Search Results

Search found 815 results on 33 pages for 'hell awaits'.

Page 24/33 | < Previous Page | 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31  | Next Page >

  • WPF Background Thread Invocation

    - by jeffn825
    Maybe I'm mis-remembering how Winforms works or I'm overcomplicating the hell out of this, but here's my problem. I have a WPF client app application that talks to a server over WCF. The current user may "log out" of the WPF client, which closes all open screens, leaves only the navigation pane, and minimizes the program window. When the user re-maximizes the program window, they are prompted to log in. Simple. But sometimes things happen on background threads - like every 5 minutes the client tries to make a WCF calls that refreshes some cached data. And what if the user is logged out when this 5 minute timer triggers? Well, then the user should be prompted to log back in...and this must of course happen on the UI thread. private static ISecurityContext securityContext; public static ISecurityContext SecurityContext { get { if (securityContext == null) { // Login method shows a window and prompts the user to log in Application.Current.Dispatcher.Invoke((Action)Login); } return securityContext; } } So far so good, right? But what happens when multiple threads hit this spot of code? Well, my first intuition was that since I'm syncrhonizing across the Application.Current.Dispatcher, I should be fine, and whichever thread hit first would be responsible for showing the login form and getting the user logged in... Not the case... Thread 1 will hit the code and call ShowDialog on the login form Thread 2 will also hit the code and will call Login as soon as Thread 1 has called ShowDialog, since calling ShowDialog unblocked Thread 1 (I believe because of the way the WPF message pump works) All I want is a synchronized way of getting the user logged back into the application...what am I missing here? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • jQuery + InnovaStudio WYSIWYG Editor

    - by Phil Sturgeon
    I am trying to avoid hard-coding each instance of this WYSIWYG editor so I am using jQuery to create an each() loop based on function name. Annoyingly InnovaStudio seems to explode when I try. Documentation Attempt #1 <script type="text/javascript"> /* id = $(this).attr('id'); if(id.length == 0) { id = 'wysiwyg-' + wysiwyg_count; $(this).attr('id', id); } WYSIWYG[wysiwyg_count] = new InnovaEditor('WYSIWYG[' + wysiwyg_count + ']'); WYSIWYG[wysiwyg_count].REPLACE(id); */ var demo = new InnovaEditor('demo'); demo.REPLACE('wysiwyg-1'); console.log('loop'); </script> Effect Works fine, but of course only works for a single instance of the editor. If I want multiple instances I need to use an each. Attempt #2: <script type="text/javascript"> var wysiwyg_count = 1; //var WYSIWYG = []; var demo; (function($) { $(function() { $('.wysiwyg-simple').each(function(){ /* id = $(this).attr('id'); if(id.length == 0) { id = 'wysiwyg-' + wysiwyg_count; $(this).attr('id', id); } WYSIWYG[wysiwyg_count] = new InnovaEditor('WYSIWYG[' + wysiwyg_count + ']'); WYSIWYG[wysiwyg_count].REPLACE(id); */ demo = new InnovaEditor('demo'); demo.REPLACE('wysiwyg-1'); console.log('loop'); }); }); })(jQuery); </script> Effect Replaces the entire HTML body of my page with JUST WYSIWYG related code and complains as no JS is available (not even Firebug, so can't debug). Does anybody know what the hell is going on here?

    Read the article

  • Flash CS3/AS3 - How to Mask Nested MovieClips in External Classes

    - by Max Jackson
    I have a number of external class files that make up (or are trying to build) a portfolio. One of the class files for this project is a Menu.as class I tried extends, but I'm yet to use extends to where it doesn't become a ball of tangled holiday cheer. So my main portfolio class (the one where I'm assembling everything) calls an instance of the Menu class. From the Preloader through the Portfolio class into the Menu class is where I'm passing the content because I want to package things properly. This is Menu content, so naturally I want to position it in a properly names spot. I'm trying to reveal this Menu in a mask and I'm getting the old #1009 error. In a trace, this will work: trace(site_mc.menu_mc.mainMask_mc); // returns [object mainMask_mc_4] However, when I try to truncate the string into a single compact_mc... compactMenu_mc = site_mc.menu_mc.mainMask_mc; trace(compact_mc); // it won't trace (#1009). I said to hell with it, but now I need to have one MovieClip mask another. So I figure I can't go all... parent.parent.parent.clip_mc.mask = parent.parent.parent.masked_mc Probably because of datatyping and whatever else. I hate to be vague, but I'm new and have been working like gangbusters for days to get this portfolio up. Any suggestions or pointers on things my noob brain might've missed are given much thanks. :)

