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  • Can simple javascript inheritance be simplified even further?

    - by Will
    John Resig (of jQuery fame) provides a concise and elegant way to allow simple JavaScript inheritance. It was so short and sweet, in fact, that it inspired me to try and simplify it even further (see code below). I've modified his original function such that it still passes all his tests and has the potential advantage of: readability (50% less code) simplicity (you don't have to be a ninja to understand it) performance (no extra wrappers around super/base method calls) consistency with C#'s base keyword Because this seems almost too good to be true, I want to make sure my logic doesn't have any fundamental flaws/holes/bugs, or if anyone has additional suggestions to improve or refute the code (perhaps even John Resig could chime in here!). Does anyone see anything wrong with my approach (below) vs. John Resig's original approach? if (!window.Class) { window.Class = function() {}; window.Class.extend = function(members) { var prototype = new this(); for (var i in members) prototype[i] = members[i]; prototype.base = this.prototype; function object() { if (object.caller == null && this.initialize) this.initialize.apply(this, arguments); } object.constructor = object; object.prototype = prototype; object.extend = arguments.callee; return object; }; } And the tests (below) are nearly identical to the original ones except for the syntax around base/super method calls (for the reason enumerated above): var Person = Class.extend( { initialize: function(isDancing) { this.dancing = isDancing; }, dance: function() { return this.dancing; } }); var Ninja = Person.extend( { initialize: function() { this.base.initialize(false); }, dance: function() { return this.base.dance(); }, swingSword: function() { return true; } }); var p = new Person(true); alert("true? " + p.dance()); // => true var n = new Ninja(); alert("false? " + n.dance()); // => false alert("true? " + n.swingSword()); // => true alert("true? " + (p instanceof Person && p instanceof Class && n instanceof Ninja && n instanceof Person && n instanceof Class));

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  • One entityManger finds entity , the other does not.

    - by Pitelk
    Hi all, I have a very strange behavior in my program. I have 2 classes (class LogIn and CreateGame) where i have injected an EntityManager in each using the annotation @PersistenceContext(unitName="myUnitPU") EntityManager entitymanger; In some point i remove an object called "user" from the database using entitymanger.remove(user) from a method in LogIn class. The business logic is that a user can host and join games ( in the same time) so removing the user all the entries in database about the games the user has created are removed and all the entries showing in which games the user has joined are removed also. After that, i call another function which checks if the user exists using a method in the LogIn class entitymanager.find(user) which surprisingly enough, finds the user. After that I call a method in CreateGame class which tries to find the user by using again entitymanger.find(user) the entitymanger in that class fails to find the user (which is the expected result as the user is removed and it's not in the database) So the question is : Why the entitymanager in one class finds the user (which is wrong) where the other doesn't find it? Does anyone has ever the same problem? PS : This "bug" occurs when the user has hosted a game which is joined by another user (lets call him Buser) and the Buser has made a game which is joined by the current user. GAME | HOST | CLIENTS game1 | user | userB game2 | userB | user where in this case by removing the user, the game1 is deleted and the user is removed from game2 so the result is GAME | HOST | CLIENTS game2 | userB | PS2 : The Beans are EJB3.0. The methods are called from a delegate class. The beans in the delegate class are instantiated using the InitialContext.lookup() method. Note that for logging in ,creating , joining games the appropriate delegate class calls the correspondent EJB which does the transactions. In the case of logOut, the delegate calls an EJB to logout the user but becuase other stuff must be done (as said above) this EJB calls other EJB (again using lookup() ) which has methods like removegame(), removeUserFromGame() etc. After those methods are executed the user is then logged out. Maybe it has something to do with the fact the the first entity manager is called by a delegate but the second from inside an EJb and thats why the one entitymanger can see the non-existent user while the other cannot? Also all the methods have TRANSACTIONTYPE.REQUIRED Thank you in advance

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  • Routed Command Question

    - by Andrew
    I'd like to implement a custom command to capture a Backspace key gesture inside of a textbox, but I don't know how. I wrote a test program in order to understand what's going on, but the behaviour of the program is rather confusing. Basically, I just need to be able to handle the Backspace key gesture via wpf commands while keyboard focus is in the textbox, and without disrupting the normal behaviour of the Backspace key within the textbox. Here's the xaml for the main window and the corresponding code-behind, too (note that I created a second command for the Enter key, just to compare its behaviour to that of the Backspace key): <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <Grid> <TextBox Margin="44,54,44,128" Name="textBox1" /> </Grid> </Window> And here's the corresponding code-behind: using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Input; namespace WpfApplication1 { /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for EntryListView.xaml /// </summary> public partial class Window1 : Window { public static RoutedCommand EnterCommand = new RoutedCommand(); public static RoutedCommand BackspaceCommand = new RoutedCommand(); public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); CommandBinding cb1 = new CommandBinding(EnterCommand, EnterExecuted, EnterCanExecute); CommandBinding cb2 = new CommandBinding(BackspaceCommand, BackspaceExecuted, BackspaceCanExecute); this.CommandBindings.Add(cb1); this.CommandBindings.Add(cb2); KeyGesture kg1 = new KeyGesture(Key.Enter); KeyGesture kg2 = new KeyGesture(Key.Back); InputBinding ib1 = new InputBinding(EnterCommand, kg1); InputBinding ib2 = new InputBinding(BackspaceCommand, kg2); this.InputBindings.Add(ib1); this.InputBindings.Add(ib2); } #region Command Handlers private void EnterCanExecute(object sender, CanExecuteRoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Inside EnterCanExecute Method."); e.CanExecute = true; } private void EnterExecuted(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Inside EnterExecuted Method."); e.Handled = true; } private void BackspaceCanExecute(object sender, CanExecuteRoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Inside BackspaceCanExecute Method."); e.Handled = true; } private void BackspaceExecuted(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Inside BackspaceExecuted Method."); e.Handled = true; } #endregion Command Handlers } } Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks! Andrew

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  • .NET WinForms INotifyPropertyChanged updates all bindings when one is changed. Better way?

