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  • Why is my Map broken?

    - by Kirk
    Scenario: Creating a server which has Room objects which contain User objects. I want to store the rooms in a Map of some sort by Id (a string). Desired Behavior: When a user makes a request via the server, I should be able to look up the Room by id from the library and then add the user to the room, if that's what the request needs. Currently I use the static function in my Library.java class where the Map is stored to retrieve Rooms: public class Library { private static Hashtable<String, Rooms> myRooms = new Hashtable<String, Rooms>(); public static addRoom(String s, Room r) { myRooms.put(s, r); } public static Room getRoomById(String s) { return myRooms.get(s); } } In another class I'll do the equivalent of myRoom.addUser(user); What I'm observing using Hashtable, is that no matter how many times I add a user to the Room returned by getRoomById, the user is not in the room later. I thought that in Java, the object that was returned was essentially a reference to the data, the same object that was in the Hashtable with the same references; but, it isn't behaving like that. Is there a way to get this behavior? Maybe with a wrapper of some sort? Am I just using the wrong variant of map? Help?

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  • Updating Multiple Drop-Down Lists in AjaxTags

    - by Berin
    I'm using AjaxTags as a defined set of JSP tags to facilitate AJAX programming, saving me from some heavy lifting. The project is in trial mode, so I may not adopt the technology and write my own solution. Here's what I'm running into (code abbreviated) I have a drop-down list that defines an item that populates numerous other drop-down lists. <form> ... <select id="item1" name="item1"> <c:forEach items="${list1}" var="item"> <option value="${item}">${item}</option> </c:forEach> </select> <select id="item2" name="items2"></select> <select id="item3" name="items3"></select> ... </form> <ajax:select source="item1" target="item2" baseUrl="${pageContext.request.contextPath}/doAction.view" parameters="action1 = {item}" /> <ajax:select source="item1" target="item3" baseUrl="${pageContext.request.contextPath}/doAction.view" parameters="action2 = {item}" /> The code above works with my back-end, initiating a call to a servlet class that is listening for calls, parses the parameter and takes action based upon the name of the parameter passed. The problem comes from adding the second ajax:select tag above. An action in drop-down "item 1" only causes "item 3" to be populated with new values. What I want is for an action in "item 1" to populate "item 2" and "item 3" (and 4, 5, 6...). Has anyone else used AjaxTags (ajaxtags.sourceforge.net) and solved a similar solution? Environment Details: Tomcat 5.5.27, Spring 2.0.8, Struts 1.2.9, Java 6

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  • Calling ASP.NET Web API using JQuery ajax - cross site scripting issue

    - by SimonF
    I have a Web API which I am calling using the JQuery ajax function. When I test the service directly (using the Chrome RESTEasy extension) it works fine, however when I call it using the JQuery ajax function I get an error. I'm calling it on port 81: $.ajax({ url: "http://127.0.0.1:81/api/people", data: JSON.stringify(personToCreate), type: "POST", contentType: "application/json;charset=utf-8", statusCode: { 201: function (newPerson) { callback(newPerson); } }, success: function (newPerson) { alert("New person created with an Id of " + newPerson.Id); }, error: function (jqXHR, textStatus, errorThrown) { alert('Error. '+textStatus+'. '+errorThrown); } }); ...but when I trace it using FireBug Lite the response comes from port 82: {"Message":"No HTTP resource was found that matches the request URI 'http://127.0.0.1:82/api/people'.","MessageDetail":"No action was found on the controller 'People' that matches the request."} I think the error is, effectively, due to cross-site scripting being blocked, but I'm not actually cross-site scripting, if you see what I mean. Has anyone else come across this and been able to fix it? Edit: Routing config (global.asax.vb) is: RouteTable.Routes.MapHttpRoute(name:="DefaultApi", routeTemplate:="api/{controller}/{id}", defaults:=New With {Key .id = System.Web.Http.RouteParameter.Optional}) Controller: Public Function PostValue(ByVal departmentid As Integer, ByVal emailaddress As String, ByVal firstname As String, ByVal lastname As String) As Guid Dim context As New WSMModelDataContext Dim bllPeople As New PeopleBLL(context) Return bllPeople.Create(firstname, lastname, emailaddress, departmentid) End Function When I debug it, it doesn't get as far as running the controller, although when calling it through RESTEasy it routes correctly and the controller executes successfully. The only difference seemes to be that wen called through RESTEasy it is (correctly) using http://127.0.0.1:81 but for some reason when called via JQuery/ajax it seems to be using http://127.0.0.1:82.