    Read the article

  • MySQL Unique hash insertion

    - by Jesse
    So, imagine a mysql table with a few simple columns, an auto increment, and a hash (varchar, UNIQUE). Is it possible to give mysql a query that will add a column, and generate a unique hash without multiple queries? Currently, the only way I can think of to achieve this is with a while, which I worry would become more and more processor intensive the more entries were in the db. Here's some pseudo-php, obviously untested, but gets the general idea across: while(!query("INSERT INTO table (hash) VALUES (".generate_hash().");")){ //found conflict, try again. } In the above example, the hash column would be UNIQUE, and so the query would fail. The problem is, say there's 500,000 entries in the db and I'm working off of a base36 hash generator, with 4 characters. The likelyhood of a conflict would be almost 1 in 3, and I definitely can't be running 160,000 queries. In fact, any more than 5 I would consider unacceptable. So, can I do this with pure SQL? I would need to generate a base62, 6 char string (like: "j8Du7X", chars a-z, A-Z, and 0-9), and either update the last_insert_id with it, or even better, generate it during the insert. I can handle basic CRUD with MySQL, but even JOINs are a little outside of my MySQL comfort zone, so excuse my ignorance if this is cake. Any ideas? I'd prefer to use either pure MySQL or PHP & MySQL, but hell, if another language can get this done cleanly, I'd build a script and AJAX it too. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Javascript :(….. Oh!! So its jquery? Now what?? I’m a C# Guy

    - by Shekhar_Pro
    Hi guys I want you to Guide me here. This other day I was working out some AJAX for my ASP.Net website and handling client side code in Java was taking the hell out of me. Then I got my hands on this Book jQuery In Action 2nd Edition and solved my problem with the help of Example code in the book. Now as I checked the contents I got an overview that whatever I had ever thought of doing can be done by this jQuery so easily and quite cleanly. I am actually pretty new to web development (say abt 4months ) and from C# world where we have cool libraries and Simple and Elegant coding style. (yeah including those generic, Ienumerable, lambadas, chained statements.. you got it…) and you know what you’re doing when writing some code. And we have so great IntelliSense to care., and above all we have everything Strongly Typed. But in Javascript everything is so messy.. . (and I don’t know why they are not properly indented.. see page source ) Now tell me what should I do, go straight with jQuery or should I first learn Javascript (like a disciplined boy…I even have a book for that too… got in gift :) …. ) I have seen Is it a good idea to learn JavaScript before learning jQuery? but remember I have already got a project on my hand…

    Read the article

  • Media Kind in iTunes COM for Windows SDK

    - by Joel Verhagen
    I recently found out about the awesomeness of the iTunes COM for Windows SDK. I am using Python with win32com to talk to my iTunes library. Needless to say, my head is in the process of exploding. This API rocks. I have one issue though, how do I access the Media Kind attribute of the track? I looked through the help file provided in the SDK and saw no sign of it. If you go into iTunes, you can modify the track's media kind. This way if you have an audiobook that is showing up in your music library, you can set the Media Kind to Audiobook and it will appear in the Books section in iTunes. Pretty nifty. The reason I ask is because I have a whole crap load of audiobooks that are showing up in my LibraryPlaylist. Here is my code thus far. import win32com.client iTunes = win32com.client.gencache.EnsureDispatch('iTunes.Application') track = win32com.client.CastTo(iTunes.LibraryPlaylist.Tracks.Item(1), 'IITFileOrCDTrack') print track.Artist, '-', track.Name print print 'Is this track an audiobook?' print 'How the hell should I know?' Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Why can't the compiler/JVM just make autoboxing "just work"?

