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Visual Studio 2008 project organization for executable and assembly

- by user304582

Hi - I am having a problem setting up the following in Visual Studio 2008: a parent project which includes the entrypoint Main() method class and which declares an interface, and a child project which has classes that implement the interface declared in the parent project. I have specified that Parent's Output type is a Console application, and Child's Output type is a Class library. In Child I have add a reference to the Parent as a project, and specified that Child depends on Parent and that the build order should be Parent, then Child. The build succeeds, and as far I can tell, the right things show up in the Child/bin/debug directory: Parent.exe and Child.dll. However, if I run Parent.exe, then at the point when it should load a class from the Child.dll, it fails with the error message: exception executing operation System.TypeLoadException: Could not load type 'Child.some.class' from assembly 'Parent, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null'. I guess I'm confused as to how to get the Parent and Child projects to play together. I plan on having more child projects that use the same framework that is set up in the Parent, and so I do not want to move the entrypoint class down into the Child project. If I try to specify that the Child project is also a Console application, then the build process fails because there is no Main() entrypoint class in the child (even though the Parent project is included as a reference). Any help would be welcome! Thanks, Martin

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Diffie-Hellman in Silverlight

- by cmaduro

I am trying to devise a security scheme for encrypting the application level data between a silverlight client, and a php webservice that I created. Since I am dealing with a public website the information I am pulling from the service is public, but the information I'm submitting to the webservice is not public. There is also a back end to the website for administration, so naturally all application data being pushed and pulled from the webservice to the silverlight administration back end must also be encrypted. Silverlight does not support asymmetric encryption, which would work for the public website. Symmetric encryption would only work on the back end because users do not log in to the public website, so no password based keys could be derived. Still symmetric encryption would be great, but I cannot securely save the private key in the silverlight client. Because it would either have to be hardcoded or read from some kind of config file. None of that is considered secure. So... plan B. My final alternative would be then to implement the Diffie-Hellman algorithm, which supports symmetric encryption by means of key agreement. However Diffie-Hellman is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks. In other words, there is no guarantee that either side is sure of each others identity, making it possible for communication to be intercepted and altered without the receiving party knowing about it. It is thus recommended to use a private shared key to encrypt the key agreement handshaking, so that the identity of either party is confirmed. This brings me back to my initial problem that resulted in me needing to use Diffie-Hellman, how can I use a private key in a silverlight client without hardcoding it either in the code or an xml file. I'm all out of love on this one... is there any answer to this?

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Create 2 connection pools using c3p0 in Jetty

- by Mike

Hello, I'm trying to set up a maven web project that runs Jetty. In this project, I need 2 JNDIs... my plan is to configure 2 connection pools using c3p0 in Jetty. So, I created WEB-INF/jetty-env.xml, and I have the following:- <Configure class="org.mortbay.jetty.webapp.WebAppContext"> <New id="ds1" class="org.mortbay.jetty.plus.naming.Resource"> <Arg>jdbc/ds1</Arg> <Arg> <New class="com.mchange.v2.c3p0.ComboPooledDataSource"> // ... JTDS to SQL Server - omitted for brevity </New> </Arg> </New> <New id="ds2" class="org.mortbay.jetty.plus.naming.Resource"> <Arg>jdbc/ds2</Arg> <Arg> <New class="com.mchange.v2.c3p0.ComboPooledDataSource"> // ... JTDS to Sybase - omitted for brevity </New> </Arg> </New> </Configure> When I run jetty, I get this exception:- May 14, 2010 1:16:56 PM com.mchange.v2.c3p0.impl.AbstractPoolBackedDataSource getPoolManager INFO: Initializing c3p0 pool... com.mchange.v2.c3p0.ComboPooledDataSource [ acquireIncrement -> ... ... ... Exception in thread "com.mchange.v2.async.ThreadPoolAsynchronousRunner$PoolThread-#0" java.lang.LinkageError: net.sourceforge.jtds.jdbc.DefaultProperties at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClassImpl(Native Method) at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass(ClassLoader.java:258) It seems to me that I can't create 2 connection pools using c3p0. If I remove either one of the connection pool, it worked. What am I doing wrong? How do I create 2 connection pools in Jetty? Thanks much.

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How do you handle key down events on Android? I am having issues making it work.