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  • Using libcurl & SSL

    - by Haraldo
    Hi there. I've found there is really very little information around on this topic. I already have a dll making successful posts using libcurl. I've compiled libcurl with openssl for ssl functionality. Here is an exert of my original curl setup. curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_ERRORBUFFER, errorBuffer); //curl_easy_setopt(curl, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER , 1); //curl_easy_setopt(curl, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYHOST , 1); //curl_easy_setopt(curl, CURLOPT_CAINFO , "./ca.cert"); curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, cParam); curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDSIZE, strlen(cParam)); curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION, 1); curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_WRITEFUNCTION, Request::writer); curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_WRITEDATA, &buffer); curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_URL, cURL); My question to those who've done this before, is it as easy as just adding those lines above to get SSL to work (as long as the certificate exists)? Or is it more complicated? The funny thing is I'm not completely sure how SSL works. I've never worked with it before. Do I need to store a key in my application and send it with each request? Anyway my main question was the first. Thank you in advance.

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  • SQL Server Blocking Issue

    - by Robin Weston
    We currently have an issue that occurs roughly once a day on SQL 2005 database server, although the time it happens is not consistent. Basically, the database grinds to a halt, and starts refusing connections with the following error message. This includes logging into SSMS: A connection was successfully established with the server, but then an error occurred during the login process. (provider: TCP Provider, error: 0 - The specified network name is no longer available.) Our CPU usage for SQL is usually around 15%, but when the DB is in it's broken state it's around 70%, so it's clearly doing something, even if no-one can connect. Even if I disable the web app that uses the database the CPU still doesn't go down. I am unable to restart the SQLSERVER process as it is unresponsive, so I have to end up killing the process manually, which then puts the DB into Suspect/Recovery mode (which I can fix but it's a pain). Below are some PerfMon stats I gathered when the DB was in it's broken state which might help. I have a bunch more if people want to request them: Active Transactions: 2 (Never Changes) Logical Connections: 34 (NC) Process Blocked: 16 (NC) User Connections: 30 (NC) Batch Request: 0 (NC) Active Jobs: 2 (NC) Log Truncations: 596 (NC) Log Shrinks: 24 (NC) Longest Running Transaction Time: 99 (NC) I guess they key is finding out what the DB is using it's CPU on, but as I can't even log into SSMS this isn't possible with the standard methods. Disturbingly, I can't even use the dedicated admin connection to get into SSMS. I get the same timout as with all other requests. Any advice, reccomendations, or even sympathy, is much appreciated!

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  • Using FBML in a ruby sinatra app

    - by Gearóid
    Hi, I'm building an application in ruby using the sinatra framework and am having trouble with rendering some fbml elements. I'm currently trying to render an fb:multi-friend-selector so the user can select which friends they want to invite. However, when I write the following in my code: <fb:fbml> <fb:request-form action="/inviteFriends" method="POST" invite="true" type="MY APP" content="Invite Friends" > <fb:multi-friend-selector showborder="false" actiontext="Invite your friends to use YOUR APP NAME."> </fb:request-form> </fb:fbml> Nothing renders with the text above. I've included the regular facebook xsds for the taglibs in my html tag and have tested fbml on the page using the following code: <fb:name useyou="false" uid="USER_ID" linked="false"/> This code works correctly and displays the user's name. I've tried a simple example like that on http://wiki.developers.facebook.com/index.php/Fb:random but again nothing is rendered in the browser. Do I need to include some special javascript or anything? I would greatly appreciate some help with this. Thanks in advance -gearoid.

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  • Does mod_php honor HEAD requests properly?

