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  • Add icon on spark button skin

    - by Jerry
    Hello all I am trying to add different icon on different buttons. I have my skin file ready but not sure if I have to create different skin class for different button. It sounds inefficient. Any suggestions? Thanks for the reply... <s:Button id="pass" width="110" height="35" fontWeight="bold" fontSize="12" fontFamily="arial" label="Past Track" data="@Embed('assets/IconAirplain.png')" click="pass_clickHandler(event)" skinClass="skins.CustomSkin"/> <s:Button id="future" width="110" height="20" fontWeight="bold" fontSize="12" fontFamily="arial" label="Future Plan" click="future_clickHandler(event)" skinClass="skins.CustomSkin"/> Skin..... <!-- layer 2: fill --> <!--- @private --> <s:Rect id="fill" left="1" right="1" top="1" bottom="1" radiusX="2"> <s:fill> <s:LinearGradient rotation="90"> <s:GradientEntry color="#304fd7" color.over="#4b6bf6" color.down="0xAAAAAA" alpha="0.85" /> <s:GradientEntry color="#1f38a3" color.over="#3653cf" color.down="0x929496" alpha="0.85" /> </s:LinearGradient> </s:fill> </s:Rect> <!-- icon --> // I could add my icon here but that would make me to create //different icon image for different button

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  • How do you handle key down events on Android? I am having issues making it work.

    - by user279112
    For an Android program, I am having trouble handling key down and key up events, and the problem I am having with them can almost certainly be generalized to any sort of user input event. I am using Lunar Lander as one of my main learning devices as I make my first meaningful program, and I noticed that it was using onKeyDown as an overridden method to receive key down events, and it would call one of their more original methods doKeyDown. But when I tried to implement a very small version of my own onKeyDown overide and the actual handler that it calls, it didn't work. I would probably copy and paste my implementations of those two methods, but that doesn't seem to be the problem. You see, I ran the debugger and noticed that they were not getting called - at all. The same goes for my implementations of onKeyUp and the handler that it calls. Something is a little weird here, and when I tried to look at the Android documentation for it, that didn't help at all. I thought that if you had an overide for onKeyDown, then when a key was pressed during execution of the program, onKeyDown would be called as soon as reasonably possible. End of story. But apparently there's something more to it. Apparently you have to do something else somewhere - possibly in the XML when defining the layout or something - to make it work. But I do not know what, and I could not find what in their documentation. What's the secret to this? Thanks!

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  • Will fixed-point arithmetic be worth my trouble?

    - by Thomas
    I'm working on a fluid dynamics Navier-Stokes solver that should run in real time. Hence, performance is important. Right now, I'm looking at a number of tight loops that each account for a significant fraction of the execution time: there is no single bottleneck. Most of these loops do some floating-point arithmetic, but there's a lot of branching in between. The floating-point operations are mostly limited to additions, subtractions, multiplications, divisions and comparisons. All this is done using 32-bit floats. My target platform is x86 with at least SSE1 instructions. (I've verified in the assembler output that the compiler indeed generates SSE instructions.) Most of the floating-point values that I'm working with have a reasonably small upper bound, and precision for near-zero values isn't very important. So the thought occurred to me: maybe switching to fixed-point arithmetic could speed things up? I know the only way to be really sure is to measure it, that might take days, so I'd like to know the odds of success beforehand. Fixed-point was all the rage back in the days of Doom, but I'm not sure where it stands anno 2010. Considering how much silicon is nowadays pumped into floating-point performance, is there a chance that fixed-point arithmetic will still give me a significant speed boost? Does anyone have any real-world experience that may apply to my situation?

