Search Results

Search found 6395 results on 256 pages for 'role playing'.

Page 239/256 | < Previous Page | 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242 243 244 245 246  | Next Page >

• Windows Media Player won't launch on Vista - how to repair or reinstall it?

  - by rpm1200

  My friend asked me to look at her Acer Aspire laptop with Vista Home Premium as it is no longer playing DVDs. I found that Windows Media Player would not launch. I found this thread, which contained a number of suggestions, none of which solved the problem. Here is what I tried: Tried running WMP via desktop shortcut, QuickLaunch bar or going to Program Files\Windows Media Player\wmplayer.exe. In all cases, wmplayer would launch then terminate immediately (verified through the Processes tab in Task Manager). Tried running wmplayer.exe as Administrator. The UAC dialog would come up, I'd approve, then wmplayer would launch and terminate immediately. Uninstalled all non-Microsoft media programs except RealPlayer, iTunes, QuickTime, Acer Arcade (the laptop owner uses all those apps). Tried running Program Files\Windows Media Player\setup_wm.exe as Administrator, it launched but said that a newer version of WMP was already installed. Deleted the "Windows Media" folder located under %userprofile%\appdata\local\Microsoft then tried starting WMP - wmplayer would launch and terminate immediately. Register wmp.dll by typing "regsvr32 wmp.dll" in an Administrator cmd window then tried starting WMP - wmplayer would launch and terminate immediately. Run "SFC /SCANFILE" in an Administrator cmd window - get an error message that it found invalid system files and could not fix them, so look at the log file cbs.log. The log file shows that there are broken files associated with Windows Sidebar (which the user does not use) but none relating to WMP. Log off to safe mode and run "SFC /SCANFILE" in an Administrator cmd window again - same results. Try to download and install XP WMP - the microsoft.com site recognizes the OS as Genuine and allows the download, but when I launch the installer it says the system is not Genuine. Clicking the link directs me back to IE where I can authenticate the system as Genuine. The installer still fails to recognize the system as Genuine. It is a Genuine Vista installation. Try to run this update (KB931621). The installer said it did not apply to the system. Set Windows Media Player as default in Program Access and Defaults. Same results. Tried running "for %a in (%systemroot%\system32\wm*.dll) do regsvr32 /s %a" in an Administrator cmd window - same results. Went to this Knowledge Base article (947541) and ran the Microsoft Fix It. The Fix It ran successfully, but WMP would still launch and terminate immediately. Multiple reboots in the process of doing all of these steps. After all this, looked in the Application and Security logs. No events pertaining to WMP were logged. The computer was preinstalled with Vista Home Premium and I have the Acer backup DVDs which will reimage the drive. I do not have Vista install DVDs. Reimaging the system is not an option. I'd also rather not restore the system to an earlier point unless it's absolutely necessary. What else can I do to repair or reinstall WMP?

  Read the article

• Windows Media Player won't launch on Vista - how to repair or reinstall it?

  - by rpm1200

  My friend asked me to look at her Acer Aspire laptop with Vista Home Premium as it is no longer playing DVDs. I found that Windows Media Player would not launch. I found this thread, which contained a number of suggestions, none of which solved the problem. Here is what I tried: Tried running WMP via desktop shortcut, QuickLaunch bar or going to Program Files\Windows Media Player\wmplayer.exe. In all cases, wmplayer would launch then terminate immediately (verified through the Processes tab in Task Manager). Tried running wmplayer.exe as Administrator. The UAC dialog would come up, I'd approve, then wmplayer would launch and terminate immediately. Uninstalled all non-Microsoft media programs except RealPlayer, iTunes, QuickTime, Acer Arcade (the laptop owner uses all those apps). Tried running Program Files\Windows Media Player\setup_wm.exe as Administrator, it launched but said that a newer version of WMP was already installed. Deleted the "Windows Media" folder located under %userprofile%\appdata\local\Microsoft then tried starting WMP - wmplayer would launch and terminate immediately. Register wmp.dll by typing "regsvr32 wmp.dll" in an Administrator cmd window then tried starting WMP - wmplayer would launch and terminate immediately. Run "SFC /SCANFILE" in an Administrator cmd window - get an error message that it found invalid system files and could not fix them, so look at the log file cbs.log. The log file shows that there are broken files associated with Windows Sidebar (which the user does not use) but none relating to WMP. Log off to safe mode and run "SFC /SCANFILE" in an Administrator cmd window again - same results. Try to download and install XP WMP - the microsoft.com site recognizes the OS as Genuine and allows the download, but when I launch the installer it says the system is not Genuine. Clicking the link directs me back to IE where I can authenticate the system as Genuine. The installer still fails to recognize the system as Genuine. It is a Genuine Vista installation. Try to run this update (KB931621). The installer said it did not apply to the system. Set Windows Media Player as default in Program Access and Defaults. Same results. Tried running "for %a in (%systemroot%\system32\wm*.dll) do regsvr32 /s %a" in an Administrator cmd window - same results. Went to this Knowledge Base article (947541) and ran the Microsoft Fix It. The Fix It ran successfully, but WMP would still launch and terminate immediately. Multiple reboots in the process of doing all of these steps. After all this, looked in the Application and Security logs. No events pertaining to WMP were logged. The computer was preinstalled with Vista Home Premium and I have the Acer backup DVDs which will reimage the drive. I do not have Vista install DVDs. Reimaging the system is not an option. I'd also rather not restore the system to an earlier point unless it's absolutely necessary. What else can I do to repair or reinstall WMP?

  Read the article

• My 3D Games crashing in these scenarios

  - by desaivv

  I have a situation here which I am unable to solve. I bought a PC last year March, here are my specs: Intel Core i3 550 @ 3GHz 4 GB RAM @400 MHz XFX GeForce 9500 GT graphics card 1GB @550MHz 500 GB HDD Lately as soon as I load my save game of Skyrim, it crashes. I have been playing Skyrim since I joined Gaming.SE site. Crashes as in the entire scene gets red lines. I can not ALT + TAB back or even CTRL + ALT + DEL either. My only recourse is a hard reset via the power button. Can not take a screen shot either. I have the latest Forceware 296.10 drivers also. This has been happening since the last 2 weeks. I always use Driver Sweeper to clean my old drivers, since that is what XFXForce recommends before installing new drivers. I installed MSI Afterburner lately to see my GPU temperature. My GPU is default, never over-clocked it. In MSI's Afterburner, I can not adjust fan speed. It is greyed out. Also in settings there is no fan tab. With normal Internet browsing it stays at 51 C. Ran Memtest86 over night with level 11. Took about 13 hours, but no errors in my RAM. I even re-installed my OS, with just the 296 drivers. The fan for the GPU does come on. I can play Diablo 2. I can not get past Warcraft 3's menu selection. There WAS some dust in my machine, but I always try and keep everything clean, since in my home town dust is an issue. Always keep cool my entire PC cabinet. My friend came with his functioning graphics card, we bought our PCs at the same time with exact same specifications. His card did not work either. Same problem with the scene freezing with red lines. I did do my research before posting here. That is how I was able to learn about MSI Afterburner, Driver Sweeper, SpeedFan etc. I followed posts on Tom's Hardware too regarding people that had similar problems. One person suggested and was followed by worked as well the suggestion to "Bake the card in an oven". Since I bought it, played Diablo 2 for months, Starcraft 2 campaign for months and Skyrim recently for months. Bought ME3 also. I am at my wits end. I do not know what else to do. I can go out and buy a card, but my friend's card did not work either. I can use the machine for Eclipse or VS2010 development just fine. Just not with 3D gaming. I originally posted this question on Gaming.SE But I was directed here. I have browsed the SU database for my problem and found this, this, and this. But none of these cover my question. My machine is only one year old. Can some experienced superuser(s) shed some light on this scenario? Is it a 3D graphics card problem? Will a brand new card work? What else can I try to pin point the problem? Can it be the Motherboard? Thanks.