- by user279112

For an Android program, I am having trouble handling key down and key up events, and the problem I am having with them can almost certainly be generalized to any sort of user input event. I am using Lunar Lander as one of my main learning devices as I make my first meaningful program, and I noticed that it was using onKeyDown as an overridden method to receive key down events, and it would call one of their more original methods doKeyDown. But when I tried to implement a very small version of my own onKeyDown overide and the actual handler that it calls, it didn't work. I would probably copy and paste my implementations of those two methods, but that doesn't seem to be the problem. You see, I ran the debugger and noticed that they were not getting called - at all. The same goes for my implementations of onKeyUp and the handler that it calls. Something is a little weird here, and when I tried to look at the Android documentation for it, that didn't help at all. I thought that if you had an overide for onKeyDown, then when a key was pressed during execution of the program, onKeyDown would be called as soon as reasonably possible. End of story. But apparently there's something more to it. Apparently you have to do something else somewhere - possibly in the XML when defining the layout or something - to make it work. But I do not know what, and I could not find what in their documentation. What's the secret to this? Thanks!

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Intercepting method with Spring AOP using only annotations

- by fish

In my Spring context file I have something like this: <bean id="userCheck" class="a.b.c.UserExistsCheck"/> <aop:config> <aop:aspect ref="userCheck"> <aop:pointcut id="checkUser" expression="execution(* a.b.c.d.*.*(..)) && args(a.b.c.d.RequestObject)"/> <aop:around pointcut-ref="checkUser" method="checkUser"/> </aop:aspect> </aop:config> a.b.c.UserExistsCheck looks like this: @Aspect public class UserExistsCheck { @Autowired private UserInformation userInformation; public Object checkUser(ProceedingJoinPoint pjp) throws Throwable { int userId = ... //get it from the RequestObject passed as a parameter if (userExists(userId)) { return pjp.proceed(); } else { return new ResponseObject("Invalid user); } } And the class that is being intercepted with this stuff looks like this: public class Klazz { public ResponseObject doSomething(RequestObject request) {...} } This works. UserExistCheck is executed as desired before the call is passed to Klazz. The problem is that this is the only way I got it working. To get this working by using annotations instead of the context file seems to be just too much for my small brain. So... how exactly should I annotate the methods in UserExistsCheck and Klazz? And do I still need something else too? Another class? Still something in the context file?

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SSIS package not picking up configuration files correctly

- by blntechie

We have recently migrated some 30 DTS packages in SQL Server 2000 to SSIS packages in SQL Server 2008. We have created packages in such a way that all environment related variables and other required information are picked from configuration files for maintenance of packages across different environments like Dev, QA and Prod. After setting up all the packages with the config files, when we tested the packages from Business Intelligence Development Studio, it worked fine and picked up the values from the configuration file. And when changing the values in config files to Dev or other env it correctly picked up the values and executed. Similarly, tried for 2 different environments and the packages worked fine. So we deployed to Prod and it was working fine. Yesterday, I had to make a functional change for one package and so I made the change in the package (it is just changing a parameter in a SQL procedure execution task and not related to any variables) and tested in BIDS with 2 environments and it worked fine. As the change was not related to any environment change, we deployed only the updated package (not the associated config file) manually in Prod (i.e without the use of manifest). The config file which was used by the package previously and working fine in Prod remained unaltered. But when the package was executed, the package was pointing to QA and the package didn't read from the config file I believe. One reason may be, it is still using the last executed values which remains in the .dtsx file(can be checked by opening the file in a text editor) usually. But normally, when a package is executed, the values will be overwritten from config file. Guess it is not happening. What are the possible reasons for this? We have tested extensively switching between test environments and it does not show this behavior. We have encountered this in Prod environment twice now. Anyone else have experienced this and how have you resolved this?