    - by Pyrolistical
    Autoboxing is rather scary. While I fully understand the difference between == and .equals I can't but help have the follow bug the hell out of me: final List<Integer> foo = Arrays.asList(1, 1000); final List<Integer> bar = Arrays.asList(1, 1000); System.out.println(foo.get(0) == bar.get(0)); System.out.println(foo.get(1) == bar.get(1)); That prints true false Why did they do it this way? It something to do with cached Integers, but if that is the case why don't they just cache all Integers used by the program? Or why doesn't the JVM always auto unbox to primitive? Printing false false or true true would have been way better. EDIT I disagree about breakage of old code. By having foo.get(0) == bar.get(0) return true you already broke the code. Can't this be solved at the compiler level by replacing Integer with int in byte code (as long as it is never assigned null)

    Read the article

  • including tk.h and tcl.h in c program

    - by user362075
    hi, i am working on an ubuntu system. My aim is to basically make an IDE in C language using GUI tools from TCL/TK. I installed tcl 8.4, tk8.4, tcl8.4-dev, tk8.4-dev and have the tk.h and tcl.h headers file in my system. But, when I am running a basic hello world program it's showing a hell lot of errors. include "tk.h" include "stdio.h" void hello() { puts("Hello C++/Tk!"); } int main(int, char *argv[]) { init(argv[0]); button(".b") -text("Say Hello") -command(hello); pack(".b") -padx(20) -pady(6); } Some of the errors are tkDecls.h:644: error: expected declaration specifiers before ‘EXTERN’ /usr/include/libio.h:488: error: expected ‘)’ before ‘*’ token In file included from tk.h:1559, from new1.c:1: tkDecls.h:1196: error: storage class specified for parameter ‘TkStubs’ tkDecls.h:1201: error: expected ‘=’, ‘,’, ‘;’, ‘asm’ or ‘attribute’ before ‘*’ token /usr/include/stdio.h:145: error: storage class specified for parameter ‘stdin’ tk.h:1273: error: declaration for parameter ‘Tk_PhotoHandle’ but no such parameter Can anyone please tell me how can I rectify these errors? Please help...

    Read the article

  • including tk.h and tcl.h in c program

    - by user362075
    hi, i am working on an ubuntu system. My aim is to basically make an IDE in C language using GUI tools from TCL/TK. I installed tcl 8.4, tk8.4, tcl8.4-dev, tk8.4-dev and have the tk.h and tcl.h headers file in my system. But, when I am running a basic hello world program it's showing a hell lot of errors. include "tk.h" include "stdio.h" void hello() { puts("Hello C++/Tk!"); } int main(int, char *argv[]) { init(argv[0]); button(".b") -text("Say Hello") -command(hello); pack(".b") -padx(20) -pady(6); } Some of the errors are tkDecls.h:644: error: expected declaration specifiers before ‘EXTERN’ /usr/include/libio.h:488: error: expected ‘)’ before ‘*’ token In file included from tk.h:1559, from new1.c:1: tkDecls.h:1196: error: storage class specified for parameter ‘TkStubs’ tkDecls.h:1201: error: expected ‘=’, ‘,’, ‘;’, ‘asm’ or ‘attribute’ before ‘*’ token /usr/include/stdio.h:145: error: storage class specified for parameter ‘stdin’ tk.h:1273: error: declaration for parameter ‘Tk_PhotoHandle’ but no such parameter Can anyone please tell me how can I rectify these errors? Please help...

    Read the article

  • Repackaging Jasper-Reports into an application specific OSGi bundle, legal or not?

    - by Chris
    Hi, I wanted to ask (probably a silly) question regarding the packaging of existing open-source components as OSGi bundles (more specifically Jasper Reports). I have an application that I am converting from a monolithic jar-hell type architecture to something more moduler and OSGi is my weapon of choice. There are various modules I have in mind but one of the modules is a reporting module. My own reporting module will be a jar file containing my code that should reference a Jasper Reports bundle. Trouble is, Jasper reports depends on far far too many libraries and is quite monolithic in its own right. I therefore wish to build my own Jasper Reports bundle but this is where I start getting confused about the legality of repackaging. I don't plan to re-compile but I do plan to re-bundle removing known items that I do not require. Can anyone offer advice on whether I am permitted to repackage (not recompile or extend) open-source libraries into OSGi bundles without falling foul of 'derivative works' clause of LGPL? I noticed that Groovy seems to offer some monolithic jars that include all dependancies and actually goes so far as to re-arrange the packages of its dependancies so that there are no namespace conflicts. This seems to me to be a violation of the license but if anyone can reassure me that this is legal then I would feel safer about my less intrusive custom-bundling of Jasper reports. Thanks for your time, Chris