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  • Intercepting method with Spring AOP using only annotations

    - by fish
    In my Spring context file I have something like this: <bean id="userCheck" class="a.b.c.UserExistsCheck"/> <aop:config> <aop:aspect ref="userCheck"> <aop:pointcut id="checkUser" expression="execution(* a.b.c.d.*.*(..)) &amp;&amp; args(a.b.c.d.RequestObject)"/> <aop:around pointcut-ref="checkUser" method="checkUser"/> </aop:aspect> </aop:config> a.b.c.UserExistsCheck looks like this: @Aspect public class UserExistsCheck { @Autowired private UserInformation userInformation; public Object checkUser(ProceedingJoinPoint pjp) throws Throwable { int userId = ... //get it from the RequestObject passed as a parameter if (userExists(userId)) { return pjp.proceed(); } else { return new ResponseObject("Invalid user); } } And the class that is being intercepted with this stuff looks like this: public class Klazz { public ResponseObject doSomething(RequestObject request) {...} } This works. UserExistCheck is executed as desired before the call is passed to Klazz. The problem is that this is the only way I got it working. To get this working by using annotations instead of the context file seems to be just too much for my small brain. So... how exactly should I annotate the methods in UserExistsCheck and Klazz? And do I still need something else too? Another class? Still something in the context file?

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  • GAE Task Queue oddness

    - by b3nw
    I have been testing the taskqueue with mixed success. Currently I am using the default queue, in default settings ect ect.... I have a test url setup which inserts about 8 tasks into the queue. With short order, all 8 are completed properly. So far so good. The problem comes up when I re-load that url twice under say a minute. Now watching the task queue, all the tasks are added properly, but only the first batch execute it seems. But the "Run in Last Minute" # shows the right number of tasks being run.... The request logs tell a different story. They show only the first set of 8 running, but all task creation urls working successfully. The oddness of this is that if I wait say a minute between the task creation url requests, it will work fine. Oddly enough changing the bucket_size or execution speed does not seem to help. Only the first batch are executed. I have also reduced the number of requests all the way down to 2, and still found only the first 2 execute. Any others added display the same issues as above. Any suggestions? Thanks

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  • Create 2 connection pools using c3p0 in Jetty

    - by Mike
    Hello, I'm trying to set up a maven web project that runs Jetty. In this project, I need 2 JNDIs... my plan is to configure 2 connection pools using c3p0 in Jetty. So, I created WEB-INF/jetty-env.xml, and I have the following:- <Configure class="org.mortbay.jetty.webapp.WebAppContext"> <New id="ds1" class="org.mortbay.jetty.plus.naming.Resource"> <Arg>jdbc/ds1</Arg> <Arg> <New class="com.mchange.v2.c3p0.ComboPooledDataSource"> // ... JTDS to SQL Server - omitted for brevity </New> </Arg> </New> <New id="ds2" class="org.mortbay.jetty.plus.naming.Resource"> <Arg>jdbc/ds2</Arg> <Arg> <New class="com.mchange.v2.c3p0.ComboPooledDataSource"> // ... JTDS to Sybase - omitted for brevity </New> </Arg> </New> </Configure> When I run jetty, I get this exception:- May 14, 2010 1:16:56 PM com.mchange.v2.c3p0.impl.AbstractPoolBackedDataSource getPoolManager INFO: Initializing c3p0 pool... com.mchange.v2.c3p0.ComboPooledDataSource [ acquireIncrement -> ... ... ... Exception in thread "com.mchange.v2.async.ThreadPoolAsynchronousRunner$PoolThread-#0" java.lang.LinkageError: net.sourceforge.jtds.jdbc.DefaultProperties at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClassImpl(Native Method) at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass(ClassLoader.java:258) It seems to me that I can't create 2 connection pools using c3p0. If I remove either one of the connection pool, it worked. What am I doing wrong? How do I create 2 connection pools in Jetty? Thanks much.