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Add icon on spark button skin

- by Jerry

Hello all I am trying to add different icon on different buttons. I have my skin file ready but not sure if I have to create different skin class for different button. It sounds inefficient. Any suggestions? Thanks for the reply... <s:Button id="pass" width="110" height="35" fontWeight="bold" fontSize="12" fontFamily="arial" label="Past Track" data="@Embed('assets/IconAirplain.png')" click="pass_clickHandler(event)" skinClass="skins.CustomSkin"/> <s:Button id="future" width="110" height="20" fontWeight="bold" fontSize="12" fontFamily="arial" label="Future Plan" click="future_clickHandler(event)" skinClass="skins.CustomSkin"/> Skin.....   <s:Rect id="fill" left="1" right="1" top="1" bottom="1" radiusX="2"> <s:fill> <s:LinearGradient rotation="90"> <s:GradientEntry color="#304fd7" color.over="#4b6bf6" color.down="0xAAAAAA" alpha="0.85" /> <s:GradientEntry color="#1f38a3" color.over="#3653cf" color.down="0x929496" alpha="0.85" /> </s:LinearGradient> </s:fill> </s:Rect>  // I could add my icon here but that would make me to create //different icon image for different button

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Graph colouring algorithm: typical scheduling problem

- by newba

Hi, I'm training code problems like UvA and I have this one in which I have to, given a set of n exams and k students enrolled in the exams, find whether it is possible to schedule all exams in two time slots. Input Several test cases. Each one starts with a line containing 1 < n < 200 of different examinations to be scheduled. The 2nd line has the number of cases k in which there exist at least 1 student enrolled in 2 examinations. Then, k lines will follow, each containing 2 numbers that specify the pair of examinations for each case above. (An input with n = 0 will means end of the input and is not to be processed). Output: You have to decide whether the examination plan is possible or not for 2 time slots. Example: Input: 3 3 0 1 1 2 2 0 9 8 0 1 0 2 0 3 0 4 0 5 0 6 0 7 0 8 0 Ouput: NOT POSSIBLE. POSSIBLE. I think the general approach is graph colouring, but I'm really a newb and I may confess that I had some trouble understanding the problem. Anyway, I'm trying to do it and then submit it. Could someone please help me doing some code for this problem? I will have to handle and understand this algo now in order to use it later, over and over. I prefer C or C++, but if you want, Java is fine to me ;) Thanks in advance

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How to debug browser crash when running Silverlight app

- by onedozenbagels

I am on a team of three people who are developing a Silverlight application. On two of our developers' machines the app seems to randomly crash. It never crashes on the third developer's machine. The nature of the crash is that internet explorer just dies with an "Internet Explorer has stopped working" message. The problem details look like this: Problem Event Name: BEX Application Name: IEXPLORE.EXE Application Version: 8.0.6001.18882 Application Timestamp: 4b3ed243 Fault Module Name: StackHash_2cd8 Fault Module Version: 0.0.0.0 Fault Module Timestamp: 00000000 Exception Offset: 0024df00 Exception Code: c0000005 Exception Data: 00000008 OS Version: 6.0.6002.2.2.0.256.6 Locale ID: 1033 Additional Information 1: 2cd8 Additional Information 2: 0c337fa6c2057a9dbce1860c5e2d8315 Additional Information 3: e13b Additional Information 4: 5da012709e52526a1af19795dc4a33fd Then windows displays this message: "To help protect your computer, Data Execution Prevention has closed Internet Explorer." If I am attached to the app with the Visual Studio debugger the only information I get is this line in the output window: "The program '[2140] iexplore.exe: Silverlight' has exited with code -1073741819 (0xc0000005)." How should I go about debugging this problem? I'm not really sure where to start.

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Time to start returning IQueryable<T> instead of IList<T> to my Web UI / Web API Layer?

- by JohnnyO

I've got a multi-layer application that starts with the repository pattern for all data access and it returns IQueryable to the Services layer. The Services layer, which includes all of the business logic, returns IList to the Controllers (note: I'm using ASP.NET MVC for the UI layer). The benefit of returning IQueryable in the data access layer is that it allows my repositories to be extremely simple and the database queries to be deferred. However, I'm triggering the database queries in my services layer so that my unit tests is more reliable and I don't give flexibility to the Controllers to reshape my queries. However, I've recently encountered several situations where deferring the execution of queries down to the Controllers would have been significantly more performant because the Controllers had to do some projections on the data that was UI specific. Additionally, with the emergence of things like oData, I was starting to wonder if end points (e.g. web UI or web apis) should be working directly with IQueryable. What are your thoughts? Is it time to start returning IQueryable from the services layer to the UI layer? Or stick with IList? This thread here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/718624/to-return-iqueryablet-or-not-return-iqueryablet seems to vouch for returning IList to the UI layers, but I was wondering if things are changing because of new emerging technologies and techniques.

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How to create an SaaS Application?