    Read the article

  • Web user expectations

    - by Ash
    When designing a good Web GUI what expectations can we expect from an end user? I've come up with the following, but I wonder if there are any others which can suggest.. If I click on a hyperlink it will take me to another page/part of this page If I tick/untick a checkbox it might alter the page state (enable/disable elements) If I click on a button I expect it to do something to data. If I click on a button I expect something to happen immediately (either to the current page, or for me to be taken to another page) If I have clicked on a hyperlink and it has taken me to another page, I expect to be able to use the Back button to get back to the previous page in a state similar to that which I left it in If I change something in a form, I can change it back to its previous value if necessary Unless I click on the 'Submit' button nothing should happen to my data. If I bookmark/favourite a page then it should show the same related data each time I visit it If text is underlined and looks like a link, it should be a link and act as one The reasoning behind this question is more a 'UI from hell' one. For example I have come across pages which checking a tickbox next to a record will delete it, straight away, via ajax. To me that just seems wrong, a checkbox is a toggle - something which a delete operation definitely isn't!

    Read the article

  • WPF: Same line drawn different?

    - by stefan.at.wpf
    Hello, I have a canvas and in it I'm drawing some lines: for (int i = 1; i >= 100; i++) { // Line LineGeometry line = new LineGeometry(); line.StartPoint = new Point(i * 100, 0); line.EndPoint = new Point(i * 100, 100 * 100); // Path Path myPath = new Path(); myPath.Stroke = Brushes.Black; myPath.StrokeThickness = 1; // Add to canvas myPath.Data = line; canvas1.Children.Add(myPath); } Well, nothing special, but it makes problems - the lines are drawn different! The canvas is inside a scrollviewer, the following image shows different positions of the canvas, however the lines should look the same? Hell, how is this possible? The code above is the only code I've written by hand and it's the only content in the canvas. Anyone knows why this happens and how to prevent this? Thank you very much! Screenshot: http://www.imagebanana.com/view/c01nrd6i/lines.png

    Read the article

  • Java Robot key activity seems to stop working while certain software is running

    - by Mike Turley
    I'm writing a Java application to automate character actions in an online game overnight (specifically, it catches fish in Final Fantasy XI). The app makes heavy use of java's Robot class both for emulating user keyboard input and for detecting color changes on certain parts of the screen. It also uses multithreading and a swing GUI. The application seems to work perfectly when I test it without the game running, just using screenshots to trigger the apps responses into notepad. But for some reason, when I actually launch FFXI and start the program, all of my keyboard and mouse manipulations just stop working altogether. The program is still running, and the Robot class is still able to read pixel colors. But Robot.keyPress, Robot.keyRelease, Robot.mouseMove, Robot.mousePress and Robot.mouseRelease all do nothing. It's the strangest thing-- to test it, I wrote a simple loop that just keeps typing letters, and focused notepad. I'd then start the game, refocus notepad, and it would do nothing. Then I'd exit the game, and it'd start working again immediately. Has anyone else come across something like this, where specific software will stop certain functions of java from working? Also, to make this more interesting-- Last year I wrote a very similar program using the same classes and programming techniques to automate healing a party in the game as they fight. Last year, this program worked perfectly. After running into these problems I dug up that old program, ran it without making any changes, and found that it too was having the same problems. The only differences between now and when it was working: I was running Windows Vista and now I'm running Windows 7, and several new Java versions as well as FFXI versions have been released. What the hell is going on? (if anyone needs to see my source code, email me at [email protected]. I'm trying to keep it to myself.)