    - by rkulla
    The HTTP/1.1 RFC stipulates "The HEAD method is identical to GET except that the server MUST NOT return a message-body in the response." I know Apache honors the RFC but modules don't have to. My question is, does mod_php5 honor this? The reason I ask is because I just came across an article saying that PHP developers should check this themselves with: if (stripos($_SERVER['REQUEST_METHOD'], 'HEAD') !== FALSE) { exit(); } but seeing as how browsers send HEAD requests for cache checking it seems unlikely to me that no book, docs, etc., advise PHP developers to do this check. I googled a second and not much turned up, other than some people saying they try to strange things like mod_rewrite/redirect after getting HEAD requests and some old bug ticket from like 2002 claiming that mod_php still executed the rest of the script by default. So I just ran a quick test by using PECL::HTTP to run http_head('http://mysite.com/test-head-request.php'); while having: <?php error_log('REST OF SCRIPT STILL RAN'); ?> in test-head-request.php to see if the rest of the script still executed, and it didn't. I figure that should be enough to settle it, but want to get more feedback and maybe help clear up confusion for anyone else who has wondered about this. So if anyone knows off the top of their head (no pun intended) - or have any conventions they use for receiving HEAD requests, that'd be great. Otherwise, I'll grep the C source later and respond in a comment with my findings. Thanks.

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  • Rotate a feature Image in Open Layers - Javascript variable from JSON.

    - by Ozaki
    I have an open layers map. It adds and removes my "imageFeature" every 10secs or so. I have a JSON feed that gives me the rotation that I need, I have a request to get that rotation and set it as a variable of rotationv. Everything works but the fact when the image is recreated it does not update the rotation. My code is as follows: JSON request: var rotationv = (function () { rotationv = null; $.ajax({ 'async': false, 'global': true, 'url': urldefault, 'dataType': "json", 'success': function (data) { rotationv = data.rotation; } }); return rotationv })(); Creating image feature: imageFeature = new OpenLayers.Feature.Vector( new OpenLayers.Geometry.Point(mylon, mylat), { rotation: rotationv } ); The image is set in the styling elsewhere. Why does this not rotate my image? Debugging with firebug I now notice that "rotationv" is updating as per it should be. But when the point is destroyed then added again it does not apply the new rotation... Add: I realised that the "image" is applied as per the layer. So I need to figure out how to re apply the stylemap to the layer so it will trigger the "update" on the page. //redefine layer 2 so it can be updated// //test.js is just a 0.0 testref// var layer2 = new OpenLayers.Layer.GML("Layer 2", "test.js", { format: OpenLayers.Format.GeoJSON, styleMap: styleMap }); But even if I add the above into my function still no luck. Included map.addLayers([layer2]); into the function as well.

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  • Zend: Fetching row from session db table after generating session id

    - by Nux
    Hi, I'm trying to update the session table used by Zend_Session_SaveHandler_DbTable directly after authenticating the user and writing the session to the DB. But I can neither update nor fetch the newly inserted row, even though the session id I use to check (Zend_Session::getId()) is valid and the row is indeed inserted into the table. Upon fetching all session ids (on the same request) the one I newly inserted is missing from the results. It does appear in the results if I fetch it with something else. I've checked whether it is a problem with transactions and that does not seem to be the problem - there is no active transaction when I'm fetching the results. I've also tried fetching a few seconds after writing using sleep(), which doesn't help. $auth->getStorage()->write($ident); //sleep(1) $update = $this->db->update('session', array('uid' => $ident->user_id), 'id='.$this->db->quote(Zend_Session::getId())); $qload = 'SELECT id FROM session'; $load = $this->db->fetchAll($qload); echo $qload; print_r($load); $update fails. $load doesn't contain the row that was written with $auth-getStorage()-write($identity). $qload does contain the correct query - copying it to somewhere else leads to the expected result, that is the inserted row is included in the results. Database used is MySQL - InnoDB. If someone knows how to directly fix this (i.e. on the same request, not doing something like updating after redirecting to another page) without modifying Zend_Session_SaveHandler_DbTable: Thank you very much!

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  • How to do a javascript redirection to a ClickOnce deployment URL?

    - by jerem
    I have a ClickOnce application used to view some documents on a website. When connected, the user sees a list of documents as links to http://server/myapp.application?document=docname. It worked fine until I had to integrate the website authentication/security system into my application. The website uses a ticketing system to grant access to its users. A ticket is generated by a web application and needs to be added to the deployment URL querystring, then I have to check at application startup that the ticket given in querystring was right by making another request to the web application. So the deployment URL becomes something like: h ttp://server/myapp.application?document=docname&ticket=ticketnumber. The problem is the ticket is valid only 10 seconds, so I have to get it only after the user has clicked a link. My first try was to have some javascript do the request to get the ticket, generate the proper deployment URL and then redirect the user to this URL with "window.location = deploymentUrl;". It works fine in Firefox, but IE does not prompt the user for installation. I guess it is a ClickOnce security constraints, but I am able to do the redirection when doing it on localhost, so I hope there is a workaround. I have also added the server on the "trusted sites" list in IE options. Is it possible to have that working in IE? What are my other options to do that?

