Search Results

Search found 6988 results on 280 pages for 'if else statement'.

Page 239/280 | < Previous Page | 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242 243 244 245 246  | Next Page >

  • Class library reference problem

    - by Anindya Chatterjee
    I am building a class library and using its default namespace as "System". There suppose I am creating a generic data structure say PriorityQueue and putting it under System.Collections.Generic namespace. Now when I am referencing that library from another project, I can't see PriorityQueue under "System.Collections.Generic" namespace anymore. Though the library is referenced in that project I can not access any of the classes in it. My question was mscorlib and System.dll share similar namespaces, but still classes from both the assembly is accessible, but why can't mine? If I put a public class under System.Collections.Generic namespace in my class library and refer that library in a project and use a statement like "using System.Collections.Generic", still why I can't access my class there? This was an experimentation I did, I know using System namespace is not encouraged in custom class library, but I want to know the reason behind why I can't access my class in this special case? Please someone shed some light on it. PS: Last time I asked similar question but put it wrongly, so people got misunderstood and I didn't get my answer. This time I am trying to put it correctly as far as I can. Sorry for the misunderstanding.

    Read the article

  • routing mvc on the web

    - by generic_noob
    Hi, I was wondering if anyone could possibly provide me some advice on how i could improve the routing (and/or architecture) to each 'section' of my application. (I'm writing in PHP5, and trying to use strict MVC) Basically, I have a generic index page for the app, and that will spew out boilerplate stuff like jquery and the css etc. and it also generates the main navidation for the entire site, but i'm unsure about the best approach to connect the 'main menu' items(hyperlinks) with their associated controllers. Up until now I have been appending strings into the url and using a 'switch' statement to branch to the correct controller(and view) by extracting the strings back out of '$GET[]' to let it execute the code for the corrosponding action. for instance if i had a basic crud system for customer data, the url to edit a customers details would look like 'www.example.com/index.php?page=customer&action=edit&id=4'. I'm worried that there is a security concern by doing it this way, and i'm not sure of an alternative to branch the main 'index.php' file to the correct controller for each action once the user has clicked the link. Would it be better to use mod_rewrite to disguise the controllers names? or to create a similar system to the ASP MVC framework, where there is a seperate routing system where each url is filtered to get the associated controller? Cheers!

    Read the article

  • Overloading generic implicit conversions

    - by raichoo
    Hi I'm having a little scala (version 2.8.0RC1) problem with implicit conversions. Whenever importing more than one implicit conversion the first one gets shadowed. Here is the code where the problem shows up: // containers class Maybe[T] case class Nothing[T]() extends Maybe[T] case class Just[T](value: T) extends Maybe[T] case class Value[T](value: T) trait Monad[C[_]] { def >>=[A, B](a: C[A], f: A => C[B]): C[B] def pure[A](a: A): C[A] } // implicit converter trait Extender[C[_]] { class Wrapper[A](c: C[A]) { def >>=[B](f: A => C[B])(implicit m: Monad[C]): C[B] = { m >>= (c, f) } def >>[B](b: C[B])(implicit m: Monad[C]): C[B] = { m >>= (c, { (x: A) => b } ) } } implicit def extendToMonad[A](c: C[A]) = new Wrapper[A](c) } // instance maybe object maybemonad extends Extender[Maybe] { implicit object MaybeMonad extends Monad[Maybe] { override def >>=[A, B](a: Maybe[A], f: A => Maybe[B]): Maybe[B] = { a match { case Just(x) => f(x) case Nothing() => Nothing() } } override def pure[A](a: A): Maybe[A] = Just(a) } } // instance value object identitymonad extends Extender[Value] { implicit object IdentityMonad extends Monad[Value] { override def >>=[A, B](a: Value[A], f: A => Value[B]): Value[B] = { a match { case Value(x) => f(x) } } override def pure[A](a: A): Value[A] = Value(a) } } import maybemonad._ //import identitymonad._ object Main { def main(args: Array[String]): Unit = { println(Just(1) >>= { (x: Int) => MaybeMonad.pure(x) }) } } When uncommenting the second import statement everything goes wrong since the first "extendToMonad" is shadowed. However, this one works: object Main { implicit def foo(a: Int) = new { def foobar(): Unit = { println("Foobar") } } implicit def foo(a: String) = new { def foobar(): Unit = { println(a) } } def main(args: Array[String]): Unit = { 1 foobar() "bla" foobar() } } So, where is the catch? What am I missing? Regards, raichoo