  Read the article

• To connect Gstreamer with Qt in order to play a gstreamer video in the Qt Widget

  - by raggio

  I tried using phonon to play the video but could not succeed. Off-late came to know through the Qt forums that even the latest version of Qt does not support phonon. Thats when i started using Gstreamer.Any suggestions as to how to connect the Gstreamer window with the Qt widget?My aim is to play a video using Gstreamer on the Qt widget.So how do i link the gstreamer window and the Qt widget? I am successful in getting the Id of the widget through winid(). Further with the help of Gregory Pakosz, I have added the below 2 lines of code in my application - QApplication::syncX(); gst_x_overlay_set_xwindow_id(GST_X_OVERLAY(sink), widget->winId()); However am not able to link the Qt widget with the gstreamer video window. This is what my sample code would look like :- int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { printf("winid=%d\n", w.winId()); gst_init (NULL,NULL); /* create a new bin to hold the elements */ bin = gst_pipeline_new ("pipeline"); /* create a disk reader */ filesrc = gst_element_factory_make ("filesrc", "disk_source"); g_assert (filesrc); g_object_set (G_OBJECT (filesrc), "location", "PATH_TO_THE_EXECUTABLE", NULL); demux = gst_element_factory_make ("mpegtsdemux", "demuxer"); if (!demux) { g_print ("could not find plugin \"mpegtsmux\""); return -1; } vdecoder = gst_element_factory_make ("mpeg2dec", "decode"); if (!vdecoder) { g_print ("could not find plugin \"mpeg2dec\""); return -1; } videosink = gst_element_factory_make ("xvimagesink", "play_video"); g_assert (videosink); /* add objects to the main pipeline */ gst_bin_add_many (GST_BIN (bin), filesrc, demux, vdecoder, videosink, NULL); /* link the elements */ gst_element_link_many (filesrc, demux, vdecoder, videosink, NULL); gst_element_set_state(videosink, GST_STATE_READY); QApplication::syncX(); gst_x_overlay_set_xwindow_id(GST_X_OVERLAY(videosink), w.winId()); /* start playing */ gst_element_set_state (bin, GST_STATE_PLAYING); } Could you explain more in detail about the usage of gst_x_overlay_set_xwindow_id() wrt my context? Could i get any hint as to how i can integrate gstreamer under Qt? Please help me solve this problem

  Read the article

• Ajax comments form in ASP.NET MVC2

  - by Artiom Chilaru

  I've been playing around with different aspects of MVC for some time now, and I've reached a situation where I'm not sure what would be the best way to solve a problem. I'm hoping that the SO community will help me out here :P I've seen a number of examples of Ajax.BeginForm on the internet, and it seems like a very nifty idea. E.g. you have a dropdown where you select a customer - and on selecting one it will load this client's details in some placeholder on the page. This works perfectly fine. But what to do if you want to tie in some validation in the box? Just hypothetically, imagine an article page, and user comments in the bottom. Below the comments area there's an ajax-y "Add comment" box. When a user adds a comment, it will appear in the comments area, below the last comment there. If I set the Ajax.BeginForm to Append the result of the call to the Comments area, it will work fine. But what if the data posted is not valid? Instead of appending a "successful" comment to the comments area I have to show the user validation errors. At this point I decided that the area INSIDE the Ajax.BeginForm will be inside a partial, and the form's submits will return this partial. Validation works fine. On each submit we reload the contents inside the form element. But how to add the successful comment to the top? Other things to consider: The comment form also has a "Preview" button. When the user clicks on Preview, I should load the rendered comment into a preview box. This will probably be inside the form area as well. I was thinking of using Json results instead. When the user submits the form, the server code will generate a Json object with a Success value, and html rendered partials as some properties. Something like { "success": true, "form": "<html form data>", "comment": "successful comment html to inject into the page" } This would be a perfect solution, except there's no way in MVC to render a partial into a string, inside the controller (separation of context, remember?). So.. what should I do then? Any "correct" way to implement this?

  Read the article

• MVC 2 with IIS 6 Problems

  - by SlackerCoder

  Hey guys, I'm using IIS 6 on a Windows 2003 Server and I am trying to get an MVC2 project installed on that machine. I am having nightmare-ish problems doing so! I've looked up TONS of references on what to do, and not 1 single one works. (They work for MVC1 projects, as I have a few of those running already using said solutions). Does anyone have any tips/hints/ideas on what needs to be done for MVC2 projects with IIS 6? I am definitely pulling my hair out over this. I have tried it on 2 of my dev servers, and both get the same result. The closest I can get to a served page is an error page "Object reference not set to an instance of an object", however, the page has try/catch blocks that are being ignored, so I dont think its running the code on the controller, I think it's saying that the controller is the error. (For the reference, the error in question is directed at the HomeController.cs file). What I've tried: Wildcard mapping Changing routes to {controller}.mvc Changing routes to {controller}.aspx Adding the .mvc extension to IIS Modifying routes in Global.asax There's a LOT of code in this project so far, so I will only post the first page(s) that should get served: MASTER PAGE: <div class="page"> <div id="header"> <div id="title"> <h1>Meritain RedCard Interface 2.0</h1> </div> <!-- This is the main menu. Each security role will have access to certain buttons. --> <div id="menucontainer"> <% if (Session["UserData"] != null) { %> <% if (/*User Security Checks Out*/) { %> <ul id="menu"> <li><%= Html.ActionLink("Home", "Index", "Home")%></li> <li><%= Html.ActionLink("Selection", "Index", "Select", new { area = "Selector" }, null)%></li> <li><%= Html.ActionLink("Audit", "Index", "Audit", new { area = "Auditor" }, null)%></li> <li><%= Html.ActionLink("Setup", "Index", "Setup", new { area = "Setup" }, null)%></li> <li><%= Html.ActionLink("About", "About", "Home")%></li> </ul> <% } %> <% } %> </div> </div> <div id="main"> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="MainContent" runat="server" /> <div id="footer"> </div> </div> </div> Default.aspx.cs: [I added this file as a potential solution, since it works with MVC 1] protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { string originalPath = Request.Path; HttpContext.Current.RewritePath(Request.ApplicationPath, false); IHttpHandler httpHandler = new MvcHttpHandler(); httpHandler.ProcessRequest(HttpContext.Current); HttpContext.Current.RewritePath(originalPath, false); } HomeController.cs: public ActionResult Index() { loadApplication(); ViewData["Message"] = "Welcome to ASP.NET MVC!"; return View(); } public ActionResult About() { return View(); } private void loadApplication() { Session["UserData"] = CreateUserSecurity(HttpContext.User.Identity.Name.ToString()); } I did not list the CreateUserSecurity method, but all it does it call the DB using the Username and returns the record in the database that matches the username. EDIT: Added code and what I've tried so far (as requested).