- by Andrew

I don't know how else to say it so I'm just going to explain my ideal scenario and hopefully you can explain to me how to implement it... I'm creating an application with the Zend Framework that will be hosted with DreamHost. The application will be hosted on its own domain (i.e. example-app.com). Basically, a user should be able to sign up, get their own domain sampleuser.example-app.com or example-app.com/sampleuser which points to, what looks like their own instance of the app, which is really a single instance serving up different content based on the url. Eventually, I want my users to be able to create their own domain (like foobar.com) that points to sampleuser.example-app.com, such that visitors to foobar.com don't notice that the site is really being served up from example-app.com. I don't know how to do most of that stuff. How does this process work? Do I need to do some funky stuff with Apache or can this be done with a third party host, like DreamHost? Update: Thanks for the advice! I've decided to bite the bullet and upgrade my hosting plan to utilize wildcard subdomains. It's cheaper than I was expecting! I also found out about domain reseller programs, like opensrs.com, that have their own API. I think using one of these APIs will be the solution to my domain registration issue.

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Vote on Pros and Cons of Java HTML to XML cleaners

- by George Bailey

I am looking to allow HTML emails (and other HTML uploads) without letting in scripts and stuff. I plan to have a white list of safe tags and attributes as well as a whitelist of CSS tags and value regexes (to prevent automatic return receipt). I asked a question: Parse a badly formatted XML document (like an HTML file) I found there are many many ways to do this. Some systems have built in sanitizers (which I don't care so much about). This page is a very nice listing page but I get kinda lost http://java-source.net/open-source/html-parsers It is very important that the parsers never throw an exception. There should always be best guess results to the parse/clean. It is also very important that the result is valid XML that can be traversed in Java. I posted some product information and said Community Wiki. Please post any other product suggestions you like and say Community Wiki so they can be voted on. Also any comments or wiki edits on what part of a certain product is better and what is not would be greatly appreciated. (for example,, speed vs accuracy..) It seems that we will go with either jsoup (seems more active and up to date) or TagSoup (compatible with JDK4 and been around awhile). A +1 for any of these products would be if they could convert all style sheets into inline style on the elements.

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How to reliably send a request cross domain and cross browser on page unload

- by Agmin

I have javascript code that's loaded by 3rd parties. The javascript keeps track of a number of metrics, and when a user exits the page I'd like to send the metrics back to my server. Due to XSS checks in some browsers, like IE, I cannot do a simple jquery.ajax() call. Instead, I'm appending an image src to the page with jquery. Here's the code, cased by browser: function record_metrics() { //Arbitrary code execution here to set test_url $esajquery('#MainDiv').append("<img src='" + test_url + "' />"); } if ($esajquery.browser.msie) { window.onbeforeunload = function() { record_metrics(); } } else { $esajquery(window).unload( function(){ record_metrics(); } ); } FF aborts the request to "test_url" if I use window.onbeforeunload, and IE8 doesn't work with jquery's unload(). IE8 also fails to work if the arbitrary test_url setting code is too long, although IE8 seems to work fine if the is immediately appended to the DOM. Is there a better way to solve this issue? Unfortunately this really needs to execute when a user leaves the page.

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GAE Task Queue oddness

- by b3nw

I have been testing the taskqueue with mixed success. Currently I am using the default queue, in default settings ect ect.... I have a test url setup which inserts about 8 tasks into the queue. With short order, all 8 are completed properly. So far so good. The problem comes up when I re-load that url twice under say a minute. Now watching the task queue, all the tasks are added properly, but only the first batch execute it seems. But the "Run in Last Minute" # shows the right number of tasks being run.... The request logs tell a different story. They show only the first set of 8 running, but all task creation urls working successfully. The oddness of this is that if I wait say a minute between the task creation url requests, it will work fine. Oddly enough changing the bucket_size or execution speed does not seem to help. Only the first batch are executed. I have also reduced the number of requests all the way down to 2, and still found only the first 2 execute. Any others added display the same issues as above. Any suggestions? Thanks

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LINQ to SQL - Tracking New / Dirty Objects