    - by Dave Welling
    In a windows forms application, a property change that triggers INotifyPropertyChanged, will result in the form reading EVERY property from my bound object, not just the property changed. (See example code below) This seems absurdly wasteful since the interface requires the name of the changing property. It is causing a lot of clocking in my app because some of the property getters require calculations to be performed. I'll likely need to implement some sort of logic in my getters to discard the unnecessary reads if there is no better way to do this. Am I missing something? Is there a better way? Don't say to use a different presentation technology please -- I am doing this on Windows Mobile (although the behavior happens on the full framework as well). Here's some toy code to demonstrate the problem. Clicking the button will result in BOTH textboxes being populated even though one property has changed. using System; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Drawing; using System.Windows.Forms; namespace Example { public class ExView : Form { private Presenter _presenter = new Presenter(); public ExView() { this.MinimizeBox = false; TextBox txt1 = new TextBox(); txt1.Parent = this; txt1.Location = new Point(1, 1); txt1.Width = this.ClientSize.Width - 10; txt1.DataBindings.Add("Text", _presenter, "SomeText1"); TextBox txt2 = new TextBox(); txt2.Parent = this; txt2.Location = new Point(1, 40); txt2.Width = this.ClientSize.Width - 10; txt2.DataBindings.Add("Text", _presenter, "SomeText2"); Button but = new Button(); but.Parent = this; but.Location = new Point(1, 80); but.Click +=new EventHandler(but_Click); } void but_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { _presenter.SomeText1 = "some text 1"; } } public class Presenter : INotifyPropertyChanged { public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; private string _SomeText1 = string.Empty; public string SomeText1 { get { return _SomeText1; } set { _SomeText1 = value; _SomeText2 = value; // <-- To demonstrate that both properties are read OnPropertyChanged("SomeText1"); } } private string _SomeText2 = string.Empty; public string SomeText2 { get { return _SomeText2; } set { _SomeText2 = value; OnPropertyChanged("SomeText2"); } } private void OnPropertyChanged(string PropertyName) { PropertyChangedEventHandler temp = PropertyChanged; if (temp != null) { temp(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(PropertyName)); } } } }

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  • Using JUnit as an acceptance test framework

    - by Chris Knight
    OK, so I work for a company who has openly adopted agile practices for development in recent years. Our unit tests and code quality are improving. One area we still are working on is to find what works best for us in the automated acceptance test arena. We want to take our well formed user stories and use these to drive the code in a test driven manner. This will also give us acceptance level tests for each user story which we can then automate. To date, we've tried Fit, Fitnesse and Selenium. Each have their advantages, but we've also had real issues with them as well. With Fit and Fitnesse, we can't help but feel they overcomplicate things and we've had many technical issues using them. The business haven't fully bought in these tools and aren't particularly keen on maintaining the scripts all the time (and aren't big fans of the table style). Selenium is really good, but slow and relies on real time data and resources. One approach we are now considering is the use of the JUnit framework to provide similiar functionality. Rather than testing just a small unit of work using JUnit, why not use it to write a test (using the JUnit framework) to cover an acceptance level swath of the application? I.e. take a new story ("As a user I would like to see basic details of my policy...") and write a test in JUnit which starts executing application code at the point of entry for the policy details link but covers all code and logic down to the stubbed data access layer and back to the point of forwarding to the next page in the application, asserting on what data the user should see on that page. This seems to me to have the following advantages: Simplicity (no additional frameworks required) Zero effort to integrate with our Continuous Integration build server (since it already handles our JUnit tests) Full skillset already present in the team (its just a JUnit test after all) And the downsides being: Less customer involvement (though they are heavily involved in writing the user stories in the first place from which the acceptance tests will be written) Perhaps more difficult to understand (or make understood) the user story and acceptance criteria in a JUnit class verses a freetext specification ala Fit or Fitnesse So, my question is really, have you ever tried this method? Ever considered it? What are your thoughts? What do you like and dislike about this approach? Finally, please only mention alternative frameworks if you can say why you like or dislike them more than this approach.

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  • Stack and queue operations on the same array.

    - by Passonate Learner
    Hi. I've been thinking about a program logic, but I cannot draw a conclusion to my problem. Here, I've implemented stack and queue operations to a fixed array. int A[1000]; int size=1000; int top; int front; int rear; bool StackIsEmpty() { return (top==0); } bool StackPush( int x ) { if ( top >= size ) return false; A[top++] = x; return true; } int StackTop( ) { return A[top-1]; } bool StackPop() { if ( top <= 0 ) return false; A[--top] = 0; return true; } bool QueueIsEmpty() { return (front==rear); } bool QueuePush( int x ) { if ( rear >= size ) return false; A[rear++] = x; return true; } int QueueFront( ) { return A[front]; } bool QueuePop() { if ( front >= rear ) return false; A[front++] = 0; return true; } It is presumed(or obvious) that the bottom of the stack and the front of the queue is pointing at the same location, and vice versa(top of the stack points the same location as rear of the queue). For example, integer 1 and 2 is inside an array in order of writing. And if I call StackPop(), the integer 2 will be popped out, and if I call QueuePop(), the integer 1 will be popped out. My problem is that I don't know what happens if I do both stack and queue operations on the same array. The example above is easy to work out, because there are only two values involved. But what if there are more than 2 values involved? For example, if I call StackPush(1); QueuePush(2); QueuePush(4); StackPop(); StackPush(5); QueuePop(); what values will be returned in the order of bottom(front) from the final array? I know that if I code a program, I would receive a quick answer. But the reason I'm asking this is because I want to hear a logical explanations from a human being, not a computer.

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  • Dealing with missing messages in JavaScript when using BOSH

    - by JamieD
    We recently went into private beta on our flagship product and had a small launch event. Unfortunately the venue had a terrible wireless connection and packets were being dropped left right and centre causing havoc with out system, basically it wasn't able to work at all! Luckily we were able to switch to a different network and rescue the demo. This highlighted something that I knew was already an issue but hadn't appreciated quite how much of an issue it could be. Our system relies heavily on BOSH and has a rather large JavaScript code base which now works rather well under good network conditions. However we need to make it work well under bad network conditions as well. Due to the way that XMPP works, a fire and forget system, it's not easy to tell if a message you sent, or were supposed to receive, was actually sent or received. For instance, we have an offer system, one user will send an offer to another over BOSH. When this message is received by the server a message is published to the offering users offers_sent PEP node and a similar message to the receiving users offers_received PEP node. While the sending user is able to tell if their offer was send (relatively) easily, if the notification to the receiving user is never received that user will never know it missed a message. A little about out JavaScript setup, it has 4 main layers: StropheJS An MVC framework for dealing with low level tasks and to build on top of An application layer which contains the app logic routes, controllers models etc. as well as a browser cache of the model data A UI layer that receives events and publishes events to and from the application layer One way to solve the missing messages issue would be to periodically check the PEP nodes for new data that the browser doesn't know about. If a new message was discovered the browsers cache would be invalidated and all new data would be requested from the server. I'm not sure this is the best way to go and it also doesn't cover all situations. We certainly don't want to get into the situation where we are sending messages to confirm the previous message was received at it's destination as this would double the network traffic. With the number of real time websites growing daily this is an issue that must have been encountered by other developers, it would be interesting to see how it's been solved by others. As far as I can see there are two situations in which messages go missing: On poor connections messages are not sent or received due to the packets being dropped Involving navigating between pages, a message is received by the browser but is not fully processed and stored in the local cache before the page is unloaded. Or a message is added to the send queue but never sent before the page is unloaded I suspect the hardest issue to solve will be number 2. Any thoughts on the subject would be much appreciated.