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  • How to debug browser crash when running Silverlight app

    - by onedozenbagels
    I am on a team of three people who are developing a Silverlight application. On two of our developers' machines the app seems to randomly crash. It never crashes on the third developer's machine. The nature of the crash is that internet explorer just dies with an "Internet Explorer has stopped working" message. The problem details look like this: Problem Event Name: BEX Application Name: IEXPLORE.EXE Application Version: 8.0.6001.18882 Application Timestamp: 4b3ed243 Fault Module Name: StackHash_2cd8 Fault Module Version: 0.0.0.0 Fault Module Timestamp: 00000000 Exception Offset: 0024df00 Exception Code: c0000005 Exception Data: 00000008 OS Version: 6.0.6002.2.2.0.256.6 Locale ID: 1033 Additional Information 1: 2cd8 Additional Information 2: 0c337fa6c2057a9dbce1860c5e2d8315 Additional Information 3: e13b Additional Information 4: 5da012709e52526a1af19795dc4a33fd Then windows displays this message: "To help protect your computer, Data Execution Prevention has closed Internet Explorer." If I am attached to the app with the Visual Studio debugger the only information I get is this line in the output window: "The program '[2140] iexplore.exe: Silverlight' has exited with code -1073741819 (0xc0000005)." How should I go about debugging this problem? I'm not really sure where to start.

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  • How are you taking advantage of Multicore?

    - by tgamblin
    As someone in the world of HPC who came from the world of enterprise web development, I'm always curious to see how developers back in the "real world" are taking advantage of parallel computing. This is much more relevant now that all chips are going multicore, and it'll be even more relevant when there are thousands of cores on a chip instead of just a few. My questions are: How does this affect your software roadmap? I'm particularly interested in real stories about how multicore is affecting different software domains, so specify what kind of development you do in your answer (e.g. server side, client-side apps, scientific computing, etc). What are you doing with your existing code to take advantage of multicore machines, and what challenges have you faced? Are you using OpenMP, Erlang, Haskell, CUDA, TBB, UPC or something else? What do you plan to do as concurrency levels continue to increase, and how will you deal with hundreds or thousands of cores? If your domain doesn't easily benefit from parallel computation, then explaining why is interesting, too. Finally, I've framed this as a multicore question, but feel free to talk about other types of parallel computing. If you're porting part of your app to use MapReduce, or if MPI on large clusters is the paradigm for you, then definitely mention that, too. Update: If you do answer #5, mention whether you think things will change if there get to be more cores (100, 1000, etc) than you can feed with available memory bandwidth (seeing as how bandwidth is getting smaller and smaller per core). Can you still use the remaining cores for your application?

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  • Time to start returning IQueryable<T> instead of IList<T> to my Web UI / Web API Layer?

    - by JohnnyO
    I've got a multi-layer application that starts with the repository pattern for all data access and it returns IQueryable to the Services layer. The Services layer, which includes all of the business logic, returns IList to the Controllers (note: I'm using ASP.NET MVC for the UI layer). The benefit of returning IQueryable in the data access layer is that it allows my repositories to be extremely simple and the database queries to be deferred. However, I'm triggering the database queries in my services layer so that my unit tests is more reliable and I don't give flexibility to the Controllers to reshape my queries. However, I've recently encountered several situations where deferring the execution of queries down to the Controllers would have been significantly more performant because the Controllers had to do some projections on the data that was UI specific. Additionally, with the emergence of things like oData, I was starting to wonder if end points (e.g. web UI or web apis) should be working directly with IQueryable. What are your thoughts? Is it time to start returning IQueryable from the services layer to the UI layer? Or stick with IList? This thread here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/718624/to-return-iqueryablet-or-not-return-iqueryablet seems to vouch for returning IList to the UI layers, but I was wondering if things are changing because of new emerging technologies and techniques.