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  • Scheduling of tasks to a single resource using Prolog

    - by Reed Debaets
    I searched through here as best I could and though I found some relevant questions, I don't think they covered the question at hand: Assume a single resource and a known list of requests to schedule a task. Each request includes a start_after, start_by, expected_duration, and action. The goal is to schedule the tasks for execution as soon as possible while keeping each task scheduled between start_after and start_by. I coded up a simple prolog example that I "thought" should work but I've been unfortunately getting errors during run time: "=/2: Arguments are not sufficiently instantiated". Any help or advice would be greatly appreciated startAfter(1,0). startAfter(2,0). startAfter(3,0). startBy(1,100). startBy(2,500). startBy(3,300). duration(1,199). duration(2,199). duration(3,199). action(1,'noop1'). action(2,'noop2'). action(3,'noop3'). can_run(R,T) :- startAfter(R,TA),startBy(R,TB),T>=TA,T=<TB. conflicts(T,R1,T1) :- duration(R1,D1),T=<D1+T1,T>T1. schedule(R1,T1,R2,T2,R3,T3) :- can_run(R1,T1),\+conflicts(T1,R2,T2),\+conflicts(T1,R3,T3), can_run(R2,T2),\+conflicts(T2,R1,T1),\+conflicts(T2,R3,T3), can_run(R3,T3),\+conflicts(T3,R1,T1),\+conflicts(T3,R2,T2). % when traced I *should* see T1=0, T2=400, T3=200 Edit: conflicts goal wasn't quite right: needed extra TT1 clause. Edit: Apparently my schedule goal works if I supply valid Request,Time pairs ... but I'm stucking trying to force prolog to find valid values for T1..3 when given R1..3?

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  • Google Web Toolkit Asynchronous Call from a Service Implementation

    - by Thor Thurn
    I'm writing a simple Google Web Toolkit service which acts as a proxy, which will basically exist to allow the client to make a POST to a different server. The client essentially uses this service to request an HTTP call. The service has only one asynchronous method call, called ajax(), which should just forward the server response. My code for implementing the call looks like this: class ProxyServiceImpl extends RemoteServiceServlet implements ProxyService { @Override public Response ajax(String data) { RequestBuilder rb = /*make a request builder*/ RequestCallback rc = new RequestCallback() { @Override public void onResponseReceived(Response response) { /* Forward this response back to the client as the return value of the ajax method... somehow... */ } }; rb.sendRequest(data, requestCallback); return /* The response above... except I can't */; } } You can see the basic form of my problem, of course. The ajax() method is used asynchronously, but GWT decides to be smart and hide that from the dumb old developer, so they can just write normal Java code without callbacks. GWT services basically just do magic instead of accepting a callback parameter. The trouble arises, then, because GWT is hiding the callback object from me. I'm trying to make my own asynchronous call from the service implementation, but I can't, because GWT services assume that you behave synchronously in service implementations. How can I work around this and make an asynchronous call from my service method implementation?

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  • XmlHttpRequest in a bookmarklet returns empty responseText on GET?

    - by David Eyk
    I'm trying to build a javascript bookmarklet for a special URL shortening service we've built at http://esv.to for shortening scripture references (i.e. "Matthew 5" becomes "http://esv.to/Mt5". The bookmarklet is supposed to do a GET request to http://api.esv.to/Matthew+5, which returns a text/plain response of http://esv.to/Mt5. The code for the bookmarklet itself looks like this (expanded for readability): var body = document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0], script = document.createElement('script'); script.type = 'text/javascript'; script.src = 'http://esv.to/media/js/bookmarklet.js'; body.appendChild(script); void(0); The code from http://esv.to/media/js/bookmarklet.js looks like this: (function() { function shorten(ref, callback) { var url = "http://esv.to/api/" + escape(ref); var req = new XMLHttpRequest(); req.onreadystatechange = function shortenIt() { if ( this.readyState == 4 && this.status == 200 ) { callback(req.responseText); }; }; req.open( "GET", url ); req.send(); }; function doBookmarklet() { var ref = prompt("Enter a scripture reference or keyword search to link to:", "") shorten(ref, function (short) { prompt("Here is your shortened ESV URL:", short); }); }; doBookmarklet(); })(); When called from http://esv.to itself, the bookmarklet works correctly. But when used on another page, it does not. The strange thing is, when I watch the request from Firebug, the response is 200 OK, the browser downloads 17 bytes (the length of the returned string), but the response body is empty! No error is thrown, just an empty responseText on the XmlHttpRequest object. Now, according to http://stackoverflow.com/questions/664689/ajax-call-from-bookmarklet, GET shouldn't violate the same origin policy. Is this a bug? Is there a workaround?