  Read the article

• C# MP3 Player using winmm.dll

  - by JoeBeez

  I'm trying to bash together a (very) rough MP3 player during my lunch hour, and so far I've got it to play the files, and I'm working on a way of building a list of filenames to enable random songs, but I think I've just hit a snag. Is there a way of knowing when the currently playing MP3 has finished? An event or some such? As it stands I don't think I'd be able to have playlists etc unless this was possible due to it stopping after every playback. I've attatched the whole source below, feel free to pick it apart and give me any feedback you may have, cheers. using System; using System.IO; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Data; using System.Drawing; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; namespace X { public partial class Form1 : Form { List<string> Names = new List<string>(); StreamReader reader = File.OpenText(@"C:\X.txt"); string line; OpenFileDialog ofd = new OpenFileDialog(); StringBuilder buffer = new StringBuilder(128); string CommandString; [DllImport("winmm.dll")] private static extern long mciSendString(string lpstrCommand, StringBuilder lpstrReturnString, int uReturnLength, int hwndCallback); public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); while ((line = reader.ReadLine()) != null) { if (line.Trim() != "") { Names.Add(line.Trim()); } } } private void btnplay_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (ofd.FileName == "") { if (ofd.ShowDialog() == DialogResult.OK) { ofd.Filter = "MP3 Files|*.mp3"; CommandString = "open " + "\"" + ofd.FileName + "\"" + " type MPEGVideo alias Mp3File"; mciSendString(CommandString, null, 0, 0); CommandString = "play Mp3File"; mciSendString(CommandString, null, 0, 0); } } else { CommandString = "play Mp3File"; mciSendString(CommandString, null, 0, 0); } } private void btnpause_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { CommandString = "pause mp3file"; mciSendString(CommandString, null, 0, 0); } private void btnbrowse_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { ofd.Filter = "Mp3 files |*.mp3"; if (ofd.ShowDialog() == DialogResult.OK) { txtpath.Text = ofd.FileName; CommandString = "close Mp3File"; mciSendString(CommandString, null, 0, 0); CommandString = "open " + "\"" + ofd.FileName + "\"" + " type MPEGVideo alias Mp3File"; mciSendString(CommandString, null, 0, 0); } } } }

  Read the article

• Reuse security code between WCF and MVC.NET

  - by mrjoltcola

  First the background: I jumped into MVC.NET from the Java MVC world, so my implementation below is possibly cheating, I don't know. I avoided fooling with a custom membership provider and I just implemented the base code needed to authenticate and load roles in my LogOn action. Typically I just need to check roles programatically, and have no use for all of the other membership features, so I didn't originally think I needed a full Membership provider. I have a successful WCF project with a custom authentication and authorization layer that I did at least write per the proper API. I implemented it with custom IPrincipal, UserNamePasswordValidator and IAuthorizationPolicy classes to load from an Oracle database. In my WCF services, I use declarative security: [PrincipalPermission(SecurityAction.Demand, Role="ADMIN")]. The question (on the ASP.NET/MCV.NET side): All my reading indicates I should implement a custom Membership/Roles provider, and use [Authorize(Roles="ADMIN")] on my controller actions. At this point, I don't have a true Membership provider, but I'm using the same User class that implements the IPrincipal interface that works with the WCF security. I plan to share common code between the WCF and ASP.NET modules. So my LogOn action is not using the FormsService (and I assume this is bad). I had commented it out, and just used my "UserService" to access the Oracle db. Note my "TODO" comment below. public ActionResult LogOn(LogOnModel model, string returnUrl) { log.Info("Login attempt by " + model.UserName); if (ModelState.IsValid) { User user = userService.findByUserName(model.UserName); // Commented original MemberShipService code, this is probably bad // if (MembershipService.ValidateUser(model.UserName, model.Password)) if (user != null && user.Authenticate(model.Password) == true) { log.Info("Login success by " + model.UserName); FormsService.SignIn(model.UserName, model.RememberMe); // TODO: Override with Custom identity / roles? user.AddRoles(userService.listRolesByUser(user)); // pull in roles from db if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(returnUrl)) return Redirect(returnUrl); else return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } else { log.Info("Login failure by " + model.UserName); ModelState.AddModelError("", "The user name or password provided is incorrect."); } } // If we got this far, something failed, redisplay form return View(model); } So can I make the above work? Can I stick the IPrincipal (User) into the CurrentContext or HttpContext? Can I integrate the custom IPrincipal I've already created without writing a full Membership/Roles Provider? I currently stick the User object into the session and access it from all MVC.NET controllers with "CurrentUser" property which grabs it from the session on demand. But this doesn't work with the [Authorize] attribute; I assume that is because it knows nothing about my custom Principal in the session, and is instead using whatever FormsService.SignIn() produces. I also found that session timeouts screw up the login redirect, the user doesn't get forwarded, instead we get a null exception accessing User from the session, and I assume it is related to my "skipping steps" to get a quick implementation. Thanks.

  Read the article

• Detect an Uninstall in a Launch Condition using Wix MSIs

  - by coxymla

  I've been playing around with Wix, making a little app with auto-generated installer and three versions to test the upgradability, 1.0, 1.1 and 2.0. 1.1 is meant to be able to upgrade from 1.0, and not to allow the user to install 1.1 if 1.1 is already present. <Upgrade Id="F30C4129-F14E-43ee-BD5E-03AA89AD8E07"> <UpgradeVersion Minimum="1.0.0" IncludeMinimum="yes" Maximum="1.0.0" IncludeMaximum="yes" Property="OLDERVERSIONBEINGUPGRADED" /> <UpgradeVersion Minimum="1.1.0" IncludeMinimum="yes" OnlyDetect="yes" Property="NEWERVERSIONDETECTED" /> </Upgrade> <Condition Message="A later version of [ProductName] is already installed. Setup will now exit."> NOT (NEWERVERSIONDETECTED OR Installed) </Condition> Problem #1: 1.1 can't be uninstalled, because the condition is set and checked during the uninstall. 2.0 is meant to be able to upgrade from 1.1, and not to upgrade from 1.0 ('too old'.) It shouldn't be able to install on top of itself either. <Upgrade Id="F30C4129-F14E-43ee-BD5E-03AA89AD8E07"> <UpgradeVersion Minimum="1.1.0" IncludeMinimum="yes" Maximum="1.1.0" IncludeMaximum="yes" Property="OLDERVERSIONBEINGUPGRADED" /> </Upgrade> <Upgrade Id="F30C4129-F14E-43ee-BD5E-03AA89AD8E07"> <UpgradeVersion Minimum="2.0.0" OnlyDetect="yes" Property="NEWERVERSIONDETECTED" /> </Upgrade> <Upgrade Id="F30C4129-F14E-43ee-BD5E-03AA89AD8E07"> <UpgradeVersion Minimum="1.0.0" IncludeMinimum="yes" Maximum="1.0.0" IncludeMaximum="yes" Property="TOOOLDVERSIONDETECTED" /> </Upgrade> <Condition Message="A later version of [ProductName] is already installed. Setup will now exit."> NOT NEWERVERSIONDETECTED OR Installed </Condition> <Condition Message="A version of [ProductName] that is already installed is too old to be upgraded. Setup will now exit."> NOT TOOOLDVERSIONDETECTED </Condition> Problem #2: If I try to upgrade from 1.1, I hit my modified later version condition. (Error: A later version of Main Application 1.1 is already installed. Setup will now exit.) Problem #3: The installer allows me to install 2.0 over the top of itself. What am I doing wrong with my Upgrade code and conditions to get these problems in my MSIs?