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  • Vote on Pros and Cons of Java HTML to XML cleaners

    - by George Bailey
    I am looking to allow HTML emails (and other HTML uploads) without letting in scripts and stuff. I plan to have a white list of safe tags and attributes as well as a whitelist of CSS tags and value regexes (to prevent automatic return receipt). I asked a question: Parse a badly formatted XML document (like an HTML file) I found there are many many ways to do this. Some systems have built in sanitizers (which I don't care so much about). This page is a very nice listing page but I get kinda lost http://java-source.net/open-source/html-parsers It is very important that the parsers never throw an exception. There should always be best guess results to the parse/clean. It is also very important that the result is valid XML that can be traversed in Java. I posted some product information and said Community Wiki. Please post any other product suggestions you like and say Community Wiki so they can be voted on. Also any comments or wiki edits on what part of a certain product is better and what is not would be greatly appreciated. (for example,, speed vs accuracy..) It seems that we will go with either jsoup (seems more active and up to date) or TagSoup (compatible with JDK4 and been around awhile). A +1 for any of these products would be if they could convert all style sheets into inline style on the elements.

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  • How to create an SaaS Application?

    - by Andrew
    I don't know how else to say it so I'm just going to explain my ideal scenario and hopefully you can explain to me how to implement it... I'm creating an application with the Zend Framework that will be hosted with DreamHost. The application will be hosted on its own domain (i.e. example-app.com). Basically, a user should be able to sign up, get their own domain sampleuser.example-app.com or example-app.com/sampleuser which points to, what looks like their own instance of the app, which is really a single instance serving up different content based on the url. Eventually, I want my users to be able to create their own domain (like foobar.com) that points to sampleuser.example-app.com, such that visitors to foobar.com don't notice that the site is really being served up from example-app.com. I don't know how to do most of that stuff. How does this process work? Do I need to do some funky stuff with Apache or can this be done with a third party host, like DreamHost? Update: Thanks for the advice! I've decided to bite the bullet and upgrade my hosting plan to utilize wildcard subdomains. It's cheaper than I was expecting! I also found out about domain reseller programs, like opensrs.com, that have their own API. I think using one of these APIs will be the solution to my domain registration issue.

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  • Android: How to get a custom view to redraw partially?

    - by Peterdk
    I have a custom view that fills my entire screen. (A piano keyboard) When a user touches the key, it would cause a invalidate() to be called and the whole keyboard gets redrawn to show the new state with a touched key. Currently the view is very simple, but I plan to add a bit more nice graphics. Since the whole keyboard is dynamically rendered this would make redrawing the entire keyboard more expensive. So I thought, let's look into partial redrawing. Now I call invalidate(Rect dirty) with the correct dirty region. I set my onDraw(Canvas canvas) method to only draw the keys in the dirty region if I do indeed want a partial redraw. This results in those keys being drawn, but the rest of the keyboard is totally black/not drawn at all. Am I wrong in expecting that calling invalidate(Rect dirty) would "cache" the current canvas, and only "allows" drawing in the dirty region? Is there any way I can achieve what I want? (A way to "cache" the canvas and only redraw the dirty area?"

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  • Graph colouring algorithm: typical scheduling problem

    - by newba
    Hi, I'm training code problems like UvA and I have this one in which I have to, given a set of n exams and k students enrolled in the exams, find whether it is possible to schedule all exams in two time slots. Input Several test cases. Each one starts with a line containing 1 < n < 200 of different examinations to be scheduled. The 2nd line has the number of cases k in which there exist at least 1 student enrolled in 2 examinations. Then, k lines will follow, each containing 2 numbers that specify the pair of examinations for each case above. (An input with n = 0 will means end of the input and is not to be processed). Output: You have to decide whether the examination plan is possible or not for 2 time slots. Example: Input: 3 3 0 1 1 2 2 0 9 8 0 1 0 2 0 3 0 4 0 5 0 6 0 7 0 8 0 Ouput: NOT POSSIBLE. POSSIBLE. I think the general approach is graph colouring, but I'm really a newb and I may confess that I had some trouble understanding the problem. Anyway, I'm trying to do it and then submit it. Could someone please help me doing some code for this problem? I will have to handle and understand this algo now in order to use it later, over and over. I prefer C or C++, but if you want, Java is fine to me ;) Thanks in advance