    Read the article

  • Create new or update existing entity at one go with JPA

    - by Alex R
    A have a JPA entity that has timestamp field and is distinguished by a complex identifier field. What I need is to update timestamp in an entity that has already been stored, otherwise create and store new entity with the current timestamp. As it turns out the task is not as simple as it seems from the first sight. The problem is that in concurrent environment I get nasty "Unique index or primary key violation" exception. Here's my code: // Load existing entity, if any. Entity e = entityManager.find(Entity.class, id); if (e == null) { // Could not find entity with the specified id in the database, so create new one. e = entityManager.merge(new Entity(id)); } // Set current time... e.setTimestamp(new Date()); // ...and finally save entity. entityManager.flush(); Please note that in this example entity identifier is not generated on insert, it is known in advance. When two or more of threads run this block of code in parallel, they may simultaneously get null from entityManager.find(Entity.class, id) method call, so they will attempt to save two or more entities at the same time, with the same identifier resulting in error. I think that there are few solutions to the problem. Sure I could synchronize this code block with a global lock to prevent concurrent access to the database, but would it be the most efficient way? Some databases support very handy MERGE statement that updates existing or creates new row if none exists. But I doubt that OpenJPA (JPA implementation of my choice) supports it. Event if JPA does not support SQL MERGE, I can always fall back to plain old JDBC and do whatever I want with the database. But I don't want to leave comfortable API and mess with hairy JDBC+SQL combination. There is a magic trick to fix it using standard JPA API only, but I don't know it yet. Please help.

    Read the article

  • How can I get type information at runtime from a DMP file in a Windbg extension?

    - by pj4533
    This is related to my previous question, regarding pulling objects from a dmp file. As I mentioned in the previous question, I can successfully pull object out of the dmp file by creating wrapper 'remote' objects. I have implemented several of these so far, and it seems to be working well. However I have run into a snag. In one case, a pointer is stored in a class, say of type 'SomeBaseClass', but that object is actually of the type 'SomeDerivedClass' which derives from 'SomeBaseClass'. For example it would be something like this: MyApplication!SomeObject +0x000 field1 : Ptr32 SomeBaseClass +0x004 field2 : Ptr32 SomeOtherClass +0x008 field3 : Ptr32 SomeOtherClass I need someway to find out what the ACTUAL type of 'field1' is. To be more specific, using example addresses: MyApplication!SomeObject +0x000 field1 : 0cae2e24 SomeBaseClass +0x004 field2 : 0x262c8d3c SomeOtherClass +0x008 field3 : 0x262c8d3c SomeOtherClass 0:000> dt SomeBaseClass 0cae2e24 MyApplication!SomeBaseClass +0x000 __VFN_table : 0x02de89e4 +0x038 basefield1 : (null) +0x03c basefield2 : 3 0:000> dt SomeDerivedClass 0cae2e24 MyApplication!SomeDerivedClass +0x000 __VFN_table : 0x02de89e4 +0x038 basefield1 : (null) +0x03c basefield2 : 3 +0x040 derivedfield1 : 357 +0x044 derivedfield2 : timecode_t When I am in WinDbg, I can do this: dt 0x02de89e4 And it will show the type: 0:000> dt 0x02de89e4 SomeDerivedClass::`vftable' Symbol not found. But how do get that inside an extension? Can I use SearchMemory() to look for 'SomeDerivedClass::`vftable'? If you follow my other question, I need this type information so I know what type of wrapper remote classes to create. I figure it might end up being some sort of case-statement, where I have to match a string to a type? I am ok with that, but I still don't know where I can get that string that represents the type of the object in question (ie SomeObject-field1 in the above example).