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  • Publishing artifacts with sources on archiva

    - by Palimondo
    At work I'm dipping my toes in managing project dependencies with maven. We use Apache Archiva (1.2.1) as a local repository and proxy. I'm adding artifact for open source project, that is not published on any public repository. I've learned that to publish the sources I should use the Classifier field on Upload artifact page. The sources are then listed alongside the jar and pom when I browse the repository. But when I update my maven dependencies I get only the jar and pom from the repository. I noticed that sources are also missing when the archiva proxies for me the downloads from other public repositories. I didn't find any configuration options in Archiva's admin pages to serve the sources... What am I missing? Update: I was missing the fact that artifact sources have to be downloaded manually. I.e. the maven client has to request them, which is controlled by command line option -DdownloadSources=true. Maven Integration for Eclipse has a preference setting to always download them as described in Resolving artifact sources. Archiva then serves the sources for local artifacts or proxies the request to remote repositories and caches the sources for future requests.

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  • how to use git rebase to clean up a convoluted history

    - by lsiden
    After working for several weeks with a half dozen different branches and merges, on both my laptop and work and my desktop at home, my history has gotten a bit convoluted. For example, I just did a fetch, then merged master with origin/master. Now, when I do git show-branches, the output looks like this: ! [login] Changed domain name. ! [master] Merge remote branch 'origin/master' ! [migrate-1.9] Migrating to 1.9.1 on Heroku ! [rebase-master] Merge remote branch 'origin/master' ---- - - [master] Merge remote branch 'origin/master' + + [master^2] A bit of re-arranging and cleanup. - - [master^2^] Merge branch 'rpx-login' + + [master^2^^2] Commented out some debug logging. + + [master^2^^2^] Monkey-patched Rack::Request#ip + + [master^2^^2~2] dump each request to log .... I would like to clean this up with a git rebase. I created a new branch, rebase-master, for this purpose, and on this branch tried git rebase <common-ancestor>. However, I have to resolve many conflicts, and the end result on branch rebase-master no longer matches the corresponding version on master, which has already been tested and works! I thought I saw a solution to this somewhere but can't find it anymore. Does anyone know how to do this? Or will these convoluted ref names go away when I start deleting un-needed branches that I have already merged with? I am the sole developer on this project, so there is no one else who will be affected.

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  • C# WebClient OpenRead url

    - by Octopus-Paul
    So i have this program that fetch a page using a short link (I used Google url shortener) to build my example i used the code from Using WebClient in C# is there a way to get the URL of a site after being redirected? using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.IO; using System.Net; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { MyWebClient client = new MyWebClient(); client.OpenRead("http://tinyurl.com/345yj7x"); Uri uri = client.ResponseUri; Console.WriteLine(uri.AbsoluteUri); Console.Read(); } } class MyWebClient : WebClient { Uri _responseUri; public Uri ResponseUri { get { return _responseUri; } } protected override WebResponse GetWebResponse(WebRequest request) { WebResponse response = base.GetWebResponse(request); _responseUri = response.ResponseUri; return response; } } } I do not understant a thing: when i do client.OpenRead("http://tinyurl.com/345yj7x"); this downloads the page that the url points to? If this method downloads the page, I need something to get me only the url, so if there a method to get only some headers, or only the url please let me know.