  Read the article

• Bootstrap Backbone Marionette Modal

  - by Greg Pagendam-Turner

  I'm trying to create a dialog in backbone and Marionette based on this article: http://lostechies.com/derickbailey/2012/04/17/managing-a-modal-dialog-with-backbone-and-marionette/ I have a fiddle here: http://jsfiddle.net/netroworx/ywKSG/ HTML: <script type="text/template" id="edit-dialog"> <div class="modal-header"> <button type="button" class="close" data-dismiss="modal">×</button> <h3 id="actionTitle">Create a New Action</h3> </div> <div class="modal-body"> <input type="hidden" id="actionId" name="actionId" /> <table> <tbody> <tr> <td>Goal: </td> <td> <input type="text" id="goal" name="goal" > <input type="hidden" id="goalid" name="goalid" > <a tabindex="-1" title="Show All Items" class="ui-button ui-widget ui-state-default ui-button-icon-only ui-corner-right ui-combobox-toggle ui-state-hover" role="button" aria-disabled="false" > <span class="ui-button-icon-primary ui-icon ui-icon-triangle-1-s"></span><span class="ui-button-text"></span> </a> </td> </tr> <tr> <td>Action name: </td> <td> <input type="text" id="actionName" name="actionName"> </td> </tr> <tr> <td>Target date:</td> <td> <input type="text" id="actionTargetDate" name="actionTargetDate"/> </td> </tr> <tr id="actionActualDateRow"> <td>Actual date:</td> <td> <input type="text" id="actionActualDate" name="actionActualDate"/> </td> </tr> </tbody> </table> </div> <div class="modal-footer"> <a href="#" class="btn" data-dismiss="modal">Close</a> <a href='#' class="btn btn-primary" id="actionActionLabel">Create Action</a> </div> </script> <div id="modal"></div> <a href="#" id="showModal">Show Modal</a> Javascript: var ActionEditView = Backbone.Marionette.ItemView.extend({ template: "#edit-dialog" }); function showModal() { var view = new ActionEditView(); view.render(); var $modalEl = $("#modal"); $modalEl.html(view.el); $modalEl.modal(); } $('#showModal').click(showModal); When I click on the show modal link the html pane goes dark as expected and the dialog content is displayed but on the background layer. Why is this happening?

  Read the article

• Stack overflow in compojure web project

  - by Anders Rune Jensen

  Hi I've been playing around with clojure and have been using it to build a simple little audio player. The strange thing is that sometimes, maybe one out of twenty, when contacting the server I will get the following error: 2010-04-20 15:33:20.963::WARN: Error for /control java.lang.StackOverflowError at clojure.lang.RT.seq(RT.java:440) at clojure.core$seq__4245.invoke(core.clj:105) at clojure.core$filter__5084$fn__5086.invoke(core.clj:1794) at clojure.lang.LazySeq.sval(LazySeq.java:42) at clojure.lang.LazySeq.seq(LazySeq.java:56) at clojure.lang.RT.seq(RT.java:440) at clojure.core$seq__4245.invoke(core.clj:105) at clojure.core$filter__5084$fn__5086.invoke(core.clj:1794) at clojure.lang.LazySeq.sval(LazySeq.java:42) at clojure.lang.LazySeq.seq(LazySeq.java:56) at clojure.lang.RT.seq(RT.java:440) at clojure.core$seq__4245.invoke(core.clj:105) at clojure.core$filter__5084$fn__5086.invoke(core.clj:1794) at clojure.lang.LazySeq.sval(LazySeq.java:42) at clojure.lang.LazySeq.seq(LazySeq.java:56) at clojure.lang.RT.seq(RT.java:440) at clojure.core$seq__4245.invoke(core.clj:105) at clojure.core$filter__5084$fn__5086.invoke(core.clj:1794) at clojure.lang.LazySeq.sval(LazySeq.java:42) at clojure.lang.LazySeq.seq(LazySeq.java:56) at clojure.lang.RT.seq(RT.java:440) ... If I do it right after again it always works. So it appears to be related to timing or something. The code in question is: (defn add-track [t] (common/ref-add tracks t)) (defn add-collection [coll] (doseq [track coll] (add-track track))) and (defn ref-add [ref value] (dosync (ref-set ref (conj @ref value)))) where coll is extracted from this function: (defn tracks-by-album [album] (sort sort-tracks (filter #(= (:album %) album) @tracks))) which uses: (defn get-album-from-track [track] (seq/find-first #(= (:album track) (:name %)) @albums)) (defn sort-tracks [track1 track2] (cond (= (:album track1) (:album track2)) (cond (and (:album-track track1) (:album-track track2)) (< (:album-track track1) (:album-track track2)) :else 0) :else (> (:year (get-album-from-track track1)) (:year (get-album-from-track track2))))) it gets called more or less directly from the request I get in: (when-handle-command cmd params (audio/tracks-by-album decoded-name)) (defn when-handle-command [cmd params data] (println (str "handling command:" cmd)) ....) I never get the handling command in my log, so it must die when it does the tracks-by-album. so it does appear to be the tracks-by-album function from the stack trace. I just don't see why it sometimes works and sometimes doesn't. I say that it's tracks-by-album because it's the only function (including it's children) that does filter, as can be seen in the trace. All the source code is available at: http://code.google.com/p/mucomp/. It's my little hobby project to learn clojure and so far it's quite buggy (this is just one bug :)) so I havn't really liked to tell too many people about it yet :)

  Read the article

• How to make a Custom Data Generator for SQL XML DataType.

  - by Keith Sirmons

  Howdy, I am using Visual Studio 2010 and am playing around with the Database Projects. I am creating a DataGenerationPlan to insert data into a simple table, in which one of the column datatypes is XML. Out of the box, the generation plan uses the Regular Expression generator and generates something like this : HGcSv9wa7yM44T9x5oFT4pmBkEmv62lJ7OyAmCnL6yqXC2X.......... I am looking at creating a custom data Generator for this data type and have followed this site for the basics: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa833244.aspx This example works if I am creating a string datatype and using it for a nvarchar datatype. What do I need to change to hook this Generator to the XML Datatype? Below are my code files. The string property works for nvarchar. The XElement property does not work for the xml datatype, and the RecordXMLDataGenerator is not listed as an option in the Generator column for the generation plan. CustomDataGenerators: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using Microsoft.Data.Schema.Tools.DataGenerator; using Microsoft.Data.Schema.Extensibility; using Microsoft.Data.Schema; using Microsoft.Data.Schema.Sql; using System.Xml.Linq; namespace CustomDataGenerators { [DatabaseSchemaProviderCompatibility(typeof(SqlDatabaseSchemaProvider))] public class RecordXMLDataGenerator : Generator { private XElement _RecordData; [Output(Description = "Generates string of XML Data for the Record.", Name = "RecordDataString")] public string RecordDataString { get { return _RecordData.ToString(SaveOptions.None); } } [Output(Description = "Generates XML Data for the Record.", Name = "RecordData")] public XElement RecordData { get { return _RecordData; } } protected override void OnGenerateNextValues() { base.OnGenerateNextValues(); XElement element = new XElement("Root", new XElement("Children1", 1), new XElement("Children6", 6) ); _RecordData = element; } } } XML Extensions File: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <extensions assembly="" version="1" xmlns="urn:Microsoft.Data.Schema.Extensions" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="urn:Microsoft.Data.Schema.Extensions Microsoft.Data.Schema.Extensions.xsd"> <extension type="CustomDataGenerators.RecordXMLDataGenerator" assembly="CustomDataGenerators, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=xxxxxxxxxxxx" enabled="true"/> </extensions> Table.sql: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Record] ( id int IDENTITY (1,1) NOT NULL, recordData xml NULL, userId int NULL, test nvarchar(max) NULL, rowver rowversion NULL, CONSTRAINT pk_RecordID PRIMARY KEY (id) )