    Read the article

  • MySQL "OR MATCH" hangs (very slow) on multiple tables

    - by Kerry
    After learning how to do MySQL Full-Text search, the recommended solution for multiple tables was OR MATCH and then do the other database call. You can see that in my query below. When I do this, it just gets stuck in a "busy" state, and I can't access the MySQL database. SELECT a.`product_id`, a.`name`, a.`slug`, a.`description`, b.`list_price`, b.`price`, c.`image`, c.`swatch`, e.`name` AS industry, MATCH( a.`name`, a.`sku`, a.`description` ) AGAINST ( '%s' IN BOOLEAN MODE ) AS relevance FROM `products` AS a LEFT JOIN `website_products` AS b ON (a.`product_id` = b.`product_id`) LEFT JOIN ( SELECT `product_id`, `image`, `swatch` FROM `product_images` WHERE `sequence` = 0) AS c ON (a.`product_id` = c.`product_id`) LEFT JOIN `brands` AS d ON (a.`brand_id` = d.`brand_id`) INNER JOIN `industries` AS e ON (a.`industry_id` = e.`industry_id`) WHERE b.`website_id` = %d AND b.`status` = %d AND b.`active` = %d AND MATCH( a.`name`, a.`sku`, a.`description` ) AGAINST ( '%s' IN BOOLEAN MODE ) OR MATCH ( d.`name` ) AGAINST ( '%s' IN BOOLEAN MODE ) GROUP BY a.`product_id` ORDER BY relevance DESC LIMIT 0, 9 Any help would be greatly appreciated. EDIT All the tables involved are MyISAM, utf8_general_ci. Here's the EXPLAIN SELECT statement: id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 PRIMARY a ALL NULL NULL NULL NULL 16076 Using temporary; Using filesort 1 PRIMARY b ref product_id product_id 4 database.a.product_id 2 1 PRIMARY e eq_ref PRIMARY PRIMARY 4 database.a.industry_id 1 1 PRIMARY <derived2> ALL NULL NULL NULL NULL 23261 1 PRIMARY d eq_ref PRIMARY PRIMARY 4 database.a.brand_id 1 Using where 2 DERIVED product_images ALL NULL NULL NULL NULL 25933 Using where I don't know how to make that look neater -- sorry about that UPDATE it returns the query after 196 seconds (I think correctly). The query without multiple tables takes about .56 seconds (which I know is really slow, we plan on changing to solr or sphinx soon), but 196 seconds?? If we could add a number to the relevance if it was in the brand name ( d.name ), that would also work

    Read the article

  • PostgreSQL: return select count(*) from old_ids;

    - by Alexander Farber
    Hello, please help me with 1 more PL/pgSQL question. I have a PHP-script run as daily cronjob and deleting old records from 1 main table and few further tables referencing its "id" column: create or replace function quincytrack_clean() returns integer as $BODY$ begin create temp table old_ids (id varchar(20)) on commit drop; insert into old_ids select id from quincytrack where age(QDATETIME) > interval '30 days'; delete from hide_id where id in (select id from old_ids); delete from related_mks where id in (select id from old_ids); delete from related_cl where id in (select id from old_ids); delete from related_comment where id in (select id from old_ids); delete from quincytrack where id in (select id from old_ids); return select count(*) from old_ids; end; $BODY$ language plpgsql; And here is how I call it from the PHP script: $sth = $pg->prepare('select quincytrack_clean()'); $sth->execute(); if ($row = $sth->fetch(PDO::FETCH_ASSOC)) printf("removed %u old rows\n", $row['count']); Why do I get the following error? SQLSTATE[42601]: Syntax error: 7 ERROR: syntax error at or near "select" at character 9 QUERY: SELECT select count(*) from old_ids CONTEXT: SQL statement in PL/PgSQL function "quincytrack_clean" near line 23 Thank you! Alex

    Read the article

  • Iterate through every node in a XML

    - by Rachel
    Hi I am trying to iterate through every node in a xml, be it the element node, text node or comment. With the below XSL in the very first statement prints the complete xml. How do i copy the very first node in $nodes and call the template process-nodes again removing teh first node in my next iteration? <?xml version='1.0'?> <xsl:stylesheet version="2.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> <xsl:template match="/"> <xsl:call-template name="process-nodes"> <xsl:with-param name="nodes" select="//node()" as="node()*"/> </xsl:call-template> </xsl:template> <xsl:template name="process-nodes"> <xsl:param name="nodes" as="node()*" /> <xsl:copy-of select="$nodes[1]"/> <xsl:if test="$nodes"> <xsl:call-template name="process-nodes"> <xsl:with-param name="nodes" select="remove($nodes, 1)" /> </xsl:call-template> </xsl:if> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> Note: I am looking for fixing the issue in this kind of implementation rather than changing the template match to <xsl:template match="@* | node()"> as I need to have some processing which requires this approach. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • C++ destructor called on array index - why