    Read the article

  • DataContext, DataBinding and Element Binding in Silverlight

    - by Matt
    I'm having one hell of a time trying to get my databinding to work correctly. I have reason to believe that what I'm trying to accomplish can't be done, but we'll see what answers I get. I've got a UserControl. This UserControl contains nothing more than a button. Now within the code behind, I've got a property name IsBookmarked. When IsBookmarked is set, code is run that animates the look of the button. The idea is that you click the button and it visually changes. We'll call this UserControl a Bookmark control. Now I have another control, which we'll call the FormControl. My FormControl contains a child Bookmark control. I've tried to do databinding on my Bookmark control, but it's not working. Here's some code to help you out. <UserControl ......> <q:Bookmark x:Name="BookMarkControl1" IsBookmarked="{Binding IsSiteBookmarked}" /> </UserControl> public void Control_Loaded(object sender, EventArgs e) { DataContext = new Employee { IsSiteBookmarked = True }; } public partial class Bookmark : UserControl { bool _IsSiteBookmarked= false; public bool IsSiteBookmarked { get {return _IsSiteBookmarked;} set { _IsSiteBookmarked= value; SwitchMode(value); } } }

    Read the article

  • Synchronizing issue: I want the main thread to be run before another thread but it sometimes doesn´t

    - by Rox
    I have done my own small concurrency framework (just for learning purposes) inspired by the java.util.concurrency package. This is about the Callable/Future mechanism. My code below is the whole one and is compilable and very easy to understand. My problem is that sometimes I run into a deadlock where the first thread (the main thread) awaits for a signal from the other thread. But then the other thread has already notified the main thread before the main thread went into waiting state, so the main thread cannot wake up. FutureTask.get() should always be run before FutureTask.run() but sometimes the run() method (which is called by new thread) runs before the get() method (which is called by main thread). I don´t know how I can prevent that. This is a pseudo code of how I want the two threads to be run. //From main thread: Executor.submit().get() (in get() the main thread waits for new thread to notify) ->submit() calls Executor.execute(FutureTask object) -> execute() starts new thread -> new thread shall notify `main thread` I cannot understand how the new thread can start up and run faster than the main thread that actually starts the new thread. Main.java: public class Main { public static void main(String[] args) { new ExecutorServiceExample(); } public Main() { ThreadExecutor executor = new ThreadExecutor(); Integer i = executor.submit(new Callable<Integer>() { @Override public Integer call() { return 10; } }).get(); System.err.println("Value: "+i); } } ThreadExecutor.java: public class ThreadExecutor { public ThreadExecutor() {} protected <V> RunnableFuture<V> newTaskFor(Callable c) { return new FutureTask<V>(c); } public <V> Future<V> submit(Callable<V> task) { if (task == null) throw new NullPointerException(); RunnableFuture<V> ftask = newTaskFor(task); execute(ftask); return ftask; } public void execute(Runnable r) { new Thread(r).start(); } } FutureTask.java: import java.util.concurrent.locks.Condition; import java.util.concurrent.locks.ReentrantLock; import java.util.logging.Level; import java.util.logging.Logger; public class FutureTask<V> implements RunnableFuture<V> { private Callable<V> callable; private volatile V result; private ReentrantLock lock = new ReentrantLock(); private Condition condition = lock.newCondition(); public FutureTask(Callable callable) { if (callable == null) throw new NullPointerException(); this.callable = callable; } @Override public void run() { acquireLock(); System.err.println("RUN"+Thread.currentThread().getName()); V v = this.callable.call(); set(v); condition.signal(); releaseLock(); } @Override public V get() { acquireLock(); System.err.println("GET "+Thread.currentThread().getName()); try { condition.await(); } catch (InterruptedException ex) { Logger.getLogger(FutureTask.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } releaseLock(); return this.result; } public void set(V v) { this.result = v; } private void acquireLock() { lock.lock(); } private void releaseLock() { lock.unlock(); } } And the interfaces: public interface RunnableFuture<V> extends Runnable, Future<V> { @Override void run(); } public interface Future<V> { V get(); } public interface Callable<V> { V call(); }

    Read the article

  • How do I properly handle rotation of a UIScrollView containing UIImageViews?