  Read the article

• Delete Nodes + attributes that match Xpath except specific attributes

  - by Ryan Ternier

  I'm trying to find the best (efficient) way of doing this. I have a medium sized XML document. Depending on specific settings certain portions of it need to be filtered out for security reasons. I'll be doing this in XSLT as it's configurable and no code should need changing. I've looked around, but not getting much luck on it. For example: I have the following XPath: //*[@root='2.16.840.1.113883.3.51.1.1.6.1'] Whicrooth gives me all nodes with a root attribute equal to a specific OID. In these nodes I want to have all attributes except for a few (ex. foo and bar) erased, and then having another attribute added (ex. reason) I also need to have multiple XPath expressions that can be ran to zero down on a specific node and clear it's contents out in a similar fashion, with respect to nodes with specific attributes. I'm playing around with information from: XPath expression to select all XML child nodes except a specific list? and XSLT Remove Elements and/or Attributes by Name per XSL Parameters Will update shortly when I can have access what what I"ve done so far. Example: XML Before Transformation <root> <childNode> <innerChild root="2.16.840.1.113883.3.51.1.1.6.1" a="b" b="c" type="innerChildness"/> <innerChildSibling/> </childNode> <animals> <cat> <name>bob</name> </cat> </animals> <tree/> <water root="2.16.840.1.113883.3.51.1.1.6.1" z="zed" l="ell" type="liquidLIke"/> </root> After <root> <childNode> <innerChild root="2.16.840.1.113883.3.51.1.1.6.1" flavor="MSK"/> <!-- filtered --> <innerChildSibling/> </childNode> <animals> <cat flavor="MSK" /> <!-- cat was filtered --> </animals> <tree/> <water root="2.16.840.1.113883.3.51.1.1.6.1" flavor="MSK"/> <!-- filtered --> </root>

  Read the article

• Android - Getting audio to play through earpiece

  - by Donal Rafferty

  I currently have code that reads a recording in from the devices mic using the AudioRecord class and then playing it back out using the AudioTrack class. My problem is that when I play it out it plays vis the speaker phone. I want it to play out via the ear piece on the device. Here is my code: public class LoopProg extends Activity { boolean isRecording; //currently not used AudioManager am; int count = 0; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); am = (AudioManager) getSystemService(Context.AUDIO_SERVICE); am.setMicrophoneMute(true); while(count <= 1000000){ Record record = new Record(); record.run(); count ++; Log.d("COUNT", "Count is : " + count); } } public class Record extends Thread { static final int bufferSize = 200000; final short[] buffer = new short[bufferSize]; short[] readBuffer = new short[bufferSize]; public void run() { isRecording = true; android.os.Process.setThreadPriority (android.os.Process.THREAD_PRIORITY_URGENT_AUDIO); int buffersize = AudioRecord.getMinBufferSize(11025, AudioFormat.CHANNEL_CONFIGURATION_MONO, AudioFormat.ENCODING_PCM_16BIT); AudioRecord arec = new AudioRecord(MediaRecorder.AudioSource.MIC, 11025, AudioFormat.CHANNEL_CONFIGURATION_MONO, AudioFormat.ENCODING_PCM_16BIT, buffersize); AudioTrack atrack = new AudioTrack(AudioManager.STREAM_MUSIC, 11025, AudioFormat.CHANNEL_CONFIGURATION_MONO, AudioFormat.ENCODING_PCM_16BIT, buffersize, AudioTrack.MODE_STREAM); am.setRouting(AudioManager.MODE_NORMAL,1, AudioManager.STREAM_MUSIC); int ok = am.getRouting(AudioManager.ROUTE_EARPIECE); Log.d("ROUTING", "getRouting = " + ok); setVolumeControlStream(AudioManager.STREAM_VOICE_CALL); //am.setSpeakerphoneOn(true); Log.d("SPEAKERPHONE", "Is speakerphone on? : " + am.isSpeakerphoneOn()); am.setSpeakerphoneOn(false); Log.d("SPEAKERPHONE", "Is speakerphone on? : " + am.isSpeakerphoneOn()); atrack.setPlaybackRate(11025); byte[] buffer = new byte[buffersize]; arec.startRecording(); atrack.play(); while(isRecording) { arec.read(buffer, 0, buffersize); atrack.write(buffer, 0, buffer.length); } arec.stop(); atrack.stop(); isRecording = false; } } } As you can see if the code I have tried using the AudioManager class and its methods including the deprecated setRouting method and nothing works, the setSpeatPoneOn method seems to have no effect at all, neither does the routing method. Has anyone got any ideas on how to get it to play via the earpiece instead of the spaker phone?

  Read the article

• javascript arrays and type conversion inconsistencies

  - by ForYourOwnGood

  I have been playing with javascript arrays and I have run into, what I feel, are some inconsistencies, I hope someone can explain them for me. Lets start with this: var myArray = [1, 2, 3, 4, 5]; document.write("Length: " + myArray.length + "<br />"); for( var i in myArray){ document.write( "myArray[" + i + "] = " + myArray[i] + "<br />"); } document.write(myArray.join(", ") + "<br /><br />"); Length: 5 myArray[0] = 1 myArray[1] = 2 myArray[2] = 3 myArray[3] = 4 myArray[4] = 5 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 There is nothing special about this code, but I understand that a javascript array is an object, so properities may be add to the array, the way these properities are added to an array seems inconsistent to me. Before continuing, let me note how string values are to be converted to number values in javascript. Nonempty string - Numeric value of string or NaN Empty string - 0 So since a javascript array is an object the following is legal: myArray["someThing"] = "someThing"; myArray[""] = "Empty String"; myArray["4"] = "four"; for( var i in myArray){ document.write( "myArray[" + i + "] = " + myArray[i] + "<br />"); } document.write(myArray.join(", ") + "<br /><br />"); Length: 5 myArray[0] = 1 myArray[1] = 2 myArray[2] = 3 myArray[3] = 4 myArray[4] = four myArray[someThing] = someThing myArray[] = Empty String 1, 2, 3, 4, four The output is unexpected. The non empty string "4" is converted into its numeric value when setting the property myArray["4"], this seems right. However the empty string "" is not converted into its numeric value, 0, it is treated as an empty string. Also the non empty string "something" is not converted to its numeric value, NaN, it is treated as a string. So which is it? is the statement inside myArray[] in numeric or string context? Also, why are the two, non numeric, properities of myArray not included in myArray.length and myArray.join(", ")?