    - by tge
    The following code (from Apache Tuscany SDO C++) occasionally (actually very rarely) causes subsequent crashes and I don't understand what's going on. The following statement is in DataObjectImpl.cpp (see stack below): PropertyImpl* DataObjectImpl::getPropertyImpl(unsigned int index) { ... 904 PropertyList props = getType().getProperties(); 905 if (index < props.size()) 906 { 907 return (PropertyImpl*)&props[index]; ... causes the following stack (all omitted frames above and below look plausible): Note: #11 libtuscany_sdo.dll!std::vector<>::~vector<> [c:\program files\microsoft visual studio 9.0\vc\include\vector:559] Note: #12 libtuscany_sdo.dll!commonj::sdo::PropertyList::~PropertyList [y:\external\tuscany\src\runtime\core\src\commonj\sdo\propertylist.cpp:60] Note: #13 libtuscany_sdo.dll!commonj::sdo::DataObjectImpl::getPropertyImpl [y:\external\tuscany\src\runtime\core\src\commonj\sdo\dataobjectimpl.cpp:907] Note: #14 libtuscany_sdo.dll!commonj::sdo::DataObjectImpl::getSDOValue [y:\external\tuscany\src\runtime\core\src\commonj\sdo\dataobjectimpl.cpp:3845] The actual question is - why is the destructor of PropertyList called?? As stated, the stack looks OK otherwise, also the vector destructor, as PropertyList has a member std::vector<PropertyImplPtr plist; and the array index operator of PropertyList just calls the array index of the plist member. And, even more puzzling (to me), why this happens only occasionally ... Many thx!!

    Read the article

  • Getting the first of a GROUP BY clause in SQL

    - by Michael Bleigh
    I'm trying to implement single-column regionalization for a Rails application and I'm running into some major headaches with a complex SQL need. For this system, a region can be represented by a country code (e.g. us) a continent code that is uppercase (e.g. NA) or it can be NULL indicating the "default" information. I need to group these items by some relevant information such as a foreign key (we'll call it external_id). Given a country and its continent, I need to be able to select only the most specific region available. So if records exist with the country code, I select them. If, not I want a records with the continent code. If not that, I want records with a NULL code so I can receive the default values. So far I've figured that I may be able to use a generated CASE statement to get an arbitrary sort order. Something like this: SELECT *, CASE region WHEN 'us' THEN 1 WHEN 'NA' THEN 2 ELSE 3 END AS region_sort FROM my_table WHERE region IN ('us','NA') OR region IS NULL GROUP BY external_id ORDER BY region_sort The problem is that without an aggregate function the actual data returned by the GROUP BY for a given row seems to be untameable. How can I massage this query to make it return only the first record of the region_sort ordered groups?

    Read the article

  • How operator oveloading works

    - by Rasmi Ranjan Nayak
    I have below code class rectangle { ..... .....//Some code int operator+(rectangle r1) { return(r1.length+length); } }; In main fun. int main() { rectangle r1(10,20); rectangle r2(40,60); rectangle r3(30,60); int len = r1+r3; } Here if we will see in operator+(), we are doing r1.length + length. How the compiler comes to know that the 2nd length in return statement belong to object r3 not to r1 or r2? I think answer may be in main() we have writeen int len = r1+r3; If that is the case then why do we need to write in operator+(....) { r1.lenth + lenth; //Why not length + length? } Why not length + length? Bcause compiler already knows from main() that the first length belong to object r1 and 2nd to object r3.

    Read the article

  • SELECT * FROM <table> BETWEEN <value typed in a JTextField> AND <idem>

    - by Rodrigo Sieja Bertin
    In this part of the program, the JInternalFrame file FrmMovimento, I made a button called Visualizar ("View"). Based on what we type on the text fields, it must show the interval the user defined. There are these JTextFields: Code from: _ To: _ Asset: _ And these JFormattedTextFields: Date from: _ To: _ There are registers appearing already in the JDesktopPane from JInternalFrame FrmListarMov, if I use another SELECT statement selecting all registers, for example. But not if I type as I did in the title: public List<MovimentoVO> Lista() throws ErroException, InformacaoException{ List<MovimentoVO> listaMovimento = new ArrayList<> (); try { MySQLDAO.getInstancia().setAutoCommit(false); try (PreparedStatement stmt = MySQLDAO.getInstancia().prepareStatement( "SELECT * FROM Cadastro2 WHERE Codigo BETWEEN "+ txtCodDeMov +" AND "+ txtCodAteMov +";") { ResultSet registro = stmt.executeQuery(); while(registro.next()){ MovimentoVO Movimento = new MovimentoVO(); Movimento.setCodDeMov(registro.getInt(1)); Movimento.setCodAteMov(registro.getInt(2)); Movimento.setAtivoMov(registro.getString(3)); Movimento.setDataDeMov(registro.getString(4)); Movimento.setDataAteMov(registro.getString(5)); listaMovimento.add(Movimento); } } } catch (SQLException ex) { throw new ErroException(ex.getMessage()); } catch (InformacaoException ex) { throw ex; } return listaMovimento; } In the SELECT line, txtCodDeMov is how I named the JTextField of "Code from" and txtCodAtemov is how I named the JTextField of the first "To". Oh, I'm using NetBeans 7.1.2 (Build 201204101705) and MySQL Ver 14.14 Distrib 5.1.63 in a Linux Mint 12 64-bits.