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  • Why don't my scrollbars work properly when programmatically hiding rows in silverlight Datagrid?

    - by Luke Vilnis
    I have a Silverlight datagrid with custom code that allows for +/- buttons on the lefthand side and can display a table with a tree structure. The +/- buttons are bound to a IsExpanded property on my ViewModelRows, as I call them. The visibility of rows is bound to an IsVisible property on the ViewModelRows which is determined based on whether or not all of the parent rows are expanded. Straightforward enough. This code works fine in that if I scroll up and down the grid with PageUp/PageDown or the arrow keys, all the right rows are hidden and everything has the right structure and I can play with the +/- buttons to my hearts content. However, the vertical scroll bar on the right hand side, although it starts off the correct size and it scrolls through the rows smoothly, when I collapse rows and then re-expand them, doesn't go back to its correct size. The scrollbar can still usually be moved around to scroll through the whole collection, but because it is too big, once the bar moves to the bottom, there are still more rows to go through and it sort of jerkily shoots all the way down to the bottom or sometimes fails to scroll at all. This is pretty hard to describe so I included a screenshot with the black lines drawn on to show the difference in scrollbar length even though the two grids have the same number of rows expanded. I think this might be a bug related to the way the Datagrid does virtualization of rows. It seems to me like it isn't properly keeping track of how tall each row is supposed to be when expansion states change. Is there a way to programmatically "poke" (read hack) it to recalculate its scrollbar size on LoadingRow or something ugly like that? I'd include a code sample but there's 2 c# files and 1 xaml file so I wanted to see if anyone else has heard of this sort of issue before I try to make it reproducible in a self-contained way. Once again, scrolling with the arrow keys works fine so I'm pretty sure the underlying logic and binding is working, there's just some issue with the row height not being calculated properly. Since I'm a new user, it won't let me use image tags so here's the link to a picture of the problem: http://img210.imageshack.us/img210/8760/messedupscrollbars.png

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  • server|configuration problem, a php script just die with no error log & no reason

    - by Roberto
    Hi (first of all, thanks for your attention & sorry for my bad english hahaha also this is not a programming error, or thats what I think, I think this is an error in some configuration of the server or something else but I dont know what) I have a php script (is running like a process of linux, its not running on the web browser) that send SMS via SMPP on the port 2055 (using sockets in php) & then inserts like 10,000 rows into a dababase on MySQL, the script gets the data from a XML file; firts it was running in a shared server (Hostgator is our hosting provider) & at the begining it worked fine, with no trouble, but 5 months later an error appear, the process just die with no reason, the script only sent & inserted 700 rows in the table of the database & the process didnt show any warning or error, nothing appears in the error logs, & I didnt make any change in the script Hostgator never helped us hahaha so we decided to move the script from the shared server to a dedicated server; I thought it was a memory problem or something like that, but when we move the script to the dedicated server the problem just get worse, the script die when has just sent & inserted 40 to 50 rows to the database the information about this error: the shared server is on Red Hat 4.1.2-46 & the dedicated server is on CentOS 5.4 I have commented the line that sends the SMS, & the problem remains in the shared server, at the begining the script was fine, but then the script started to die when has just inserted 700 aprox. in the database, & now the script is dying when has inserted 2500 rows, its better but we didnt change anything in the dedicated server, the script dies when has just inserted like 40 row in the table the script, before it dies, change to a zombie process & we dont know why the usage of memory appears to be 0.3%, and of the cpu appears to be 0.7% to 1% I have changed the max memory limit of php to 128Mb, and even to -1 (so php wont have any limit) but the problem remains we have the limit of 50 connections of mysql at the same time, so I think this is not the problem Im using mysqli to connect from php to mysql Hostgator report that they haven't made any change or update in the servers what could be the problem?? what should I do??? what should I search??? is something in the logic Im missing?? what steps do I have to follow when managing & searching problems of process on Linux??? thank you very much, I think this is not a programming problem, but you have more experience than me, you can tell me thanks!!! bye!!! :)

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  • Writing csv files with python with exact formatting parameters

    - by Ben Harrison
    I'm having trouble with processing some csv data files for a project. The project's programmer has moved onto greener pastures, and now I'm trying to finish the data analysis up (I did/do the statistical analysis.) The programmer suggested using python/csv reader to help break down the files, which I've had some success with, but not in a way I can use. This code is a little different from what I was trying before. I am essentially attempting to create an array. In the raw data format, the first 7 rows contain no data, and then each column contains 50 experiments, each with 4000 rows, for 200000 some rows total. What I want to do is take each column, and make it an individual csv file, with each experiment in its own column. So it would be an array of 50 columns and 4000 rows for each data type. The code here does break down the correct values, I think the logic is okay, but it is breaking down the opposite of how I want it. I want the separators without quotes (the commas and spaces) and I want the element values in quotes. Right now it is doing just the opposite for both, element values with no quotes, and the separators in quotes. I've spent several hours trying to figure out how to do this to no avail, import csv ifile = open('00_follow_maverick.csv') epistemicfile = open('00_follower_maverick_EP.csv', 'w') reader = csv.reader(ifile) colnum = 0 rownum = 0 y = 0 z = 8 for column in reader: rownum = 4000 * y + z for element in column: writer = csv.writer(epistemicfile) if y <= 50: y = y + 1 writer.writerow([element]) writer.writerow(',') rownum = x * y + z if y > 50: y = 0 z = z + 1 writer.writerow(' ') rownum = x * y + z if z >= 4008: break What is going on: I am taking each row in the raw data file in iterations of 4000, so that I can separate them with commas for the 50 experiments. When y, the experiment indicator here, reaches 50, it resets back to experiment 0, and adds 1 to z, which tells it which row to look at, by the formula of 4000 * y + z. When it completes the rows for all 50 experiments, it is finished. The problem here is that I don't know how to get python to write the actual values in quotes, and my separators outside of quotes. Any help will be most appreciated. Apologies if this seems a stupid question, I have no programming experience, this is my first attempt ever. Thank you.

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  • Advantage of creating a generic repository vs. specific repository for each object?