- by Joseph Sturtevant

Is there a way to determine if a LINQ object has not yet been inserted in the database (new) or has been changed since the last update (dirty)? I plan on binding my UI to LINQ objects (using WPF) and need it to behave differently depending whether or not the object is already in the database. MyDataContext context = new MyDataContext(); MyObject obj; if (new Random().NextDouble() > .5) obj = new MyObject(); else obj = context.MyObjects.First(); // How can I distinguish these two cases? The only simple solution I can think of is to set the primary key of new records to a negative value (my PKs are an identity field and will therefore be set to a positive integer on INSERT). This will only work for detecting new records. It also requires identity PKs, and requires control of the code creating the new object. Is there a better way to do this? It seems like LINQ must be internally tracking the status of these objects so that it can know what to do on context.SubmitChanges(). Is there some way to access that "object status"? Clarification Apparently my initial question was confusing. I'm not looking for a way to insert or update records. I'm looking for a way, given any LINQ object, to determine if that object has not been inserted (new) or has been changed since its last update (dirty).

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Android: How to get a custom view to redraw partially?

- by Peterdk

I have a custom view that fills my entire screen. (A piano keyboard) When a user touches the key, it would cause a invalidate() to be called and the whole keyboard gets redrawn to show the new state with a touched key. Currently the view is very simple, but I plan to add a bit more nice graphics. Since the whole keyboard is dynamically rendered this would make redrawing the entire keyboard more expensive. So I thought, let's look into partial redrawing. Now I call invalidate(Rect dirty) with the correct dirty region. I set my onDraw(Canvas canvas) method to only draw the keys in the dirty region if I do indeed want a partial redraw. This results in those keys being drawn, but the rest of the keyboard is totally black/not drawn at all. Am I wrong in expecting that calling invalidate(Rect dirty) would "cache" the current canvas, and only "allows" drawing in the dirty region? Is there any way I can achieve what I want? (A way to "cache" the canvas and only redraw the dirty area?"

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Some general C questions.

- by b-gen-jack-o-neill

Hello. I am trying to fully understand the process pro writing code in some language to execution by OS. In my case, the language would be C and the OS would be Windows. So far, I read many different articles, but I am not sure, whether I understand the process right, and I would like to ask you if you know some good articles on some subjects I couldn´t find. So, what I think I know about C (and basically other languages): C compiler itself handles only data types, basic math operations, pointers operations, and work with functions. By work with functions I mean how to pass argument to it, and how to get output from function. During compilation, function call is replaced by passing arguments to stack, and than if function is not inline, its call is replaced by some symbol for linker. Linker than find the function definition, and replace the symbol to jump adress to that function (and of course than jump back to program). If the above is generally true and I get it right, where to final .exe file actually linker saves the functions? After the main() function? And what creates the .exe header? Compiler or Linker? Now, additional capabilities of C, today known as C standart library is set of functions and the declarations of them, that other programmers wrote to extend and simplify use of C language. But these functions like printf() were (or could be?) written in different language, or assembler. And there comes my next question, can be, for example printf() function be written in pure C without use of assembler? I know this is quite big question, but I just mostly want to know, wheather I am right or not. And trust me, I read a lots of articles on the web, and I would not ask you, If I could find these infromation together on one place, in one article. Insted I must piece by piece gather informations, so I am not sure if I am right. Thanks.

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Violating 1st normal form, is it okay for my purpose?

- by Nick

So I'm making a running log, and I have the workouts stored as entries in a table. For each workout, the user can add intervals (which consist of a time and a distance), so I have an array like this: [workout] => [description] => [comments] => ... [intervals] => [0] => [distance] => 200m [time] => 32 [1] => [distance] => 400m [time] => 65 ... I'm really tempted to throw the "intervals" array into serialize() or json_encode() and put it in an "intervals" field in my table, however this violates the principles of good database design (which, incidentally, I know hardly anything about). Is there any disadvantage to doing this? I never plan on querying my table based on the contents of "intervals". Creating a separate table just for intervals seems like a lot of unnecessary complexity, so if anyone with more experience has had a situation like this, what route did you take and how did it work out?