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  • ASP.NET Membership

    - by Gary McGill
    I'd like to use the ASP.NET membership provider in the following (low-security) scenario... My company will create and administer user accounts on behalf of our clients. These accounts will likely be shared amongst several people in the client company (is that a problem?). There will be 2 types of users (2 roles): client and administrator. Administrators are the people within my company that will have special privileges to create client user accounts, etc. Clients will not be able to self-register. They also won't get to choose their own password, and they should not be able to change their password either, since that will just create confusion where several people are sharing the same account. My internal users (admins) will set the password for each client. Here's the bit I'm struggling with: if a client phones up and asks to be reminded of their password, how can my admin users find out what the password is? Can I configure the provider to store the password in clear text (or other recoverable form), and if so can I get at the password through the .NET API? As I said at the outset, this is a low-security application, and so I plan simply to show the password in the (internal) web page where I have a list of all users.

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  • Violating 1st normal form, is it okay for my purpose?

    - by Nick
    So I'm making a running log, and I have the workouts stored as entries in a table. For each workout, the user can add intervals (which consist of a time and a distance), so I have an array like this: [workout] => [description] => [comments] => ... [intervals] => [0] => [distance] => 200m [time] => 32 [1] => [distance] => 400m [time] => 65 ... I'm really tempted to throw the "intervals" array into serialize() or json_encode() and put it in an "intervals" field in my table, however this violates the principles of good database design (which, incidentally, I know hardly anything about). Is there any disadvantage to doing this? I never plan on querying my table based on the contents of "intervals". Creating a separate table just for intervals seems like a lot of unnecessary complexity, so if anyone with more experience has had a situation like this, what route did you take and how did it work out?

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  • SSIS package not picking up configuration files correctly

    - by blntechie
    We have recently migrated some 30 DTS packages in SQL Server 2000 to SSIS packages in SQL Server 2008. We have created packages in such a way that all environment related variables and other required information are picked from configuration files for maintenance of packages across different environments like Dev, QA and Prod. After setting up all the packages with the config files, when we tested the packages from Business Intelligence Development Studio, it worked fine and picked up the values from the configuration file. And when changing the values in config files to Dev or other env it correctly picked up the values and executed. Similarly, tried for 2 different environments and the packages worked fine. So we deployed to Prod and it was working fine. Yesterday, I had to make a functional change for one package and so I made the change in the package (it is just changing a parameter in a SQL procedure execution task and not related to any variables) and tested in BIDS with 2 environments and it worked fine. As the change was not related to any environment change, we deployed only the updated package (not the associated config file) manually in Prod (i.e without the use of manifest). The config file which was used by the package previously and working fine in Prod remained unaltered. But when the package was executed, the package was pointing to QA and the package didn't read from the config file I believe. One reason may be, it is still using the last executed values which remains in the .dtsx file(can be checked by opening the file in a text editor) usually. But normally, when a package is executed, the values will be overwritten from config file. Guess it is not happening. What are the possible reasons for this? We have tested extensively switching between test environments and it does not show this behavior. We have encountered this in Prod environment twice now. Anyone else have experienced this and how have you resolved this?

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  • Using a CALayer in UITableViewCell

    - by Brian
    On each cell of my table view I want to have a bar that the user can slide out from the right. On the bar I plan to have icons. So, to do this I subclassed UITableViewCell. On the cell I have implemented drawRect and in there I have already drawn a gradient and background color on the cell. From there, I can create a CALayer, give it a frame & background color, and add it as a sub layer to the Views subLayers array. I can do all that and it will display my layer on each UITableViewCell. I have added touch events to the cell so I can detect when the user touches the cell and for testing I have made it so when the user swipes, my CALayer gets wider. But the issue is, when the UITableView scrolls and reuses a cell whose CALayer has been widened, it doesn't recreate the CALayer. I have tried [myLayer setNeedsDisplay] and used the drawLayer:inContext method of its delegate and it doesn't get called. I have also tried telling call setNeedsDisplay on the cell in my UITableViewController hoping that that will cause a redraw, but it doesn't work. I'm not sure what I'm missing. I am new to CoreGraphics & CoreAnimation. I have read through the CoreAnimation Developers Guide, but I'm assuming I missing something. Any help would be great.

