back to /Employee/Create. So my first approach was to pass the Employee model to /Company/Create with a @Html.ActionLink("Add...", "Create", "Organization", Model , null), but then when I get to Company's Create(Employee emp), all of emp's values are null. The second problem is that if I try to come back to /Employee/Create, I'd be passing back an Employee, which would resolve to the POST Action. Basically, the whole idea is to save the state of the /Employee/Create page, jump over to /Company/Create to create a Company record, then back to /Employee/Create to finish creating the Employee. I know there is a well understood solution to this because , but I can't seem to phase it well enough to get a good Google result out of it. I've though about using Session, but it seems like doing so would be a bit of a kludge. I'd really like an elegant solution to this.

  Read the article

• SQL Server: String Manipulation, Unpivoting

  - by OMG Ponies

  I have a column called body, which contains body content for our CMS. The data looks like: ...{cloak:id=1.1.1}...{cloak}...{cloak:id=1.1.2}...{cloak}...{cloak:id=1.1.3}...{cloak}... A moderately tweaked for readability example: ## h5. A formal process for approving and testing all external network connections and changes to the firewall and router configurations? {toggle-cloak:id=1.1.1}{tree-plus-icon} *Compliance:* {color:red}{*}Partial{*}{color} (?) {cloak:id=1.1.1} || Date: | 2010-03-15 || || Owner: | Brian || || Researched by: | || || Narrative: | Jira tickets are normally used to approve and track network changes\\ || || Artifacts: | Jira.bccampus.ca\\ || || Recommendation: | Need to update policy that no Jira = no change\\ || || Proposed Remedy(ies): | || || Approved Remedy(ies): | || || Date: | || || Reviewed by: | || || Remarks/comments: | || {cloak}## h5. Current network diagrams with all connections to cardholder data, including any wireless networks? {toggle-cloak:id=1.1.2}{tree-plus-icon} *Compliance:* {color:red}{*}TBD{*}{color} (?) {cloak:id=1.1.2} I'd like to get the cloak values out in the following format: requirement_num ----------------- 1.1.1 1.1.2 1.1.3 I'm looking at using UNIONs - does anyone have a better recommendation? Forgot to mention: I can't use regex, because CLR isn't enabled on the database. The numbers aren't sequencial. The current record jumps from 1.1.6 to 1.2.1

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242 243 244 245  | Next Page >