    Read the article

  • How to open links in new window ONLY IF the check box is checked

    - by Travis
    Here is what i have so far. I have it so they open in new windows, but i want it only if the check box is checked... <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script> function new() { if ( document.getElementById('checkbox').checked ) window.open( 'y', 'n', 't', 'New Window' ); } else { break; } var OpenNew = document.getElementById('opennew'); OpenNew.addEventListener('click', OpenWin, false ); </script> </head> <body> <p> <form name="test"> <p>Open link in a new window &nbsp; <input type="checkbox" id="checkbox" name="check" /></p> </form> </p> <p> <h2>My favorite Websites to visit</h2> <a href="http://www.youtube.com" target="new" id="y">Youtube</a><br /> <a href="http://www.newegg.com" target="new" id="n">Newegg</a><br /> <a href="http://www.twitch.tv" target="new" id="t">Twitch.tv</a><br /> </p> </body> </html> I am unsure how to actually do the if statement if it is checked then open. It does currently open in a new tab.. i just need it to be only when its checked. Any help with this will be greatly appreciated! Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Providing custom database functionality to custom asp.net membership provider

    - by IrfanRaza
    Hello friends, I am creating custom membership provider for my asp.net application. I have also created a separate class "DBConnect" that provides database functionality such as Executing SQL statement, Executing SPs, Executing SPs or Query and returning SqlDataReader and so on... I have created instance of DBConnect class within Session_Start of Global.asax and stored to a session. Later using a static class I am providing the database functionality throughout the application using the same single session. In short I am providing a single point for all database operations from any asp.net page. I know that i can write my own code to connect/disconnect database and execute SPs within from the methods i need to override. Please look at the code below - public class SGI_MembershipProvider : MembershipProvider { ...... public override bool ChangePassword(string username, string oldPassword, string newPassword) { if (!ValidateUser(username, oldPassword)) return false; ValidatePasswordEventArgs args = new ValidatePasswordEventArgs(username, newPassword, true); OnValidatingPassword(args); if (args.Cancel) { if (args.FailureInformation != null) { throw args.FailureInformation; } else { throw new Exception("Change password canceled due to new password validation failure."); } } ..... //Database connectivity and code execution to change password. } .... } MY PROBLEM - Now what i need is to execute the database part within all these overriden methods from the same database point as described on the top. That is i have to pass the instance of DBConnect existing in the session to this class, so that i can access the methods. Could anyone provide solution on this. There might be some better techniques i am not aware of that. The approach i am using might be wrong. Your suggessions are always welcome. Thanks for sharing your valuable time.

    Read the article

  • SQL trigger to delete rows from database

    - by wpearse
    I have an industrial system that logs alarms to a remotely hosted MySQL database. The industrial system inserts a new row whenever a property of the alarm changes (such as the time the alarm was activated, acknowledged or switched off) into a table named 'alarms'. I don't want multiple records for each alarm, so I have set up two database triggers. The first trigger mirrors each new record to a second table, creating/updating rows as required: CREATE TRIGGER `mirror_alarms` BEFORE INSERT ON `alarms` FOR EACH ROW INSERT INTO `alarm_display` (Tag,...,OffTime) VALUES (new.Tag,...,new.OffTime) ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE OnDate=new.OnDate,...,OffTime=new.OffTime The second trigger should execute after the first and (ideally) delete all rows from the alarms table. (I used the Tag property of the alarm because the Tag property never changes, although I suspect I could just use a 'DELETE FROM alarms WHERE 1' statement to the same effect). CREATE TRIGGER `remove_alarms` AFTER INSERT ON `alarms` FOR EACH ROW DELETE FROM alarms WHERE Tag=new.Tag My problem is that the second trigger doesn't appear to run, or if it does, the second trigger doesn't delete any rows from the database. So here's the question: why does my second trigger not do what I expect it to do?