    - by LuckyLindy
    We are developing an ASP.NET MVC application, and are now building the repository/service classes. I'm wondering if there are any major advantages to creating a generic IRepository interface that all repositories implement, vs. each Repository having its own unique interface and set of methods. For example: a generic IRepository interface might look like (taken from this answer): public interface IRepository : IDisposable { T[] GetAll<T>(); T[] GetAll<T>(Expression<Func<T, bool>> filter); T GetSingle<T>(Expression<Func<T, bool>> filter); T GetSingle<T>(Expression<Func<T, bool>> filter, List<Expression<Func<T, object>>> subSelectors); void Delete<T>(T entity); void Add<T>(T entity); int SaveChanges(); DbTransaction BeginTransaction(); } Each Repository would implement this interface (e.g. CustomerRepository:IRepository, ProductRepository:IRepository, etc). The alternate that we've followed in prior projects would be: public interface IInvoiceRepository : IDisposable { EntityCollection<InvoiceEntity> GetAllInvoices(int accountId); EntityCollection<InvoiceEntity> GetAllInvoices(DateTime theDate); InvoiceEntity GetSingleInvoice(int id, bool doFetchRelated); InvoiceEntity GetSingleInvoice(DateTime invoiceDate, int accountId); //unique InvoiceEntity CreateInvoice(); InvoiceLineEntity CreateInvoiceLine(); void SaveChanges(InvoiceEntity); //handles inserts or updates void DeleteInvoice(InvoiceEntity); void DeleteInvoiceLine(InvoiceLineEntity); } In the second case, the expressions (LINQ or otherwise) would be entirely contained in the Repository implementation, whoever is implementing the service just needs to know which repository function to call. I guess I don't see the advantage of writing all the expression syntax in the service class and passing to the repository. Wouldn't this mean easy-to-messup LINQ code is being duplicated in many cases? For example, in our old invoicing system, we call InvoiceRepository.GetSingleInvoice(DateTime invoiceDate, int accountId) from a few different services (Customer, Invoice, Account, etc). That seems much cleaner than writing the following in multiple places: rep.GetSingle(x => x.AccountId = someId && x.InvoiceDate = someDate.Date); The only disadvantage I see to using the specific approach is that we could end up with many permutations of Get* functions, but this still seems preferable to pushing the expression logic up into the Service classes. What am I missing?

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  • How to make this sub-sub-query work?

    - by Josh Weissbock
    I am trying to do this in one query. I asked a similar question a few days ago but my personal requirements have changed. I have a game type website where users can attend "classes". There are three tables in my DB. I am using MySQL. I have four tables: hl_classes (int id, int professor, varchar class, text description) hl_classes_lessons (int id, int class_id, varchar lessonTitle, varchar lexiconLink, text lessonData) hl_classes_answers (int id, int lesson_id, int student, text submit_answer, int percent) hl_classes stores all of the classes on the website. The lessons are the individual lessons for each class. A class can have infinite lessons. Each lesson is available in a specific term. hl_classes_terms stores a list of all the terms and the current term has the field active = '1'. When a user submits their answers to a lesson it is stored in hl_classes_answers. A user can only answer each lesson once. Lessons have to be answered sequentially. All users attend all "classes". What I am trying to do is grab the next lesson for each user to do in each class. When the users start they are in term 1. When they complete all 10 lessons in each class they move on to term 2. When they finish lesson 20 for each class they move on to term 3. Let's say we know the term the user is in by the PHP variable $term. So this is my query I am currently trying to massage out but it doesn't work. Specifically because of the hC.id is unknown in the WHERE clause SELECT hC.id, hC.class, (SELECT MIN(output.id) as nextLessonID FROM ( SELECT id, class_id FROM hl_classes_lessons hL WHERE hL.class_id = hC.id ORDER BY hL.id LIMIT $term,10 ) as output WHERE output.id NOT IN (SELECT lesson_id FROM hl_classes_answers WHERE student = $USER_ID)) as nextLessonID FROM hl_classes hC My logic behind this query is first to For each class; select all of the lessons in the term the current user is in. From this sort out the lessons the user has already done and grab the MINIMUM id of the lessons yet to be done. This will be the lesson the user has to do. I hope I have made my question clear enough.

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  • UpdatePanel works great in all browsers except IE8

    - by Phil
    I'm using a timer triggered update panel which works perfectly under the latest versions of Firefox, Opera, and Safari. However, in IE, it sometimes works fine (just the panel updates without flicker elsewhere), but often the whole page starts to flicker after a while. I'm using a control to encapsulate this logic and the control is used on all of the pages on my web site. Here's my code. Any suggestions? and Thank you. <%@ Control Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="QuoteControl.ascx.cs" Inherits="occinc.QuoteControl" %> <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" runat="server" EnablePartialRendering="True" AjaxFrameworkMode="Enabled"/> <asp:UpdatePanel UpdateMode="Conditional" runat="server" ID="UpdatePanel1" > <ContentTemplate> <div id="content-side2-three-column"> <%--Data Source Controls--%> <asp:ObjectDataSource ID="ObjectDataSourceQuotes" runat="server" SelectMethod="GetAllQuotes" TypeName="Quotes"></asp:ObjectDataSource> <asp:GridView ID="GridViewQuotes" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="False" DataSourceID="ObjectDataSourceQuotes" BorderWidth="0" BorderColor="white" OnRowCreated="GridViewAllQuotes_RowCreated"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <h2 id="<%# Eval("id").ToString() %>"> <%# Eval("Author") %> </h2> <q lang="en-us"><%# Eval("Content")%></q> <br /> <hr /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView> </div> </ContentTemplate> <Triggers><asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="Timer1" EventName="Tick" /></Triggers> </asp:UpdatePanel> <asp:Timer ID="Timer1" runat="server" Interval="5000" /> <div class="clear"> </div>

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  • Entity Framework Update Entity along with child entities (add/update as necessary)

    - by Jorin
    I have a many-to-many relationship between Issues and Scopes in my EF Context. In ASP.NET MVC, I bring up an Edit form that allows the user to edit a particular Issue. At the bottom of the form, is a list of checkboxes that allow them to select which scopes apply to this issue. When editing an issue, it likely will always have some Scopes associated with it already--these boxes will be checked already. However, the user has the opportunity to check more scopes or remove some of the currently checked scopes. My code looked something like this to save just the Issue: using (var edmx = new MayflyEntities()) { Issue issue = new Issue { IssueID = id, TSColumn = formIssue.TSColumn }; edmx.Issues.Attach(issue); UpdateModel(issue); if (ModelState.IsValid) { //if (edmx.SaveChanges() != 1) throw new Exception("Unknown error. Please try again."); edmx.SaveChanges(); TempData["message"] = string.Format("Issue #{0} successfully modified.", id); } } So, when I try to add in the logic to save the associated scopes, I tried several things, but ultimately, this is what made the most sense to me: using (var edmx = new MayflyEntities()) { Issue issue = new Issue { IssueID = id, TSColumn = formIssue.TSColumn }; edmx.Issues.Attach(issue); UpdateModel(issue); foreach (int scopeID in formIssue.ScopeIDs) { var thisScope = new Scope { ID = scopeID }; edmx.Scopes.Attach(thisScope); thisScope.ProjectID = formIssue.ProjectID; if (issue.Scopes.Contains(thisScope)) { issue.Scopes.Attach(thisScope); //the scope already exists } else { issue.Scopes.Add(thisScope); // the scope needs to be added } } if (ModelState.IsValid) { //if (edmx.SaveChanges() != 1) throw new Exception("Unknown error. Please try again."); edmx.SaveChanges(); TempData["message"] = string.Format("Issue #{0} successfully modified.", id); } } But, unfortunately, that just throws the following exception: An object with the same key already exists in the ObjectStateManager. The ObjectStateManager cannot track multiple objects with the same key. What am I doing wrong?