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  • H.264 / FLV best practices for HTML

    - by Steve Murch
    I run a website with about 700 videos (And no, it's not porn -- get your mind out of the gutter :-) ). The videos are currently in FLV format. We use the JWPlayer to render those videos. IIS6 hosted. Everything works just fine. As I understand it, H.264 (not FLV and likely not OGG) is the emerging preferred HTML5 video standard. Today, the iPad really only respects H.264 or YouTube. Presumably, soon many more important browsers will follow Apple's lead and respect only the HTML5 tag. OK, so I think I can figure out how to convert my existing videos into the proper H.264 format. There are various tools available, including ffmpeg.exe. I haven't tried it yet, but I don't think that's going to be a problem after fiddling with the codec settings. My question is more about the container itself -- that is, planning graceful transition for all users. What's the best-practice recommendation for rendering these videos? If I just use the HTML5 tag, then presumably any browser that doesn't yet support HTML5 won't see the videos. And if I render them in Flash format via the JWPlayer or some other player, then they won't be playable on the iPad. Do I have to do ugly UserAgent detection here to figure out what to render? I know the JWPlayer supports H.264 media, but isn't the player itself a Flash component and therefore not playable on the iPad? Sorry if I'm not being clear, but I'm scratching my head on a graceful transition plan that will work for current browsers, the iPad and the upcoming HTML5 wave. I'm not a video expert, so any advice would be most welcome, thanks.

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  • Episerver Scheduled Job fails (scheduler service)

    - by Igor
    Our scheduled jobs started failing since yesterday with the following error message: CustomUpdate.Execute - System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at System.Web.Security.Roles.GetRolesForUser(String username) at EPiServer.Security.PrincipalInfo.CreatePrincipal(String username) The scheduled job uses anonymous execution and logs in programmatically using the following call: if (PrincipalInfo.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name == string.Empty) { PrincipalInfo.CurrentPrincipal = PrincipalInfo.CreatePrincipal(ApplicationSettings.ScheduledJobUsername); } I have put in some more logging around PrincipalInfo.CreatePrincipal call which is in Episerver.Security and noticed that PrincipalInfo.CreatePrincipal calls System.Web.Security.Roles.GetRolesForUser(username) and Roles.GetRolesForUser(username) returns an empty string array. There were no changes code wise or on the server (updates, etc). I checked that the user name used to run the task is in the database and has roles associated with it. I checked that applicationname is set up correctly and is associated with the user If i run the job manually using the same user it executes with no issues (i know there is a difference between running the job manually and using the scheduler) I also tried creating a new user, that didn’t work either. Has anyone come across the same or similar issue? Any thoughts how to resolve this issue?

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  • Keyword to SQL search

    - by jdelator
    Use Case When a user goes to my website, they will be confronted with a search box much like SO. They can search for results using plan text. ".net questions", "closed questions", ".net and java", etc.. The search will function a bit different that SO, in that it will try to as much as possible of the schema of the database rather than a straight fulltext search. So ".net questions" will only search for .net questions as opposed to .net answers (probably not applicable to SO case, just an example here), "closed questions" will return questions that are closed, ".net and java" questions will return questions that relate to .net and java and nothing else. Problem I'm not too familiar with the words but I basically want to do a keyword to SQL driven search. I know the schema of the database and I also can datamine the database. I want to know any current approaches there that existing out already before I try to implement this. I guess this question is for what is a good design for the stated problem. Proposed My proposed solution so far looks something like this Clean the input. Just remove any special characters Parse the input into chunks of data. Break an input of "c# java" into c# and java Also handle the special cases like "'c# java' questions" into 'c# java' and "questions". Build a tree out of the input Bind the data into metadata. So convert stuff like closed questions and relate it to the isclosed column of a table. Convert the tree into a sql query. Thoughts/suggestions/links?