    - by bpapa
    I'm developing an image viewer, much like the Photos App. It's a UIScrollView with paging enabled with images loaded from the internet, so I've adapted portions of the LazyTableImages sample. The Scroll View and each ImageView inside of it have all of their autoresize mask flags set. When I first observed how resizes were happening during rotation, it looked good, but once I started trying to interact with the scroll view, I realized that I also had to programmatically change the size of the contentView. I did that by implementing didRotateFromInterfaceOrientation: in my view controller. [self.scrollView setContentSize:CGSizeMake(numberOfImages * portraitWidth, [scrollView bounds].size.height)]; With interaction behaving properly, I then discovered that, if I was viewing the second photo and rotated, portions of both the 1st and 2nd photos would be shown on the screen. I needed to change the contentOffset as well. I've tried to fix this two ways - both by using the scrollRectToVisible:animated: method of UIScrollView, as well as trying to set the contentOffset property directly. And I've experimented by putting this code in implementations of both the "one-step" and "two-step" responses to changes in Orientation. For example: -(void)didAnimateFirstHalfOfRotationToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)toInterfaceOrientation { [self.scrollView setContentOffset:CGPointMake(currentlyViewedPhotoIndex * largeImageHeight,0) animated:YES]; In all cases though, it just looks janky as hell. Either I clearly see the scroll happen, or it just jumps. Uuuuuuuuuuugly! Is there a way to do this so that it behaves exactly like the Photos app does?

    Read the article

  • Running multiple instances of tomcat in eclipse WTP

    - by lisak
    Hey, SCENARIO: 10 CATALINA_BASEs with own configuration (always the same port numbers 8080, but 10 different IP/hostnames on one host via virtual IPs). created a server in WTP and pick "Use the custom location" option in the server configuration in eclipse. New configuration files are created in workspace/Server/server-name-config/ Set up the server path and deploy path for my catalina base (not the internal .metadata one) After I started it, the new configuration files overwrote the original catalina-base/conf files I had there - I was glad, it should be like this but after I made changes in the eclipse config files workspace/Server/server-name-config/ and restarted the server, the changes didn't appeared in the original files in CATALINA_BASE/conf What the hell is that ? So I set the CATALINA_BASE/conf/server.xml to fault configuration and restarted tomcat from eclipse and it worked ! it took the configuration from /Server/server-name-config/server.xml Then I deleted CATALINA_BASE/conf/server.xml and it said that there is no server.xml in catalina base ! How is it possible ? I don't understand why eclipse WTP developers made so tight integration. There should by just symbolic links in /Server/server-name-config/ pointing to CATALINA_BASE/conf/ ... now there is a weird system which is totally unpredictable. The changes in /Server/server-name-config/ are not reflected in CATALINA_BASE/conf ... from where the standard bootstrap.jar or other catalina classloaders and classes build server, engine and other objects with particular setting. Moreover the CATALINA_BASEs could be used outside eclipse then. The second problem, I'm setting up various things in CATALINA_BASE/bin/startup.sh and setenv.sh which is easy cause I can use bash for it. Is then modifying VM parameters in the "Open launch configuration" settings the only way how to do it in eclipse ? Sorry for such a huge pile of questions, but I'm annoyed by the fact that it is much better to not use eclipse WTP for this because it is very poorly designed and it's a shame because this would spare me a lot of time. And using the internal .metadata/ instances it's even more terrifying way that the one I described.

    Read the article

  • NSScrollView frame and flipped documentView

    - by StrAbZ
    Hi, I have problems with NSScrollView, It is not displayed the way I want. Yes I know there is a lot of post about it around the web, I need to override the isFlipped, in order to make it return YES, in my NSView subclass. Ok, it's done, so now, my scrollView scroll from top to bottom, and not in the reverse way, as it was before overriding isFlipped. But, this is the second part, my real problem, which I didn't found any answer on the web, how the hell I'm supposed to code, or create my view in interface builder, if everything is flipped? If I put something at the top, it is displayed a the bottom… do you have any magic trick to handle that? And my last problem, is the NSScrollView frame. before setting the documentView of my scroll view, everything is fine, the scrollView is displayed at the place I choose, but, when I set the document view, it looks like the scrollview frame looks bigger, so I have to resize it…. is this a normal behavior? Thank you very much.