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  • Understanding CLR 2.0 Memory Model

    - by Eloff
    Joe Duffy, gives 6 rules that describe the CLR 2.0+ memory model (it's actual implementation, not any ECMA standard) I'm writing down my attempt at figuring this out, mostly as a way of rubber ducking, but if I make a mistake in my logic, at least someone here will be able to catch it before it causes me grief. Rule 1: Data dependence among loads and stores is never violated. Rule 2: All stores have release semantics, i.e. no load or store may move after one. Rule 3: All volatile loads are acquire, i.e. no load or store may move before one. Rule 4: No loads and stores may ever cross a full-barrier (e.g. Thread.MemoryBarrier, lock acquire, Interlocked.Exchange, Interlocked.CompareExchange, etc.). Rule 5: Loads and stores to the heap may never be introduced. Rule 6: Loads and stores may only be deleted when coalescing adjacent loads and stores from/to the same location. I'm attempting to understand these rules. x = y y = 0 // Cannot move before the previous line according to Rule 1. x = y z = 0 // equates to this sequence of loads and stores before possible re-ordering load y store x load 0 store z Looking at this, it appears that the load 0 can be moved up to before load y, but the stores may not be re-ordered at all. Therefore, if a thread sees z == 0, then it also will see x == y. If y was volatile, then load 0 could not move before load y, otherwise it may. Volatile stores don't seem to have any special properties, no stores can be re-ordered with respect to each other (which is a very strong guarantee!) Full barriers are like a line in the sand which loads and stores can not be moved over. No idea what rule 5 means. I guess rule 6 means if you do: x = y x = z Then it is possible for the CLR to delete both the load to y and the first store to x. x = y z = y // equates to this sequence of loads and stores before possible re-ordering load y store x load y store z // could be re-ordered like this load y load y store x store z // rule 6 applied means this is possible? load y store x // but don't pop y from stack (or first duplicate item on top of stack) store z What if y was volatile? I don't see anything in the rules that prohibits the above optimization from being carried out. This does not violate double-checked locking, because the lock() between the two identical conditions prevents the loads from being moved into adjacent positions, and according to rule 6, that's the only time they can be eliminated. So I think I understand all but rule 5, here. Anyone want to enlighten me (or correct me or add something to any of the above?)

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  • How to work with file and streams in php,case: if we open file in Class A and pass open stream to Cl

    - by Rachel
    I have two class, one is Business Logic Class{BLO} and the other one is Data Access Class{DAO} and I have dependency in my BLO class to my Dao class. Basically am opening a csv file to write into it in my BLO class using inside its constructor as I am creating an object of BLO and passing in file from command prompt: Code: $this->fin = fopen($file,'w+') or die('Cannot open file'); Now inside BLO I have one function notifiy, which call has dependency to DAO class and call getCurrentDBSnapshot function from the Dao and passes the open stream so that data gets populated into the stream. Code: Blo Class Constructor: public function __construct($file) { //Open Unica File for parsing. $this->fin = fopen($file,'w+') or die('Cannot open file'); // Initialize the Repository DAO. $this->dao = new Dao('REPO'); } Blo Class method that interacts with Dao Method and call getCurrentDBSnapshot. public function notifiy() { $data = $this->fin; var_dump($data); //resource(9) of type (stream) $outputFile=$this->dao->getCurrentDBSnapshot($data); // So basically am passing in $data which is resource((9) of type (stream) } Dao function: getCurrentDBSnapshot which get current state of Database table. public function getCurrentDBSnapshot($data) { $query = "SELECT * FROM myTable"; //Basically just preparing the query. $stmt = $this->connection->prepare($query); // Execute the statement $stmt->execute(); $header = array(); while ($row=$stmt->fetch(PDO::FETCH_ASSOC)) { if(empty($header)) { // Get the header values from table(columnnames) $header = array_keys($row); // Populate csv file with header information from the mytable fputcsv($data, $header); } // Export every row to a file fputcsv($data, $row); } var_dump($data);//resource(9) of type (stream) return $data; } So basically in am getting back resource(9) of type (stream) from getCurrentDBSnapshot and am storing that stream into $outputFile in Blo class method notify. Now I want to close the file which I opened for writing and so it should be fclose of $outputFile or $data, because in both the cases it gives me: var_dump(fclose($outputFile)) as bool(false) var_dump(fclose($data)) as bool(false) and var_dump($outputFile) as resource(9) of type (Unknown) var_dump($data) as resource(9) of type (Unknown) My question is that if I open file using fopen in class A and if I call class B method from Class A method and pass an open stream, in our case $data, than Class B would perform some work and return back and open stream and so How can I close that open stream in Class A's method or it is ok to keep that stream open and not use fclose ? Would appreciate inputs as am not very sure as how this can be implemented.

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  • Where is the method call in the EXE file?