    Read the article

  • Declare models elsewhere than in "models.py"

    - by sebpiq
    Hi ! I have an application that splits models into different files. Actually the folder looks like : >myapp __init__.py models.py >hooks ... ... myapp don't care about what's in the hooks, folder, except that there are models, and that they have to be declared somehow. So, I put this in myapp.__init__.py : from django.conf import settings for hook in settings.HOOKS : try : __import__(hook) except ImportError as e : print "Got import err !", e #where HOOKS = ("myapp.hooks.a_super_hook1", ...) The problem is that it doesn't work when I run syncdb(and throws some strange "Got import err !"... strange considering that it's related to another module of my program that I don't even import anywhere :/ ) ! So I tried successively : 1) for hook in settings.HOOKS : try : exec ("from %s import *" % hook) doesn't work either : syncdb doesn't install the models in hooks 2) from myapp.hooks.a_super_hook1 import * This works 3) exec("from myapp.hooks.a_super_hook1 import *") This works to So I checked that in the test 1), the statement executed is the same than in tests 2) and 3), and it is exactly the same ... Any idea ???

    Read the article

  • Validations for a has_many/belongs_to relationship

    - by Craig Walker
    I have a Recipe model which has_many Ingredients (which in turn belongs_to Recipe). I want Ingredient to be existent dependent on Recipe; an Ingredient should never exist without a Recipe. I'm trying to enforce the presence of a valid Recipe ID in the Ingredient. I've been doing this with a validates :recipe, :presence => true (Rails 3) statement in Ingredient. This works fine if I save the Recipe before adding an Ingredient to it's ingredients collection. However, if I don't have explicit control over the saving (such as when I'm creating a Recipe and its Ingredients from a nested form) then I get an error: Ingredients recipe can't be blank I can get around this simply by dropping the presence validation on Ingredient.recipe. However, I don't particularly like this, as it means I'm working without a safety net. What is the best way to enforce existence-dependence in Rails? Things I'm considering (please comment on the wisdom of each): Adding a not-null constraint on the ingredients.recipe_id database column, and letting the database do the checking for me. A custom validation that somehow checks whether the Ingredient is in an unsaved recipe's ingredient collection (and thus can't have a recipe_id but is still considered valid).

    Read the article

  • MySQLPython is ignoring my my.cnf file. Where does it get its information?

    - by ?????
    When I try to use MySQLPython (via SQLAlchemy) I get the error File "/opt/local/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/site-packages/MySQL_python-1.2.3c1-py2.6-macosx-10.6-x86_64.egg/MySQLdb/connections.py", line 188, in __init__ super(Connection, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs2) sqlalchemy.exc.OperationalError: (OperationalError) (2002, "Can't connect to local MySQL server through socket '/opt/local/var/run/mysql5/mysqld.sock' (2)") None None but no other mysql client on my machine sees it fine! My my.cnf file states: [client] port = 3306 socket = /tmp/mysql/mysql.sock [safe_mysqld] socket = /tmp/mysql/mysql.sock [mysqld_safe] socket = /tmp/mysql/mysql.sock [mysqld] socket = /tmp/mysql/mysql.sock port = 3306 and the mysql.sock file is, indeed, located in /tmp/mysql I verified that ~/.my.cnf and /var/lib/mysql/my.cnf aren't overriding it. The mysql5 client program, etc, has no trouble connecting and neither does a groovy/grails installation on the same machine using jdbc/mysql connection thrilllap-2:~ swirsky$ mysql5 Welcome to the MySQL monitor. Commands end with ; or \g. Your MySQL connection id is 6 Server version: 5.1.47 Source distribution Copyright (c) 2000, 2010, Oracle and/or its affiliates. All rights reserved. This software comes with ABSOLUTELY NO WARRANTY. This is free software, and you are welcome to modify and redistribute it under the GPL v2 license Type 'help;' or '\h' for help. Type '\c' to clear the current input statement. mysql> show databases; +--------------------+ | Database | +--------------------+ | information_schema | | test | +--------------------+ 2 rows in set (0.00 sec) mysql> Why can't MySQLdb for python figure this out? Where would it look if not the my.cnf files?