  Read the article

• UIViewController not loading a UIView

  - by Cosizzle

  Hey, I'm playing around with a script my teacher provided for a table based application. However I can't seem to get my own view to load. Files: SubViewOneController (which is a sub view, also has a nib) TapViewController (Custom UIView I created and want to add to a cell) RootViewController (Main controller which loads in the views) SimpleNavAppDelegate How it works: Within the RootViewController, there's an NSArray that holds NSDictionary objects which is declared in the -(void)awakeFromNib {} method - (void)awakeFromNib { // we'll keep track of our views controllers in this array views = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // when using alloc you are responsible for it, and you will have to release it. // ==================================================================================================== // ==================================================================================================== // LOADING IN CUSTOM VIEW HERE: // allocate a set of views and add to our view array as a dictionary item TapViewController *tapBoardView = [[TapViewController alloc] init]; //push onto array [views addObject:[NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: @"Tab Gestures", @"title", tapBoardView, @"controller", nil]]; [tapBoardView release]; //release the memory // ==================================================================================================== // ==================================================================================================== SubViewOneController *subViewOneController = [[SubViewOneController alloc] init]; // This will set the 2nd level title subViewOneController.title = @"Swipe Gestures"; //set it's title //push it onto the array [views addObject:[NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: @"Swipe Gestures", @"title", subViewOneController, @"controller", nil]]; [subViewOneController release]; //release the memory } Later on I set the table view: - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { // OUTPUT -- see console NSLog(@"indexPath %i", indexPath.row); // OUTPUT: tapController: <TapViewController: 0x3b2b360> NSLog(@"view object: %@", [views objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]); // OUTPUT: view object: controller = <TapViewController: 0x3b0e290>; title = "Tab Gestures"; // ----- Hardcoding the controller and nib file in does work, so it's not a linkage issue ------ // UNCOMMENT TO SEE WORKING -- comment below section. //TapViewController *tapContoller = [[TapViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"TapBoardView" bundle:nil]; //NSLog(@"tapController: %@", tapContoller); //[self.navigationController pushViewController:tapContoller animated:YES]; // ----- Random Tests ----- //UIViewController *targetViewController = [[views objectAtIndex: 0] objectForKey:@"controller"]; // DOES NOT WORK // LOADS THE SECOND CELL (SubViewOneController) however will not load (TapViewController) UIViewController *targetViewController = [[views objectAtIndex: indexPath.row] objectForKey:@"controller"]; NSLog(@"target: %@", targetViewController); // OUTPUT: target: <TapViewController: 0x3b0e290> [self.navigationController pushViewController:targetViewController animated:YES]; } Reading the comments you should be able to see that hardcoding the view in, works - however trying to load it from the View NSArray does not work. It does however contain the object in memory, seeing that NSLog proves that. Everything is linked up and working within the TapViewController nib file. So ya, im kinda stuck on this one, any help would be great! Thanks guys

  Read the article

• Rx framework: How to wait for an event to be triggered in silverlight test

  - by user324255

  Hi, I have a ViewModel that starts loading the Model async in the constructor, and triggers an event when the Model is loaded. I got a test working with the silverlight unit test framework, like this : bool done = false; [TestMethod] [Asynchronous] public void Test_NoCustomerSelected() { ProjectListViewModel viewModel = null; EnqueueCallback(() => viewModel = new ProjectListViewModel()); EnqueueCallback(() => viewModel.ModelLoaded += new EventHandler<EventArgs>(viewModel_ModelLoaded)); EnqueueConditional(() => done); EnqueueCallback(() => Assert.IsNotNull(viewModel.FilteredProjectList)); EnqueueCallback(() => Assert.AreEqual(4, viewModel.FilteredProjectList.Count)); EnqueueTestComplete(); } void viewModel_ModelLoaded(object sender, EventArgs e) { done = true; } But I'm beginning playing with Rx Framework, and trying to get my test to work, but so far I have no luck. Here's 2 attempts : public void Test_NoCustomerSelected2() { ProjectListViewModel viewModel = null; viewModel = new ProjectListViewModel(eventAggregatorMock.Object, moduleManagerMock.Object); IObservable<IEvent<EventArgs>> eventAsObservable = Observable.FromEvent<EventArgs>( ev => viewModel.ModelLoaded += ev, ev => viewModel.ModelLoaded -= ev); eventAsObservable.Subscribe(args => viewModel_ModelLoaded(args.Sender, args.EventArgs)); eventAsObservable.First(); Assert.IsNotNull(viewModel.Model); Assert.AreEqual(4, viewModel.Model.Count); } [TestMethod] public void Test_NoCustomerSelected3() { ProjectListViewModel viewModel = null; var o = Observable.Start(() => viewModel = new ProjectListViewModel(eventAggregatorMock.Object, moduleManagerMock.Object)); IObservable<IEvent<EventArgs>> eventAsObservable = Observable.FromEvent<EventArgs>( ev => viewModel.ModelLoaded += ev, ev => viewModel.ModelLoaded -= ev); o.TakeUntil(eventAsObservable) .First(); Assert.IsNotNull(viewModel.Model); Assert.AreEqual(4, viewModel.Model.Count); } The first test goes in waiting forever, the second doesn't work because the viewModel is null when it does the FromEvent. Anyone has a clue on how to do this properly?

  Read the article

• NSObjectController confusion binding to a class property. Help!

  - by scottw

  Hi, I'm teaching myself cocoa and enjoying the experience most of the time. I have been struggling all day with a simple problem that google has let me down on. I have read the Cocoa Bindings Program Topics and think I grok it but still can't solve my issue. I have a very simple class called MTSong that has various properties. I have used @synthesize to create getter/setters and can use KVC to change properties. i.e in my app controller the following works: mySong = [[MTSong alloc]init]; [mySong setValue:@"2" forKey:@"version"]; In case I am doing something noddy in my class code MTSong.h is: #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @interface MTSong : NSObject { NSNumber *version; NSString *name; } @property(readwrite, assign) NSNumber *version; @property(readwrite, assign) NSString *name; @end and MTSong.m is: #import "MTSong.h" @implementation MTSong - (id)init { [super init]; return self; } - (void)dealloc { [super dealloc]; } @synthesize version; @synthesize name; @end In Interface Builder I have a label (NSTextField) that I want to update whenever I use KVC to change the version of the song. I do the following: Drag NSObjectController object into the doc window and in the Inspector-Attributes I set: Mode: Class Class Name: MTSong Add a key called version and another called name Go to Inspector-Bindings-Controller Content Bind To: File's Owner (Not sure this is right...) Model Key Path: version Select the cell of the label and go to Inspector Bind to: Object Controller Controller Key: mySong Model Key Path: version I have attempted changing the Model Key Path in step 2 to "mySong" which makes more sense but the compiler complains. Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Scott Update Post Comments I wasn't exposing mySong property so have changed my AppController.h to be: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> @class MTSong; @interface AppController : NSObject { IBOutlet NSButton *start; IBOutlet NSTextField *tf; MTSong *mySong; } -(IBAction)convertFile:(id)sender; @end I suspect File's owner was wrong as I am not using a document based application and I need to bind to the AppController, so step 2 is now: Go to Inspector-Bindings-Controller Content Bind To: App Controller Model Key Path: mySong I needed to change 3. to Select the cell of the label and go to Inspector Bind to: Object Controller Controller Key: selection Model Key Path: version All compiles and is playing nice!

  Read the article

• MediaElement fails after several plays.

  - by basilkot

  Hi! I have a problem with MediaElement control. I've put six MediaElements on my form, then I start them and change played files by timer. After several times, these elements stop playing. Here is the sample XAML: <Grid> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="*" /> <RowDefinition Height="*" /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="*" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="*" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="*" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <MediaElement x:Name="element1" UnloadedBehavior="Close" LoadedBehavior="Manual" Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="0" /> <MediaElement x:Name="element2" UnloadedBehavior="Close" LoadedBehavior="Manual" Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="0" /> <MediaElement x:Name="element3" UnloadedBehavior="Close" LoadedBehavior="Manual" Grid.Column="2" Grid.Row="0" /> <MediaElement x:Name="element4" UnloadedBehavior="Close" LoadedBehavior="Manual" Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="1" /> <MediaElement x:Name="element5" UnloadedBehavior="Close" LoadedBehavior="Manual" Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="1" /> <MediaElement x:Name="element6" UnloadedBehavior="Close" LoadedBehavior="Manual" Grid.Column="2" Grid.Row="1" /> Here is the sample code: // The code below repeats for each MediaElement List<string> playlist1 = new List<string>() { @"file1.wmv", @"file2.wmv", @"file3.wmv", @"file4.wmv" }; DispatcherTimer timer1 = null; int index1 = 0; ... void Window1_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { timer1 = new DispatcherTimer(); timer1.Tick += new EventHandler(timer1_Elapsed); timer1.Interval = TimeSpan.FromSeconds(10); element1.Source = new Uri(playlist1[index1]); timer1.Start(); element1.Play(); ... } void timer1_Elapsed(object sender, EventArgs e) { Dispatcher.BeginInvoke(DispatcherPriority.Normal, (System.Threading.ThreadStart)delegate() { element1.Stop(); element1.Close(); timer1.Stop(); index1++; if (index1 >= playlist1.Count) { index1 = 0; } element1.Source = new Uri(playlist1[index1]); timer1.Start(); element1.Play(); }); } ... Does anybody have similar problems?