    - by Victor Hurdugaci
    Introduction After watching this video from LIDNUG, about .NET code protection http://secureteam.net/lidnug_recording/Untitled.swf (especially from 46:30 to 57:30), I would to locate the call to a MessageBox.Show in an EXE I created. The only logic in my "TrialApp.exe" is: public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("This is trial app"); } } Compiled on the Release configuration: http://rapidshare.com/files/392503054/TrialApp.exe.html What I do to locate the call Run the application in WinDBG and break after the message box appears. Get the CLR stack with !clrstack: 0040e840 5e21350b [InlinedCallFrame: 0040e840] System.Windows.Forms.SafeNativeMethods.MessageBox(System.Runtime.InteropServices.HandleRef, System.String, System.String, Int32) 0040e894 5e21350b System.Windows.Forms.MessageBox.ShowCore(System.Windows.Forms.IWin32Window, System.String, System.String, System.Windows.Forms.MessageBoxButtons, System.Windows.Forms.MessageBoxIcon, System.Windows.Forms.MessageBoxDefaultButton, System.Windows.Forms.MessageBoxOptions, Boolean) 0040e898 002701f0 [InlinedCallFrame: 0040e898] 0040e934 002701f0 TrialApp.Form1.Form1_Load(System.Object, System.EventArgs) Get the MethodDesc structure (using the address of Form1_Load) !ip2md 002701f0 MethodDesc: 001762f8 Method Name: TrialApp.Form1.Form1_Load(System.Object, System.EventArgs) Class: 00171678 MethodTable: 00176354 mdToken: 06000005 Module: 00172e9c IsJitted: yes CodeAddr: 002701d0 Transparency: Critical Source file: D:\temp\TrialApp\TrialApp\Form1.cs @ 22 Dump the IL of this method (by MethodDesc) !dumpil 001762f8 IL_0000: ldstr "This is trial app" IL_0005: call System.Windows.Forms.MessageBox::Show IL_000a: pop IL_000b: ret So, as the video mentioned, the call to to Show is 5 bytes from the beginning of the method implementation. Now I open CFFExplorer (just like in the video) and get the RVA of the Form1_Load method: 00002083. After this, I go to Address Converter (again in CFF Explorer) and navigate to offset 00002083. There we have: 32 72 01 00 00 70 28 16 00 00 0A 26 2A 7A 03 2C 13 02 7B 02 00 00 04 2C 0B 02 7B 02 00 00 04 6F 17 00 00 0A 02 03 28 18 00 00 0A 2A 00 03 30 04 00 67 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 28 19 00 00 0A 02 In the video is mentioned that the first 12 bytes are for the method header so I skip them 2A 7A 03 2C 13 02 7B 02 00 00 04 2C 0B 02 7B 02 00 00 04 6F 17 00 00 0A 02 03 28 18 00 00 0A 2A 00 03 30 04 00 67 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 28 19 00 00 0A 02 5 bytes from the beginning of the implementation should be the opcode for method call (28). Unfortunately, is not there. 02 7B 02 00 00 04 2C 0B 02 7B 02 00 00 04 6F 17 00 00 0A 02 03 28 18 00 00 0A 2A 00 03 30 04 00 67 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 28 19 00 00 0A 02 Questions: What am I doing wrong? Why there is no method call at that position in the file? Or maybe the video is missing some information... Why the guy in that video replaces the call with 9 zeros?

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  • JavaScript: How to get text from all descendents of an element, disregarding scripts?

    - by Bungle
    My current project involves gathering text content from an element and all of its descendents, based on a provided selector. For example, when supplied the selector #content and run against this HTML: <div id="content"> <p>This is some text.</p> <script type="text/javascript"> var test = true; </script> <p>This is some more text.</p> </div> my script would return (after a little whitespace cleanup): This is some text. var test = true; This is some more text. However, I need to disregard text nodes that occur within <script> elements. This is an excerpt of my current code: // get text content of all matching elements for (x = 0; x < selectors.length; x++) { matches = Sizzle(selectors[x], document); for (y = 0; y < matches.length; y++) { match = matches[y]; if (match.innerText) { // IE content += match.innerText + ' '; } else if (match.textContent) { // other browsers content += match.textContent + ' '; } } } It's a bit overly simplistic in that it just returns all text nodes within the element (and its descendants) that matches the provided selector. The solution I'm looking for would return all text nodes except for those that fall within script elements. It doesn't need to be especially high-performance, but I do need it to ultimately be cross-browser compatible. I'm assuming that I'll need to somehow loop through all children of the element that matches the selector and accumulate all text nodes other than ones within <script> elements; it doesn't look like there's any way to identify JavaScript once it's already rolled into the string accumulated from all of the text nodes. I can't use jQuery (for performance/bandwidth reasons), although you may have noticed that I do use its Sizzle selector engine, so jQuery's selector logic is available. Thanks in advance for any help!

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  • adding child nodes to a treeview control in wpf,c#

    - by ebhakt
    Hi , i have implemented a treeview control on a buttonclick event like this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Controls; using System.Windows.Data; using System.Windows.Documents; using System.Windows.Input; using System.Windows.Media; using System.Windows.Media.Imaging; using System.Windows.Navigation; using System.Windows.Shapes; using System.Collections.ObjectModel; namespace TaxonomyTreeview { /// /// Interaction logic for Window1.xaml /// public partial class Window1 : Window { ObservableCollection _TaxonomyCollection = new ObservableCollection(); public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void Window_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { } public ObservableCollection<TaxonomyData> TaxonomyCollection { get { return _TaxonomyCollection; } } private void SelectedTaxonomyChanged(object sender, RoutedPropertyChangedEventArgs<Object> e) { TaxonomyData taxo = taxonomytree.SelectedItem as TaxonomyData; if (taxo != null) { MessageBox.Show("" + taxo.Tid); } } public class TaxonomyData { private string _name; private string _tid; public string Tid { get { return _tid; } set { _tid = value; } } public string Name { get { return _name; } set { _name = value; } } public TaxonomyData(string name, string tid) { Name = name; Tid = tid; } } private void populate_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { taxonomytree.Items.Clear(); TaxonomyCollection.Add(new TaxonomyData("Taxonomy1", "1")); taxonomytree.Items.Add(TaxonomyCollection[0]); } } } The xaml code is : <TextBox Height="23" Margin="20,9,0,0" Name="startvid" VerticalAlignment="Top" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Width="120" /> <TextBox Height="23" Margin="165,9,151,0" Name="endvid" VerticalAlignment="Top" /> <Button Height="23.78" HorizontalAlignment="Right" Margin="0,8.22,11,0" Name="populate" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="115" Click="populate_Click">Populate</Button> <TreeView HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="20,53,0,144" Width="120" Name="taxonomytree" ItemsSource="{Binding Window1.TaxonomyCollection}" SelectedItemChanged="SelectedTaxonomyChanged"> <TreeView.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Name}" /> </DataTemplate> </TreeView.ItemTemplate> </TreeView> </Grid> As i want to display, the structure in a hierarchy , i want to know what is the best method to add a child node to this Please help

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  • Reading Metadata property of GifBitmapDecoder...why is it null?

    - by David
    How can I read the delay, left and top offset data for each frame of a gif? I've gotten this far. Load the Gif var myGif = new GifBitmapDecoder(uri, BitmapCreateOptions.PreservePixelFormat, BitmapCacheOption.OnLoad); Get a frame var frame = myGif.Frames[i]; From MSDN: Native Image Format Metadata Queries read (ushort)Metadata.GetQuery("/grctlext/Delay"), (ushort)Metadata.GetQuery("/imgdesc/Left"), (ushort)Metadata.GetQuery("/imgdesc/Top") But two things don't work. First the Metadata property of both the gif and the frame are always null, even if I try different animated gif files. Second, the Metadata property of the frame doesn't seem to have a GetQuery method. How do I run these queries, what did I miss? Edit: Here is sample code that gives me null metadata. Using a fresh install of VS2010 Premium, on a fresh WPF application. The image file is the one in the comments. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Controls; using System.Windows.Data; using System.Windows.Documents; using System.Windows.Input; using System.Windows.Media; using System.Windows.Media.Imaging; using System.Windows.Navigation; using System.Windows.Shapes; namespace WpfApplication1 { /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for MainWindow.xaml /// </summary> public partial class MainWindow : Window { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); var uri = new Uri(@"c:\b-414328-animated_gif_.gif"); var myGif = new GifBitmapDecoder(uri, BitmapCreateOptions.PreservePixelFormat, BitmapCacheOption.OnLoad); var frame = myGif.Frames[0]; Title = ""; Title += "Global Metadata is null: " + (myGif.Metadata == null).ToString(); Title += "; Frame Metadata is null: " + (frame.Metadata == null).ToString(); // Crash due to null metadata //var frameData = (BitmapMetadata)frame.Metadata; //var rate = (ushort)frameData.GetQuery("/grctlext/Delay"); } } }

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  • How to communicate between Client and Server in a Client-Server Application?