    Read the article

  • temporary tables within stored procedures on slave servers with readonly set

    - by lau
    Hi, We have set up a replication scheme master/slave and we've had problems lately because some users wrote directly on the slave instead of the master, making the whole setup inconsistent. To prevent these problems from happening again, we've decided to remove the insert, delete, update, etc... rights from the users accessing the slave. Problems is that some stored procedure (for reading) require temporary tables. I read that changing the global variable read_only to true would do what I want and allow the stored procedures to work correctly ( http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/en/server-system-variables.html#sysvar_read_only ) but I keep getting the error : The MySQL server is running with the --read-only option so it cannot execute this statement (1290) The stored procedure that I used (for testing purpose) is this one : DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS test_readonly $$ CREATE DEFINER=dbuser@% PROCEDURE test_readonly() BEGIN CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE IF NOT EXISTS temp ( BT_INDEX int(11), BT_DESC VARCHAR(10) ); INSERT INTO temp (BT_INDEX, BT_DESC) VALUES (222,'walou'), (111,'bidouille'); DROP TABLE temp; END $$ DELIMITER ; The create temporary table and the drop table work fine with the readonly flag - if I comment the INSERT line, it runs fine- but whenever I want to insert or delete from that temporary table, I get the error message. I use Mysql 5.1.29-rc. My default storage engine is InnoDB. Thanks in advance, this problem is really driving me crazy.

    Read the article

  • doubt in javascript name validation

    - by raja
    Hi: I am using the below validation for textbox which accepts only alphabets and maximum of 50 characters. I am passing the object directly in the parameter. The below case by giving the field name i.e "my_text" directly is working is working fine. But if i pass it in variable, that time it is not working(commented the if statement). Please help me. My requirement is each time when we enter the charater, the hardcode field name should not be used in the validation. <html><head> <script language=JavaScript> function check_length(my_form,fieldName) { alert(fieldName); // if (my_form.fieldName.value.length >= maxLen) { if (my_form.my_text.value.length >= maxLen) { var msg = "You have reached your maximum limit of characters allowed"; alert(msg); my_form.my_text.value = my_form.my_text.value.substring(0, maxLen); } else{ var keyCode = window.event.keyCode; if ((keyCode < 65 || keyCode > 90) && (keyCode < 97 || keyCode > 123) && keyCode != 32) { window.event.returnValue = false; alert("Enter only Alphabets"); } my_form.text_num.value = maxLen - my_form.my_text.value.length;} } </script> </head> <body> <form name=my_form method=post> <input type="text" onKeyPress=check_length(this.form,this.name); name=my_text rows=4 cols=30> <br> <input size=1 value=50 name=text_num> Characters Left </form> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • if else on javascript with the value of a select box (pure javascript)

    - by user983248
    I'm working on a select box that have images instead of text, (on the background with css). <script type="text/javascript"> function onChange(element) { element.style.backgroundColor = "Yellow"; element.className = "on_change"; } </script> <select onchange="onChange(this);"> <option value="1" style="background: url(/one.png) no-repeat scroll 0 0 transparent; width:32px; height:32px;"></option> <option value="2" style="background: url(/two.png) no-repeat scroll 0 0 transparent; width:32px; height:32px;"></option> <option value="3" style="background: url(/three.png) no-repeat scroll 0 0 transparent; width:32px; height:32px;"></option> </select> The problem is how do I get the value of the selected option and if is 1 set one image and if it is two set another image as the background using pure javascript (no jQuery)? I know that selectedIndex is the key to my problem, but I'm clueless of how to use it or how to use it on an if else statement. The script above is just one of my trials, I actually use the script above to perform the same task. <select onchange="this.style.backgroundColor=this.options[this.selectedIndex].style.backgroundColor; this.style.color=this.options[this.selectedIndex].style.color">

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework autoincrement key

    - by Tommy Ong
    I'm facing an issue of duplicated incremental field on a concurrency scenario. I'm using EF as the ORM tool, attempting to insert an entity with a field that acts as a incremental INT field. Basically this field is called "SequenceNumber", where each new record before insert, will read the database using MAX to get the last SequenceNumber, append +1 to it, and saves the changes. Between the getting of last SequenceNumber and Saving, that's where the concurrency is happening. I'm not using ID for SequenceNumber as it is not a unique constraint, and may reset on certain conditions such as monthly, yearly, etc. InvoiceNumber | SequenceNumber | DateCreated INV00001_08_14 | 1 | 25/08/2014 INV00001_08_14 | 1 | 25/08/2014 <= (concurrency is creating two SeqNo 1) INV00002_08_14 | 2 | 25/08/2014 INV00003_08_14 | 3 | 26/08/2014 INV00004_08_14 | 4 | 27/08/2014 INV00005_08_14 | 5 | 29/08/2014 INV00001_09_14 | 1 | 01/09/2014 <= (sequence number reset) Invoice number is formatted based on the SequenceNumber. After some research I've ended up with these possible solutions, but wanna know the best practice 1) Optimistic Concurrency, locking the table from any reads until the current transaction is completed (not fancy of this idea as I guess performance will be of a great impact?) 2) Create a Stored Procedure solely for this purpose, does select and insert on a single statement as such concurrency is at minimum (would prefer a EF based approach if possible)