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Keyword to SQL search

- by jdelator

Use Case When a user goes to my website, they will be confronted with a search box much like SO. They can search for results using plan text. ".net questions", "closed questions", ".net and java", etc.. The search will function a bit different that SO, in that it will try to as much as possible of the schema of the database rather than a straight fulltext search. So ".net questions" will only search for .net questions as opposed to .net answers (probably not applicable to SO case, just an example here), "closed questions" will return questions that are closed, ".net and java" questions will return questions that relate to .net and java and nothing else. Problem I'm not too familiar with the words but I basically want to do a keyword to SQL driven search. I know the schema of the database and I also can datamine the database. I want to know any current approaches there that existing out already before I try to implement this. I guess this question is for what is a good design for the stated problem. Proposed My proposed solution so far looks something like this Clean the input. Just remove any special characters Parse the input into chunks of data. Break an input of "c# java" into c# and java Also handle the special cases like "'c# java' questions" into 'c# java' and "questions". Build a tree out of the input Bind the data into metadata. So convert stuff like closed questions and relate it to the isclosed column of a table. Convert the tree into a sql query. Thoughts/suggestions/links?

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function's return address is different from its supposed value, buffer overflow,

- by ultrajohn

Good day everyone! I’m trying to understand how buffer overflow works. I’m doing this for my project in a computer security course I’m taking. Right now, I’m in the process of determining the address of the function’s return address which I’m supposed to change to perform a buffer overflow attack. I’ve written a simple program based from an example I’ve read in the internet. What this program does is it creates an integer pointer that will be made to point to the address of the function return address in the stack. To do this, (granted I understand how a function/program variables get organized in the stack), I add 8 to the buffer variable’ address and set it as the value of ret. I’m not doing anything here that would change the address contained in the location of func’s return address. here's the program: Output of the program when gets excecuted: As you can see, I’m printing the address of the variables buffer and ret. I’ve added an additional statement printing the value of the ret variable (supposed location of func return address, so this should print the address of the next instruction which will get executed after func returns from execution). Here is the dump which shows the supposed address of the instruction to be executed after func returns. (Underlined in green) As you can see, that value is way different from the value printed contained in the variable ret. My question is, why are they different? (of course in the assumption that what I’ve done are all right). Else, what have I done wrong? Is my understanding of the program’s runtime stack wrong? Please, help me understand this. My project is due nextweek and I’ve barely touched it yet. I’m sorry if I’m being demanding, I badly need your help.

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singleton pattern in Windows Activation Service

- by Joshua

Hello I have a few WCF services that are currently being self hosted, in a very basic NT Service. I want to expand my application to add provisioning of WCF Services, and updates, as well as isolation (I want each WCF Service to be in its own AppDomain). These WCF Services contain logic that needs to be run on a regular basis, pinging the database, and getting information from external devices so that when a request comes in the data is readily available. I'm thinking about trying out Windows Activation Service, because i really like the provisioning, and isolation that comes with a managed services infrastructure. If I didn't use WAS I would essentially have to write the same code myself. From what I understand though WAS does not really support the model of having a service that is running before someone actually calls a method on the service. the article I read here MSDN Article Link states "That means in essence that out-of-the-box WAS hosting is not something that is really suited for sessionful or singleton services. It is more suitable for stateless per-call services." it does say that "Out of the box" so I'm wondering if anyone has used WAS to host a WCF service that really behaves more like an NT Service (starting and stopping independantly of having a method called upon it). Or any other ideas would be great. I was planning on writting this infrastructure myself, to host WCF services in a custom ServiceHost, and put their execution in a seporate AppDomain, as well as allow for provision of these services after initial installation, along with updates. However, I would MUCH MUCH MUCH rather not own that code if I don't have to. thanks Joshua

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Error executing child request for handler in plugin

- by user1348351

I'm using nop commerce open source. I wanted to show the recently add products in home page. so what I did is I activated plugin Nop JCarousel in the admin panel. But if I select "Recently view product" as a Data source type it is working fine.But if I select "recently add product" Data source type there is error coming up. it says Server Error in '/' Application. Method not found: 'Nop.Core.IPagedList`1<Nop.Core.Domain.Catalog.Product> Nop.Services.Catalog.IProductService.SearchProducts(Int32, Int32, System.Nullable`1<Boolean>, System.Nullable`1<System.Decimal>, System.Nullable`1<System.Decimal>, Int32, System.String, Boolean, Int32, System.Collections.Generic.IList`1<Int32>, Nop.Core.Domain.Catalog.ProductSortingEnum, Int32, Int32, Boolean, System.Collections.Generic.IList`1<Int32> ByRef, Boolean)'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.MissingMethodException: Method not found: 'Nop.Core.IPagedList`1<Nop.Core.Domain.Catalog.Product> Nop.Services.Catalog.IProductService.SearchProducts(Int32, Int32, System.Nullable`1<Boolean>, System.Nullable`1<System.Decimal>, System.Nullable`1<System.Decimal>, Int32, System.String, Boolean, Int32, System.Collections.Generic.IList`1<Int32>, Nop.Core.Domain.Catalog.ProductSortingEnum, Int32, Int32, Boolean, System.Collections.Generic.IList`1<Int32> ByRef, Boolean)'. Source Error: Line 3: @foreach (var widget in Model) Line 4: { Line 5: @Html.Action(widget.ActionName, widget.ControllerName, widget.RouteValues) Line 6: } Any idea on how to solve this?