  Read the article

• Toolbar items in sub-nib

  - by roe

  This question has probably been asked before, but my google-fu must be inferior to everybody else's, cause I can't figure this out. I'm playing around with the iPhone SDK, and I'm building a concept app I've been thinking about. If we have a look at the skeleton generated with a navigation based app, the MainWindow.xib contains a navigation controller, and within that a root-view controller (and a navigation bar and toolbar if you play around with it a little). The root-view controller has the RootViewController-nib associated with it, which loads the table-view. So far so good. To add content to the tool bar and to the navigation bar, I'm supposed to add those to in the hierarchy below the Root View Controller (which works, no problem). However, what I can't figure out is, this is all still within the MainWindow.xib (or, at runtime, nib). How would I define a xib in order for it to pick up tool bar items from that? I want to do (the equivalent of, just reusing the name here) RootViewController *controller = [[RootViewController alloc] initWithNibName:nil bundle:nil]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; and have the navigation controller pick-up on the tool bar items defined in that nib. The logical place to put it would be in the hierarchy under File's Owner (which is of type RootViewController), but it doesn't appear to be possible. Currently, I'm assigning these (navigationItem and toolbarItems) manually in the viewDidLoad method, or define them in the MainWindow.xib directly to be loaded when the app initializes. Any ideas? Edit I guess I'll try to explain with a picture. This is the Interface Builder of the main window, pretty much as it comes out of the wizard to create a navigation based project. I've added a toolbar item for clarity though. You can see the navigation controller, with a toolbar and a navigation bar, and the root view controller. Basically, the Root View Controller has a bar button item and a navigation item as you can see. The thing is, it's also got a nib associated with it, which, when loaded will instantiate a view, and assign it to the view outlet of the controller (which in that nib is File's Owner, of type RootViewController, as should be). How can I get the toolbar item, and the navigation item, into the other nib, the RootViewController.nib so I can remove them here. The RootViewController.nib adds everything else to the Root View Controller, why not these items? The background for this is that I want to simply instantiate RootViewController, initialize it with its own nib (i.e. initWithNibName:nil shown above), and push it onto the navigation controller, without having to add the navigation/toolbar items in coding (as I do it now).

  Read the article

• Streaming Video with Blackberry Simulator

  - by Jenny

  So, I wrote a quick little app for the iphone that takes in an http URL, and plays the .mp4 video located at that URL (it does more than that, of course, but that's the meat of it). Naturally, I wanted to have it on more than just a single mobile platform, so I decided to target Blackberry next. However, I'm running into a lot of problems with the Blackberry Environment. First of all, I learn that I can only download 256k files! I learn how to set that variable in my MDS simulator (and learn that this is NOT a production solution, because any end users will have to have their BES or MDS admin change the setting there). Then, I find a video less than 2 MB I can practice with. Going to the browser prompts me to save the video (rather than it playing in the browser like I expected). After saving the video, it refuses to play, saying it's the wrong format. So. I can't find a reference to IF Blackberry can stream with HTTP (i"ve heard it CAN use RTSP, though, and heard some rumors that it can't use HTTP, which would really suck). I also can't find a reference to what format blackberry uses (although I can find a million programs that will convert one file to the 'blackberry' format). Surely SOMEONE must have tried to stream video with the blackberry before. How did they go about doing so? Is it just a hopeless pipedream? Will I have to go with RTSP? Sorry for the lack of a concrete question...I'm just really lost, and I hate how so many tutorials or forum posts seem to assume I know the capabilities of the Blackberry... Edit: I finally found out that the .3gp (which I'd never heard of ) format is what Blackberry uses. Still have no idea how to stream videos off the web, though. I found a tutorial: http://www.blackberry.com/knowledgecenterpublic/livelink.exe/fetch/2000/348583/800332/1089414/How%5FTo%5F-%5FPlay%5Fvideo%5Fwithin%5Fa%5FBlackBerry%5Fsmartphone%5Fapplication.html?nodeid=1383173&vernum=0 That seemed to be useful, but the code doesn't work if you give it a URL (even though it claims it does).

  Read the article

• java.rmi.UnmarshalException: unable to pull client classes by server

  - by andrews

  Hi, I have an RMI client/server set-up on two machines that works fine in a simple situation when the server doesn't require a client-side defned class. However, when I need to use a class defined on the client side I am unable to have the server unmarshall those classes. I suspect this is an issue with my java.rmi.server.codebase property that I pass in as argument to the client app. I followed Sun's RMI Tutorial trail and I think I have followed the steps exactly except that I don't specify a classpath argument when executing client and server because they execute in the directory right above the root package directory (however I tried that too with no effect). The exceptions I get when attempting to execute the different client-side combinations described in detail below are all the same: RmiServer exception: java.rmi.ServerException: RemoteException occurred in server thread; nested exception is: java.rmi.UnmarshalException: error unmarshalling arguments; nested exception is: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: test.MyTask at sun.rmi.server.UnicastServerRef.dispatch(UnicastServerRef.java:353) at sun.rmi.transport.Transport$1.run(Transport.java:177) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at sun.rmi.transport.Transport.serviceCall(Transport.java:173) at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPTransport.handleMessages(TCPTransport.java:553) at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPTransport$ConnectionHandler.run0(TCPTransport.java:808) at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPTransport$ConnectionHandler.run(TCPTransport.java:667) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor.runWorker(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:1110) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor$Worker.run(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:603) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:636) at sun.rmi.transport.StreamRemoteCall.exceptionReceivedFromServer(StreamRemoteCall.java:255) at sun.rmi.transport.StreamRemoteCall.executeCall(StreamRemoteCall.java:233) at sun.rmi.server.UnicastRef.invoke(UnicastRef.java:142) at java.rmi.server.RemoteObjectInvocationHandler.invokeRemoteMethod(RemoteObjectInvocationHandler.java:178) at java.rmi.server.RemoteObjectInvocationHandler.invoke(RemoteObjectInvocationHandler.java:132) at $Proxy0.execute(Unknown Source) at test.myClient.main(myClient.java:32) The details are: My client/server rmi is set up over a home network behind a router. The router is assigned to a static ip address I will call myhostname. Appropriate port-mapping is set-up in the router that points to the right machines. role, machine, os, ip-address: server, venice, linux ubuntu 9.10, 10.0.1.2 client, naples, mac os x leopard, 10.0.1.4 I startup the server side as follows inside /home/andrews/workspace/epsilon/bin: 1 starting registry on the default port 1099: venice% rmiregistry & 2 starting web-server on port 2001 pointing to code base for common interfaces: venice% java webserver/ClassFileServer 2001 /home/andrew/workspace/epsilon/bin 3 starting server app (main class in test/myServer) which registers the server object: venice% java -Djava.rmi.server.codebase="http://myhostname:2001/" -Djava.security.policy=server.policy -Djava.rmi.server.hostname=myhostname test/myServer & Now the client side inside /Users/andrews/Development/Java/workspace/epsilon/bin: 1 start a local web server that can server client-side classes to the server (not sure if this is needed, but I added I tried it, and still no success; I have added port-mapping to the router for 2001 to venice, for 2002 to naples) naples$ java webserver/ClassFileServer 2002 /Users/andrews/Development/Java/workspace/epsilon/bin/ Trying to run the client (note: I don't specify the -cp argument because client executes right above the root package directory): 1 try #1 using an http hostname naples$ java -Djava.rmi.server.codebase=http://10.0.1.4:2002/ -Djava.security.policy=client.policy test.myClient myhostname Note 1: the myhostname argument at the end is passed-in to the client so that it resolves to server's rmi hostname. Note 2: I tried using localhost:2002 instead of 10.0.1.4:2002 too. Note 3: I tried using myhostname:2002 since myhostname is assigned to the router and I have proper port-mapping set-up, this address should resolve to naples and not venice 2 try #2: naples$ java -Djava.rmi.server.codebase=file:/Users/andrews/Development/Java/workspace/epsilon/bin/ -Djava.security.policy=client.policy test.myClient myhostname Note 1: the code base url format is correct, I created a small program to convert current file directory path into a url and used that. using file:///Users... has same effect. Other notes: 1 my server and client policy files correctly specify the path, as I've tested this setup with good and bad paths, and getting a security exception for bad path 2 this setup works if I don't use client-side defined objects, the client connects correctly to the server and the server executes. 3 when I place the client-side class on the server in the server's classpath, all executes fine. All help is appreciated.