    Read the article

  • how to put header authentication into a form using php?

    - by SkyWookie
    Hey guys, for the page I am doing needs a login authentication using Twitter (using tweetphp API). For test purposes I used this code below to do a successful login: if (!isset($_SERVER['PHP_AUTH_USER'])){ header('WWW-Authenticate: Basic realm="Enter your Twitter username and password:"'); header('HTTP/1.0 401 Unauthorized'); echo 'Please enter your Twitter username and password to view your followers.'; exit(); } $username = $_SERVER['PHP_AUTH_USER']; $password = $_SERVER['PHP_AUTH_PW']; The problem now is, I want to integrate it into a form, so far I have the following: <form action="logincheck.php" method="post" class="niceform" > <fieldset> <legend>Twitter Login:</legend> <dl> <dt><label for="email">Twitter Username:</label></dt> <dd><input type="text" name="username" id="username" size="32" maxlength="128" /></dd> </dl> <dl> <dt><label for="password">Password:</label></dt> <dd><input type="password" name="password" id="password" size="32" maxlength="32" /></dd> </dl> </fieldset> <fieldset class="action"> <input type="submit" name="submit" id="submit" value="Submit" /> I am sending it to logincheck.php, this is where I think I get stuck. I am not sure how to compare the form data with Twitter's login data. I was trying a similar if statement as I used in the first code (box that pops up before page loads), but I couldn't wrap my head around it. Thanks again guys!

    Read the article

  • Determine target architecture of binary file in Linux (library or executable)

    - by Fernando Miguélez
    We have an issue related to a Java application running under a (rather old) FC3 on a Advantech POS board with a Via C3 processor. The java application has several compiled shared libs that are accessed via JNI. Via C3 processor is suppossed to be i686 compatible. Some time ago after installing Ubuntu 6.10 on a MiniItx board with the same processor I found out that the previous statement is not 100% true. The Ubuntu kernel hanged on startup due to the lack of some specific and optional instructions of the i686 set in the C3 processor. These instructions missing in C3 implementation of i686 set are used by default by GCC compiler when using i686 optimizations. The solution in this case was to go with a i386 compiled version of Ubuntu distribution. The base problem with the Java application is that the FC3 distribution was installed on the HD by cloning from an image of the HD of another PC, this time an Intel P4. Afterwards the distribution needed some hacking to have it running such as replacing some packages (such as the kernel one) with the i383 compiled version. The problem is that after working for a while the system completely hangs without a trace. I am afraid that some i686 code is left somewhere in the system and could be executed randomly at any time (for example after recovering from suspend mode or something like that). My question is: Is there any tool or way to find out at what specific architecture is an binary file (executable or library) aimed provided that "file" does not give so much information?

    Read the article

  • JavaScript Module Pattern - What about using "return this"?

    - by Rob
    After doing some reading about the Module Pattern, I've seen a few ways of returning the properties which you want to be public. One of the most common ways is to declare your public properties and methods right inside of the "return" statement, apart from your private properties and methods. A similar way (the "Revealing" pattern) is to provide simply references to the properties and methods which you want to be public. Lastly, a third technique I saw was to create a new object inside your module function, to which you assign your new properties before returning said object. This was an interesting idea, but requires the creation of a new object. So I was thinking, why not just use "this.propertyName" to assign your public properties and methods, and finally use "return this" at the end? This way seems much simpler to me, as you can create private properties and methods with the usual "var" or "function" syntax, or use the "this.propertyName" syntax to declare your public methods. Here's the method I'm suggesting: (function() { var privateMethod = function () { alert('This is a private method.'); } this.publicMethod = function () { alert('This is a public method.'); } return this; })(); Are there any pros/cons to using the method above? What about the others?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242 243 244 245 246  | Next Page >