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Locking a table for getting MAX in LINQ

- by Hossein Margani

Hi Every one! I have a query in LINQ, I want to get MAX of Code of my table and increase it and insert new record with new Code. just like the IDENTITY feature of SQL Server, but here my Code column is char(5) where can be alphabets and numeric. My problem is when inserting a new row, two concurrent processes get max and insert an equal Code to the record. my command is: var maxCode = db.Customers.Select(c=>c.Code).Max(); var anotherCustomer = db.Customers.Where(...).SingleOrDefault(); anotherCustomer.Code = GenerateNextCode(maxCode); db.SubmitChanges(); I ran this command cross 1000 threads and each updating 200 customers, and used a Transaction with IsolationLevel.Serializable, after two or three execution an error occured: using (var db = new DBModelDataContext()) { DbTransaction tran = null; try { db.Connection.Open(); tran = db.Connection.BeginTransaction(IsolationLevel.Serializable); db.Transaction = tran; . . . . tran.Commit(); } catch { tran.Rollback(); } finally { db.Connection.Close(); } } error: Transaction (Process ID 60) was deadlocked on lock resources with another process and has been chosen as the deadlock victim. Rerun the transaction. other IsolationLevels generates this error: Row not found or changed. Please help me, thank you.

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H.264 / FLV best practices for HTML

- by Steve Murch

I run a website with about 700 videos (And no, it's not porn -- get your mind out of the gutter :-) ). The videos are currently in FLV format. We use the JWPlayer to render those videos. IIS6 hosted. Everything works just fine. As I understand it, H.264 (not FLV and likely not OGG) is the emerging preferred HTML5 video standard. Today, the iPad really only respects H.264 or YouTube. Presumably, soon many more important browsers will follow Apple's lead and respect only the HTML5 tag. OK, so I think I can figure out how to convert my existing videos into the proper H.264 format. There are various tools available, including ffmpeg.exe. I haven't tried it yet, but I don't think that's going to be a problem after fiddling with the codec settings. My question is more about the container itself -- that is, planning graceful transition for all users. What's the best-practice recommendation for rendering these videos? If I just use the HTML5 tag, then presumably any browser that doesn't yet support HTML5 won't see the videos. And if I render them in Flash format via the JWPlayer or some other player, then they won't be playable on the iPad. Do I have to do ugly UserAgent detection here to figure out what to render? I know the JWPlayer supports H.264 media, but isn't the player itself a Flash component and therefore not playable on the iPad? Sorry if I'm not being clear, but I'm scratching my head on a graceful transition plan that will work for current browsers, the iPad and the upcoming HTML5 wave. I'm not a video expert, so any advice would be most welcome, thanks.

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Using a CALayer in UITableViewCell

- by Brian

On each cell of my table view I want to have a bar that the user can slide out from the right. On the bar I plan to have icons. So, to do this I subclassed UITableViewCell. On the cell I have implemented drawRect and in there I have already drawn a gradient and background color on the cell. From there, I can create a CALayer, give it a frame & background color, and add it as a sub layer to the Views subLayers array. I can do all that and it will display my layer on each UITableViewCell. I have added touch events to the cell so I can detect when the user touches the cell and for testing I have made it so when the user swipes, my CALayer gets wider. But the issue is, when the UITableView scrolls and reuses a cell whose CALayer has been widened, it doesn't recreate the CALayer. I have tried [myLayer setNeedsDisplay] and used the drawLayer:inContext method of its delegate and it doesn't get called. I have also tried telling call setNeedsDisplay on the cell in my UITableViewController hoping that that will cause a redraw, but it doesn't work. I'm not sure what I'm missing. I am new to CoreGraphics & CoreAnimation. I have read through the CoreAnimation Developers Guide, but I'm assuming I missing something. Any help would be great.

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