    Read the article

  • Defining a variable in a class and using it in functions

    - by Josh
    I am trying to learn PHP classes so I can begin coding more OOP projects. To help me learn I am building a class that uses the Rapidshare API. Here's my class: <?php class RS { public $baseUrl = 'http://api.rapidshare.com/cgi-bin/rsapi.cgi?sub='; function apiCall($params) { echo $baseUrl; } } ?> $params will contain a set of key pair values, like this: $params = array( 'sub' => 'listfiles_v1', 'type' => 'prem', 'login' => '746625', 'password' => 'not_my_real_pass', 'realfolder' => '0', 'fields' => 'filename,downloads,size', ); Which will later be appended to $baseUrl to make the final request URL, but I can't get $baseUrl to appear in my apiCall() method. I have tried the following: var $baseUrl = 'http://api.rapidshare.com/cgi-bin/rsapi.cgi?sub='; $baseUrl = 'http://api.rapidshare.com/cgi-bin/rsapi.cgi?sub='; private $baseUrl = 'http://api.rapidshare.com/cgi-bin/rsapi.cgi?sub='; And even tried $this->baseUrl = $baseUrl; in my apiCall() methid, I don't know what the hell I was thinking there though lol. Any help is appreciated thanks :)

    Read the article

  • Empty POST from jQuery UI Dialog to PHP function with $.post

    - by solefald
    Hello, I am having hell of a time trying to figure this one out. Maybe someone can help me here or point me in the right direction. I have a jQuery UI dialog that pops up when user clicks on an image. The dialog displays a form with 2 drop down windows. "dept" and "group". Group drop down is disabled, until something is selected in the "dept" dropdown menu. When user selects a department, I do a POST to php function and then enable and populate the group drop down. Simple enough... <select name="dept" id="dept_select" onchange="getDeptGroups(this.value);"> // Some data here </select> JS function: function getDeptGroups(dept) { // This alert works and displays department name. //alert(dept); $.post("/am/ldap/getDepartmentGroups.php", { department: dept }, function(data){ alert(data); }); } and finally in php page i just do <? print_r($_POST); ?> and end up with empty array. Array ( ) This happens in both, Chrome and Firefox, however, FireBug clearly shows post data being submitted: What am i doing wrong here?

    Read the article

  • What is the best way to process XML sent to WCF 3.5

    - by CRM Junkie
    I have to develop a WCF application in 3.5. The input will be sent in the form of XML and the response would be sent in the form of XML as well. A ASP.NET application will be consuming the WCF and sending/receiving data in XML format. Now, as per my understanding, when consuming WCF from an ASP.NET application, we just add a reference to the service, create an object of the service, pack all the necessary data(Data Members in WCF) into the input object (object of the Data Contract) and call the necessary function. It happens that the ASP.NET application is being developed by a separate party and they are hell bent on receiving and sending data in XML format. What I can perceive from this is that the WCF will take the XML string (a single Data Member string type) as input and send out a XML string (again a single Data Member string type) as output. I have created WCF applications earlier where requests and responses were sent out in XML/JSON format when it was consumed by jQuery ajax calls. In those cases, the XML tags were automatically mapped to the different Data Members defined. What approach should I take in this case? Should I just take a string as input (basically the XML string) or is there any way WCF/.NET 3.5 will automatically map the XML tags with the Data Members for requests and responses and I would not need to parse the XML string separately?

    Read the article

  • Linq to SQL Problem System.Data.Linq.IdentityManager.StandardIdentityManager.MultiKeyManager

    - by luckyluke
    I have a really tricky thing going up here. My project has around 100 tables and they are all mapped by LINQ. Everything works fine in a dev and test environment. These enviroments are MS Win 2008 r2 servers with SQL 2008 sp1 databases. IIS and SQL are on a different machines. Now on production enviroment which is MS Win 2003 x64 web farm + geoclustered SQL 2008 IT DOES not work. All I get is the exception System.IndexOutOfRangeException: Index was outside the bounds of the array. at System.Data.Linq.IdentityManager.StandardIdentityManager.MultiKeyManager3.TryCreateKeyFr>om Values(Object[] values, MultiKey& k) at System.Data.Linq.IdentityManager.StandardIdentityManager.IdentityCache2.Find(Object[] keyValues) at System.Data.Linq.ChangeProcessor.GetOtherItem(MetaAssociation assoc, Object instance) at System.Data.Linq.ChangeProcessor.BuildEdgeMaps() at System.Data.Linq.ChangeProcessor.SubmitChanges(ConflictMode failureMode) at System.Data.Linq.DataContext.SubmitChanges(ConflictMode failureMode) at ERS.IIMP.Services.ExposuresSrv.Update(Int32 ExpID, Int32 AssID) Services\ExposuresSrv.cs` My question is What the hell. They have precisely the same DBML, the DB has exactly THE SAME structure (when I get the DB from prod to TEST and mount it eveything works just great), the binaries on the WEB Server are the same. I seriously do not know what to do.... Did anyone found that Linq works on one env and does not on the second?? I mam really lost here. I really hope You can help me:)

    Read the article

  • MVC view engine that can render classic ASP?