    - by Sanoj
    I would like to implement an Client-Server Application, where the business-logic, security validations and a database are at the server and the user interface are at the client. I would like to implement clients in different languages i.e. one in WPF/.NET, one Swing/Java , one in Android/Java and maybe one HTML/JavaScript client. The server will be on Internet, so I would like to be able to have encrypted communication. The client will send some lists of items to be added to the database, or update items, and do some transactions. The server will check if the items are already updated by another client, or update the item, add new items or delete items. How do I solve the communication between clients and the server in such a system? I have been thinking about: http/https webserver, and sending messages in JSON or XML and use Web Sockets for bi-directional communication. Use http in a RESTful way, except when WebSockets are needed. But I guess there are better solutions for native desktop applications than http? CORBA - I have just heard about it, and it's old and complex. Not much talk about it these days. XMPP/Jabber - I have just heard about it and I don't know if it fits me at all. EJabberd seams to be a popular implementation. AMQP - I have just heard about it and I don't know if it fits me at all. RabbitMQ seams to be a popular implementation. Windows Communication Foundation, Java RMI, Java Message Service - but are they language independent? I guess some of these alternatives are on different levels, maybe I can have i.e xmpp or amqp in web sockets over https? What technologys are used for this problem in companies today? and what is recommended to use? I have no experience of them other than webservers and http. Please give me some guidance in this jungle. What are the pros and cons of these technologies in my situation?

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  • why is this rails association loading individually after an eager load?

    - by codeman73
    I'm trying to avoid the N+1 queries problem with eager loading, but it's not working. The associated models are still being loaded individually. Here are the relevant ActiveRecords and their relationships: class Player < ActiveRecord::Base has_one :tableau end Class Tableau < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :player has_many :tableau_cards has_many :deck_cards, :through => :tableau_cards end Class TableauCard < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :tableau belongs_to :deck_card, :include => :card end class DeckCard < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :card has_many :tableaus, :through => :tableau_cards end class Card < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :deck_cards end and the query I'm using is inside this method of Player: def tableau_contains(card_id) self.tableau.tableau_cards = TableauCard.find :all, :include => [ {:deck_card => (:card)}], :conditions => ['tableau_cards.tableau_id = ?', self.tableau.id] contains = false for tableau_card in self.tableau.tableau_cards # my logic here, looking at attributes of the Card model, with # tableau_card.deck_card.card; # individual loads of related Card models related to tableau_card are done here end return contains end Does it have to do with scope? This tableau_contains method is down a few method calls in a larger loop, where I originally tried doing the eager loading because there are several places where these same objects are looped through and examined. Then I eventually tried the code as it is above, with the load just before the loop, and I'm still seeing the individual SELECT queries for Card inside the tableau_cards loop in the log. I can see the eager-loading query with the IN clause just before the tableau_cards loop as well. EDIT: additional info below with the larger, outer loop Here's the larger loop. It is inside an observer on after_save def after_save(pa) @game = Game.find(turn.game_id, :include => :goals) @game.players = Player.find :all, :include => [ {:tableau => (:tableau_cards)}, :player_goals ], :conditions => ['players.game_id =?', @game.id] for player in @game.players player.tableau.tableau_cards = TableauCard.find :all, :include => [ {:deck_card => (:card)}], :conditions => ['tableau_cards.tableau_id = ?', player.tableau.id] if(player.tableau_contains(card)) ... end end end

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  • Active Directory validate service account and user accounts

    - by Padur
    Hello folks I have an issue here, I guess you all know what is AD service account and why it is used for, if not please see the below description ? SSL-Explorer requires a dedicated Active Directory account to use for authenticating AD users. This account serves as a link to your Active Directory database. If the Service Account is not found on your AD database then the SSL-Explorer service will not start. Well I have Active Directory service account details and user submitted login/password details.In the code below I validated service account by giving MEMBER_GRPUP and adminPassword and I check whether the user exists in Active Directory by submitting samaaccountname but my question here is how do I validate the password submitted for that user? I am not sure how to do this, I appreciate if anybody has any suggestions on this. Thanks for your time. public boolean validateUserFromActiveDirectory(String userId) { final String MEMBER_GROUP = "CN=asdadasd,OU=asdasdasd Accounts,OU=adasdas,OU=asdasdas,DC=asdasdas,DC=asdasdas,DC=adasdasd,DC=asdasdasd"; String employeeNumber = ""; final String LDAP_INIT_CTX = "com.sun.jndi.ldap.LdapCtxFactory"; final String LDAP_URL = "ldap://xx-ssssssss.eee.eee.eeeee.eeeee:636"; final String MY_ATTRS[] = { "employeeNumber" }; String adminPassword = "somepassword"; String securityProtocol = "ssl"; boolean isValidUser = false; try { Hashtable env = new Hashtable(); env.put(Context.INITIAL_CONTEXT_FACTORY, LDAP_INIT_CTX); env.put(Context.PROVIDER_URL, LDAP_URL); env.put(Context.SECURITY_AUTHENTICATION, "simple"); env.put(Context.REFERRAL, "follow"); env.put(Context.SECURITY_PRINCIPAL, MEMBER_GROUP); env.put(Context.SECURITY_CREDENTIALS, adminPassword); env.put(Context.SECURITY_PROTOCOL, securityProtocol); //C:\Documents and Settings\yourusername\Local Settings\Temp File tf = File.createTempFile("adentTruststore", ".jks"); tf.deleteOnExit(); byte buffer[] = new byte[0x1000]; ClassLoader cl = JNDI.class.getClassLoader(); InputStream in = cl.getResourceAsStream( "someTruststore.jks"); FileOutputStream out = new FileOutputStream(tf); int cnt; while ((cnt = in.read(buffer)) != -1) out.write(buffer, 0, cnt); in.close(); out.close(); System.setProperty("javax.net.ssl.trustStore", tf .getAbsolutePath()); DirContext context = new InitialLdapContext(env, null); SearchControls searchControls = new SearchControls(); searchControls.setSearchScope(SearchControls.SUBTREE_SCOPE); NamingEnumeration results = context.search( "XX=ent,XX=abc,XX=aaaaa,XX=aaaa", "(sAMAccountName=" + userId + ")", searchControls); if (results != null && results.hasMore()) { //some logic } } } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } return isValidUser; }

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  • whats wrong in this LINQ synatx?