  Read the article

• WSIT, Maven, and wsimport -- Can They Work Together?

  - by rtperson

  Hi all, I'm working on a small-ish multi-module project in Maven. We've separated the UI from the database layer using Web Services, and thanks to the jaxws-maven-plugin, the creation of the WSDL and WS client are more or less handled for us. (The plugin is essentially a wrapper around wsgen and wsimport.) So far so good. The problem comes when I try to layer WSIT security into the picture. NetBeans allows me to generate the security metadata easily, but wsimport seems completely incapable of dealing with anything beyond a Basic-auth level of security. Here's our current, insecure way of calling wsimport during a Maven build: <plugin> <groupId>org.codehaus.mojo</groupId> <artifactId>jaxws-maven-plugin</artifactId> <version>1.10</version> <executions> <execution> <goals> <goal>wsimport</goal> </goals> <configuration> <wsdlUrls> <wsdlUrl>${basedir}/../WebService/target/jaxws/wsgen/wsdl/WebService.wsdl</wsdlUrl> </wsdlUrls> <packageName>com.yourcompany.appname.ws.client</packageName> <sourceDestDir>${basedir}/src/main/java</sourceDestDir> <destDir>${basedir}/target/jaxws</destDir> </configuration> </execution> </executions> </plugin> I have tried playing around with xauthFile, xadditionalHeaders, passing javax.xml.ws.security.auth.username and password through args. I have also tried using wsimport from the command line to point to the Tomcat-generated WSDL, which has the additional security info. Nothing, however, seems to change the composition of the wsimport-generated files at all. So I guess my question here is, to get a WSIT-compliant client, am I stuck abandoning Maven and the jaxws plugin altogether? Is there a way to get a WSIT client to auto-generate? Or will I need to generate the client by hand? Let me know if you need any additional info beyond what I've written here. I'm deploying to Tomcat, although that doesn't seem to be an issue, as Maven seems happy to pull Metro into the deployed WAR file. Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• Finding minimum cut-sets between bounded subgraphs

  - by Tore

  If a game map is partitioned into subgraphs, how to minimize edges between subgraphs? I have a problem, Im trying to make A* searches through a grid based game like pacman or sokoban, but i need to find "enclosures". What do i mean by enclosures? subgraphs with as few cut edges as possible given a maximum size and minimum size for number of vertices for each subgraph that act as a soft constraints. Alternatively you could say i am looking to find bridges between subgraphs, but its generally the same problem. Given a game that looks like this, what i want to do is find enclosures so that i can properly find entrances to them and thus get a good heuristic for reaching vertices inside these enclosures. So what i want is to find these colored regions on any given map. My Motivation The reason for me bothering to do this and not just staying content with the performance of a simple manhattan distance heuristic is that an enclosure heuristic can give more optimal results and i would not have to actually do the A* to get some proper distance calculations and also for later adding competitive blocking of opponents within these enclosures when playing sokoban type games. Also the enclosure heuristic can be used for a minimax approach to finding goal vertices more properly. A possible solution to the problem is the Kernighan-Lin algorithm: function Kernighan-Lin(G(V,E)): determine a balanced initial partition of the nodes into sets A and B do A1 := A; B1 := B compute D values for all a in A1 and b in B1 for (i := 1 to |V|/2) find a[i] from A1 and b[i] from B1, such that g[i] = D[a[i]] + D[b[i]] - 2*c[a][b] is maximal move a[i] to B1 and b[i] to A1 remove a[i] and b[i] from further consideration in this pass update D values for the elements of A1 = A1 / a[i] and B1 = B1 / b[i] end for find k which maximizes g_max, the sum of g[1],...,g[k] if (g_max > 0) then Exchange a[1],a[2],...,a[k] with b[1],b[2],...,b[k] until (g_max <= 0) return G(V,E) My problem with this algorithm is its runtime at O(n^2 * lg(n)), i am thinking of limiting the nodes in A1 and B1 to the border of each subgraph to reduce the amount of work done. I also dont understand the c[a][b] cost in the algorithm, if a and b do not have an edge between them is the cost assumed to be 0 or infinity, or should i create an edge based on some heuristic. Do you know what c[a][b] is supposed to be when there is no edge between a and b? Do you think my problem is suitable to use a multi level problem? Why or why not? Do you have a good idea for how to reduce the work done with the kernighan-lin algorithm for my problem?

  Read the article

• Ajax comments form in ASP.NET MVC2, howto?

  - by Artiom Chilaru

  I've been playing around with different aspects of MVC for some time now, and I've reached a situation where I'm not sure what would be the best way to solve a problem. I'm hoping that the SO community will help me out here :P I've seen a number of examples of Ajax.BeginForm on the internet, and it seems like a very nifty idea. E.g. you have a dropdown where you select a customer - and on selecting one it will load this client's details in some placeholder on the page. This works perfectly fine. But what to do if you want to tie in some validation in the box? Just hypothetically, imagine an article page, and user comments in the bottom. Below the comments area there's an ajax-y "Add comment" box. When a user adds a comment, it will appear in the comments area, below the last comment there. If I set the Ajax.BeginForm to Append the result of the call to the Comments area, it will work fine. But what if the data posted is not valid? Instead of appending a "successful" comment to the comments area I have to show the user validation errors. At this point I decided that the area INSIDE the Ajax.BeginForm will be inside a partial, and the form's submits will return this partial. Validation works fine. On each submit we reload the contents inside the form element. But how to add the successful comment to the top? Other things to consider: The comment form also has a "Preview" button. When the user clicks on Preview, I should load the rendered comment into a preview box. This will probably be inside the form area as well. I was thinking of using Json results instead. When the user submits the form, the server code will generate a Json object with a Success value, and html rendered partials as some properties. Something like { "success": true, "form": "<html form data>", "comment": "successful comment html to inject into the page" } This would be a perfect solution, except there's no way in MVC to render a partial into a string, inside the controller (separation of context, remember?). So.. what should I do then? Any "correct" way to implement this? Anyone???

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242 243 244 245 246  | Next Page >