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  • function's return address is different from its supposed value, buffer overflow,

    - by ultrajohn
    Good day everyone! I’m trying to understand how buffer overflow works. I’m doing this for my project in a computer security course I’m taking. Right now, I’m in the process of determining the address of the function’s return address which I’m supposed to change to perform a buffer overflow attack. I’ve written a simple program based from an example I’ve read in the internet. What this program does is it creates an integer pointer that will be made to point to the address of the function return address in the stack. To do this, (granted I understand how a function/program variables get organized in the stack), I add 8 to the buffer variable’ address and set it as the value of ret. I’m not doing anything here that would change the address contained in the location of func’s return address. here's the program: Output of the program when gets excecuted: As you can see, I’m printing the address of the variables buffer and ret. I’ve added an additional statement printing the value of the ret variable (supposed location of func return address, so this should print the address of the next instruction which will get executed after func returns from execution). Here is the dump which shows the supposed address of the instruction to be executed after func returns. (Underlined in green) As you can see, that value is way different from the value printed contained in the variable ret. My question is, why are they different? (of course in the assumption that what I’ve done are all right). Else, what have I done wrong? Is my understanding of the program’s runtime stack wrong? Please, help me understand this. My project is due nextweek and I’ve barely touched it yet. I’m sorry if I’m being demanding, I badly need your help.

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  • Some general C questions.

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hello. I am trying to fully understand the process pro writing code in some language to execution by OS. In my case, the language would be C and the OS would be Windows. So far, I read many different articles, but I am not sure, whether I understand the process right, and I would like to ask you if you know some good articles on some subjects I couldn´t find. So, what I think I know about C (and basically other languages): C compiler itself handles only data types, basic math operations, pointers operations, and work with functions. By work with functions I mean how to pass argument to it, and how to get output from function. During compilation, function call is replaced by passing arguments to stack, and than if function is not inline, its call is replaced by some symbol for linker. Linker than find the function definition, and replace the symbol to jump adress to that function (and of course than jump back to program). If the above is generally true and I get it right, where to final .exe file actually linker saves the functions? After the main() function? And what creates the .exe header? Compiler or Linker? Now, additional capabilities of C, today known as C standart library is set of functions and the declarations of them, that other programmers wrote to extend and simplify use of C language. But these functions like printf() were (or could be?) written in different language, or assembler. And there comes my next question, can be, for example printf() function be written in pure C without use of assembler? I know this is quite big question, but I just mostly want to know, wheather I am right or not. And trust me, I read a lots of articles on the web, and I would not ask you, If I could find these infromation together on one place, in one article. Insted I must piece by piece gather informations, so I am not sure if I am right. Thanks.

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  • Error executing child request for handler in plugin

    - by user1348351
    I'm using nop commerce open source. I wanted to show the recently add products in home page. so what I did is I activated plugin Nop JCarousel in the admin panel. But if I select "Recently view product" as a Data source type it is working fine.But if I select "recently add product" Data source type there is error coming up. it says Server Error in '/' Application. Method not found: 'Nop.Core.IPagedList`1<Nop.Core.Domain.Catalog.Product> Nop.Services.Catalog.IProductService.SearchProducts(Int32, Int32, System.Nullable`1<Boolean>, System.Nullable`1<System.Decimal>, System.Nullable`1<System.Decimal>, Int32, System.String, Boolean, Int32, System.Collections.Generic.IList`1<Int32>, Nop.Core.Domain.Catalog.ProductSortingEnum, Int32, Int32, Boolean, System.Collections.Generic.IList`1<Int32> ByRef, Boolean)'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.MissingMethodException: Method not found: 'Nop.Core.IPagedList`1<Nop.Core.Domain.Catalog.Product> Nop.Services.Catalog.IProductService.SearchProducts(Int32, Int32, System.Nullable`1<Boolean>, System.Nullable`1<System.Decimal>, System.Nullable`1<System.Decimal>, Int32, System.String, Boolean, Int32, System.Collections.Generic.IList`1<Int32>, Nop.Core.Domain.Catalog.ProductSortingEnum, Int32, Int32, Boolean, System.Collections.Generic.IList`1<Int32> ByRef, Boolean)'. Source Error: Line 3: @foreach (var widget in Model) Line 4: { Line 5: @Html.Action(widget.ActionName, widget.ControllerName, widget.RouteValues) Line 6: } Any idea on how to solve this?