    - by Saurabh Kumar
    Hi, I am trying to convert a SQL query to LINQ. Somehow my count(distinct(x)) logic does not seem to be working correctly. The original SQL is quite efficient(or so i think), but the generated SQL is not even returning the correct result. I am trying to fix this LINQ to do what the original SQL is doing, AND in an efficient way as the original query is doing. Help here would be really apreciated as I am stuck here :( SQL which is working and I need to make a comparable LINQ of: SELECT [t1].[PersonID] AS [personid] FROM [dbo].[Code] AS [t0] INNER JOIN [dbo].[phonenumbers] AS [t1] ON [t1].[PhoneCode] = [t0].[Code] INNER JOIN [dbo].[person] ON [t1].[PersonID]= [dbo].[Person].PersonID WHERE ([t0].[codetype] = 'phone') AND ( ([t0].[CodeDescription] = 'Home') AND ([t1].[PhoneNum] = '111') OR ([t0].[CodeDescription] = 'Work') AND ([t1].[PhoneNum] = '222') ) GROUP BY [t1].[PersonID] HAVING COUNT(DISTINCT([t1].[PhoneNum]))=2 The LINQ which I made is approximately as below: var ids = context.Code.Where(predicate); var rs = from r in ids group r by new { r.phonenumbers.person.PersonID} into g let matchcount=g.Select(p => p.phonenumbers.PhoneNum).Distinct().Count() where matchcount ==2 select new { personid = g.Key }; Unfortunately, the above LINQ is NOT generating the correct result, and is actually internally getting generated to the SQL shown below. By the way, this generated query is also reading ALL the rows(about 19592040) around 2 times due to the COUNTS :( Wich is a big performance issue too. Please help/point me to the right direction. Declare @p0 VarChar(10)='phone' Declare @p1 VarChar(10)='Home' Declare @p2 VarChar(10)='111' Declare @p3 VarChar(10)='Work' Declare @p4 VarChar(10)='222' Declare @p5 VarChar(10)='2' SELECT [t9].[PersonID], ( SELECT COUNT(*) FROM ( SELECT DISTINCT [t13].[PhoneNum] FROM [dbo].[Code] AS [t10] INNER JOIN [dbo].[phonenumbers] AS [t11] ON [t11].[PhoneType] = [t10].[Code] INNER JOIN [dbo].[Person] AS [t12] ON [t12].[PersonID] = [t11].[PersonID] INNER JOIN [dbo].[phonenumbers] AS [t13] ON [t13].[PhoneType] = [t10].[Code] WHERE ([t9].[PersonID] = [t12].[PersonID]) AND ([t10].[codetype] = @p0) AND ((([t10].[codetype] = @p1) AND ([t11].[PhoneNum] = @p2)) OR (([t10].[codetype] = @p3) AND ([t11].[PhoneNum] = @p4))) ) AS [t14] ) AS [cnt] FROM ( SELECT [t3].[PersonID], ( SELECT COUNT(*) FROM ( SELECT DISTINCT [t7].[PhoneNum] FROM [dbo].[Code] AS [t4] INNER JOIN [dbo].[phonenumbers] AS [t5] ON [t5].[PhoneType] = [t4].[Code] INNER JOIN [dbo].[Person] AS [t6] ON [t6].[PersonID] = [t5].[PersonID] INNER JOIN [dbo].[phonenumbers] AS [t7] ON [t7].[PhoneType] = [t4].[Code] WHERE ([t3].[PersonID] = [t6].[PersonID]) AND ([t4].[codetype] = @p0) AND ((([t4].[codetype] = @p1) AND ([t5].[PhoneNum] = @p2)) OR (([t4].[codetype] = @p3) AND ([t5].[PhoneNum] = @p4))) ) AS [t8] ) AS [value] FROM ( SELECT [t2].[PersonID] FROM [dbo].[Code] AS [t0] INNER JOIN [dbo].[phonenumbers] AS [t1] ON [t1].[PhoneType] = [t0].[Code] INNER JOIN [dbo].[Person] AS [t2] ON [t2].[PersonID] = [t1].[PersonID] WHERE ([t0].[codetype] = @p0) AND ((([t0].[codetype] = @p1) AND ([t1].[PhoneNum] = @p2)) OR (([t0].[codetype] = @p3) AND ([t1].[PhoneNum] = @p4))) GROUP BY [t2].[PersonID] ) AS [t3] ) AS [t9] WHERE [t9].[value] = @p5 Thanks!

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  • Managing multiple AJAX calls to PHP scripts

    - by relativelycoded
    I have a set of 5 HTML dropdowns that act as filters for narrowing results returned from a mySQL database. The three pertinent filters are for "Province", "Region", and "City" selection, respectively. I have three functions: findSchools(), which runs when any of the filters (marked with CSS class .filter) are changed, and fetches the results via AJAX from a PHP script. Once that is done, two other functions are called... changeRegionOptions(), which, upon changing the "Province" filter, and updates the available options using the same method as the first function, but posting to a different script. changeCityOptions(), which runs if the "Region" filter was changed, and updates options, again using the same method. The problem is that since I want these AJAX functions to run simultaneously, and they by nature run asynchronously, I've tried using $.when to control the execution of the functions, but it doesn't fix the problem. The functions run, but the Region and City filters return blank (no options); the FireBug report shows absolutely no output, even though the POST request went through. The posted parameter for filter_province gets sent normally, but the one for region gets cut off at the end -- it sends as filter_region=, with no value passed. So I'm presuming my logic is wrong somewhere. The code is below: // When any of the filters are changed, let's query the database... $("select.filter").change(function() { findSchools(); }); // First, we see if there are any results... function findSchools() { var sch_province = document.filterform.filter_province.value; var sch_region = document.filterform.filter_region.value; var sch_city = document.filterform.filter_city.value; var sch_cat = document.filterform.filter_category.value; var sch_type = document.filterform.filter_type.value; $.post("fetch_results.php", { filter_province : sch_province, filter_region : sch_region, filter_city : sch_city, filter_category : sch_cat, filter_type : sch_type }, function(data) { $("#results").html(""); $("#results").hide(); $("#results").html(data); $("#results").fadeIn(600); } ); // Once the results are fetched, we want to see if the filter they changed was the one for Province, and if so, update the Region and City options to match that selection... $("#filter_province").change(function() { $.when(findSchools()) .done(changeRegionOptions()); $.when(changeRegionOptions()) .done(changeCityOptions()); }); }; This is just one of the ways I've tried to solve it; I've tried using an IF statement, and tried calling the functions directly inside the general select.filter.change() function (after findSchools(); ), but they all return the same result. Any help with this would be great!

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