    - by David Lively
    I'm about to start integrating ASP.NET MVC into an existing 200k+ line classic ASP application. Rewriting the existing code (which runs an entire business, not just the public-facing website) is not an option. The existing ASP 3.0 pages are quite nicely structured (given what was available when this model was put into place nearly 15 years ago), like so: <!--#include virtual="/_lib/user.asp"--> <!--#include virtual="/_lib/db.asp"--> <!--#include virtual="/_lib/stats.asp"--> <!-- #include virtual="/_template/topbar.asp"--> <!-- #include virtual="/_template/lftbar.asp"--> <h1>page name</h1> <p>some content goes here</p> <p>some content goes here</p> <p>.....</p> <h2>Today's Top Forum Posts</h2> <%=forum_top_posts(1)%> <!--#include virtual="/_template/footer.asp"--> ... or somesuch. Some pages will include function and sub definitions, but for the most part these exist in include files. I'm wondering how difficult it would be to write an MVC view engine that could render classic ASP, preferably using the existing ASP.DLL. In that case, I could replace <!--#include virtual="/_lib/user.asp"--> with <%= Html.RenderPartial("lib/user"); %> as I gradually move existing pages from ASP to ASP.NET. Since the existing formatting and library includes are used very extensively, they must be maintained. I'd like to avoid having to maintain two separate versions. I know the ideal way to go about this would be to simply start a new app and say to hell with the ASP code, however, that simply ain't gonna happen. Ideas?

    Read the article

  • (solved) jQuery click and drag/scroll window: jagged movement

    - by Josh
    Edit: derp, using pageX/Y instead of clientX/Y -- apparently scrollBy expects input with that offset rather than the other. Jaggy movement gone. I am getting jagged movement when doing small scroll increments using the following bindings. Can anyone point me in the right direction for how to smooth this out? FYI, its intermittent. It seems like, if I click and hold for a second, then drag at a decent speed there are no problems. Edit: What the hell? I get this output on debug... obvious jog backwards and forwards. This will happen in succession and seems to have no correlation with the mouse, other than the mouse is moving. x 398 : 403 y 374 : 377 x 403 : 399 y 377 : 374 x 399 : 404 y 374 : 377 Josh sococo.client.panMap = function(e){ e.preventDefault(); var movex = sococo.client.currX - e.pageX ; var movey = sococo.client.currY - e.pageY; console.log( sococo.client.currX +" : " + e.pageX ); window.scrollBy(movex,movey); sococo.client.currY = e.pageY; sococo.client.currX = e.pageX; } $(document).mousedown( function(e){ e.preventDefault(); sococo.client.currX = e.pageX; sococo.client.currY = e.pageY; $(document).bind( "mousemove", sococo.client.panMap ); }); $(document).mouseup( function(e){ e.preventDefault(); $(document).unbind( "mousemove", sococo.client.panMap ); });

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework - Foreign key constraints not added for inherited entity

    - by Tri Q
    Hello, It appears to me that a strange phenomenon is occurring with inherited entities (TPT) in EF4. I have three entities. 1. Asset 2. Property 3. Activity Property is a derived-type of Asset. Property has many activities (many-to-many) When modeling this in my EDMX, everything seems fine until I try to insert a new Property into the database. If the property does not contain any Activity, it works, but all hell breaks loose when I add some new activities to the new Property. As it turns out after 2 days of crawling the web and fiddling around, I noticed that in the EF store (SSDL) some of the constraints between entities were not picked up during the update process. Property_Activity table which links properties and activities show only one constraint FK_Property_Activity_Activity but FK_Property_Activity_Property was missing. I knew this is an Entity Framework anomoly because when I switched the relationship in the database to: Asset <-- Asset_Activity <-- Activity After an update, all foreign key constraints are picked up and the save is successful, with or without activities in the new property. Is this intended or a bug in EF? How do I get around this problem? Should I abandon inheritance altogether?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31  | Next Page >