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  • LINQ to SQL - Tracking New / Dirty Objects

    - by Joseph Sturtevant
    Is there a way to determine if a LINQ object has not yet been inserted in the database (new) or has been changed since the last update (dirty)? I plan on binding my UI to LINQ objects (using WPF) and need it to behave differently depending whether or not the object is already in the database. MyDataContext context = new MyDataContext(); MyObject obj; if (new Random().NextDouble() > .5) obj = new MyObject(); else obj = context.MyObjects.First(); // How can I distinguish these two cases? The only simple solution I can think of is to set the primary key of new records to a negative value (my PKs are an identity field and will therefore be set to a positive integer on INSERT). This will only work for detecting new records. It also requires identity PKs, and requires control of the code creating the new object. Is there a better way to do this? It seems like LINQ must be internally tracking the status of these objects so that it can know what to do on context.SubmitChanges(). Is there some way to access that "object status"? Clarification Apparently my initial question was confusing. I'm not looking for a way to insert or update records. I'm looking for a way, given any LINQ object, to determine if that object has not been inserted (new) or has been changed since its last update (dirty).

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  • EF 4.0 : Save Changes Retry Logic

    - by BGR
    Hi, I would like to implement an application wide retry system for all entity SaveChanges method calls. Technologies: Entity framework 4.0 .Net 4.0 namespace Sample.Data.Store.Entities { public partial class StoreDB { public override int SaveChanges(System.Data.Objects.SaveOptions options) { for (Int32 attempt = 1; ; ) { try { return base.SaveChanges(options); } catch (SqlException sqlException) { // Increment Trys attempt++; // Find Maximum Trys Int32 maxRetryCount = 5; // Throw Error if we have reach the maximum number of retries if (attempt == maxRetryCount) throw; // Determine if we should retry or abort. if (!RetryLitmus(sqlException)) throw; else Thread.Sleep(ConnectionRetryWaitSeconds(attempt)); } } } static Int32 ConnectionRetryWaitSeconds(Int32 attempt) { Int32 connectionRetryWaitSeconds = 2000; // Backoff Throttling connectionRetryWaitSeconds = connectionRetryWaitSeconds * (Int32)Math.Pow(2, attempt); return (connectionRetryWaitSeconds); } /// <summary> /// Determine from the exception if the execution /// of the connection should Be attempted again /// </summary> /// <param name="exception">Generic Exception</param> /// <returns>True if a a retry is needed, false if not</returns> static Boolean RetryLitmus(SqlException sqlException) { switch (sqlException.Number) { // The service has encountered an error // processing your request. Please try again. // Error code %d. case 40197: // The service is currently busy. Retry // the request after 10 seconds. Code: %d. case 40501: //A transport-level error has occurred when // receiving results from the server. (provider: // TCP Provider, error: 0 - An established connection // was aborted by the software in your host machine.) case 10053: return (true); } return (false); } } } The problem: How can I run the StoreDB.SaveChanges to retry on a new DB context after an error occured? Something simular to Detach/Attach might come in handy. Thanks in advance! Bart

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