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  • why does b'(and sometimes b' ') show up when I split some HTML source[Python]

    - by Oliver
    I'm fairly new to Python and programming in general. I have done a few tutorials and am about 2/3 through a pretty good book. That being said I've been trying to get more comfortable with Python and proggramming by just trying things in the std lib out. that being said I have recently run into a wierd quirk that I'm sure is the result of my own incorrect or un-"pythonic" use of the urllib module(with Python 3.2.2) import urllib.request HTML_source = urllib.request.urlopen(www.somelink.com).read() print(HTML_source) when this bit is run through the active interpreter it returns the HTML source of somelink, however it prefixes it with b' for example b'<HTML>\r\n<HEAD> (etc). . . . if I split the string into a list by whitespace it prefixes every item with the b' I'm not really trying to accomplish something specific just trying to familiarize myself with the std lib. I would like to know why this b' is getting prefixed also bonus -- Is there a better way to get HTML source WITHOUT using a third party module. I know all that jazz about not reinventing the wheel and what not but I'm trying to learn by "building my own tools" Thanks in Advance!

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  • sending a selected value from a dropdownlist to a servlet with xhr

    - by kawtousse
    I am trying to send the clicked value of a dropdown list to my servlet to run a SQL query using the value received. To do it I am using Ajax like that: function showProject(prj) { xmlhttp = GetXmlHttpObject(); if (xmlhttp == null) { alert ("Browser does not support HTTP Request"); return; } var url = "ServletxmlGenerator.java"; idprj = prj.options[prj.selectedIndex].value; url = url + "?idprj=" + idprj; xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = stateChanged; xmlhttp.open("GET",url,true); xmlhttp.send(null); } The servlet when String projectcode=(String) request.getParameter("idprj"); returns null. When I select a value from the JSP that construct the dropdown list and from which the function showProject is handled the same thing is happned. It returns always null. So the parameter(idprj) is not passed anyway. How can I handle with this. I need to send the selected value to the servlet to run my SQL query.

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  • Flex HttpService POST limited to 543 Byte per Form field?

    - by motto
    Hi, I am getting a FaultEvent when trying to send form fields through HTTPService that contain more than 542 chars. Initializing the HttpService: httpServ = new HTTPService(); httpServ.method = 'POST'; httpServ.url = ENDPOINT_URL; //http://localhost:3001/ReportError.aspx httpServ.resultFormat = HTTPService.RESULT_FORMAT_TEXT; httpServ.contentType = HTTPService.CONTENT_TYPE_FORM; httpServ.addEventListener(ResultEvent.RESULT, OnErrorSent); httpServ.addEventListener(FaultEvent.FAULT, OnFault); Sending the request: var params:Object = {}; //params["stack"] = e.stackTrace.slice(0, 542); //length 542 = works //params["stack2"] = e.stackTrace.slice(1, 543); //length 542 = works (just to show that it's not about the content itself) params["stack3"] = e.stackTrace.slice(0, 543); //length 543 = fails I also seem to be able to create many form fields (with 542 length) so that it's not a limit of the request itself but of the form field: var params:Object = {}; params["stack"] = e.stackTrace.slice(0, 542); //length 542 params["stack2"] = e.stackTrace.slice(1, 543); //length 542 params["stack3"] = e.stackTrace.slice(2, 544); //length 542 // Length > 1600 chars The receiving party is an ASP.NET 4 site on the same domain and port. I hope someone already came across a similar restrictions or has some general advice on how to trace this problem down further. Thanks in advance.

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  • Grails UrlMappings with .html

    - by Glennn
    I'm developing a Grails web application (mainly as a learning exercise). I have previously written some standard Grails apps, but in this case I wanted to try creating a controller that would intercept all requests (including static html) of the form: <a href="/testApp/testJsp.jsp">test 1</a> <a href="/testApp/testGsp.gsp">test 2</a> <a href="/testApp/testHtm.htm">test 3</a> <a href="/testApp/testHtml.html">test 4</a> The intent is to do some simple business logic (auditing) each time a user clicks a link. I know I could do this using a Filter (or a range of other methods), however I thought this should work too and wanted to do this using a Grails framework. I set up the Grail UrlMappings.groovy file to map all URLs of that form (/$myPathParam?) to a single controller: class UrlMappings { static mappings = { "/$controller/$action?/$id?"{ constraints { } } "/$path?" (controller: 'auditRecord', action: 'showPage') "500"(view:'/error') } } In that controller (in the appropriate "showPage" action) I've been printing out the path information, for example: def showPage = { println "params.path = " + params.path ... render(view: resultingView) } The results of the println in the showPage action for each of my four links are testJsp.jsp testGsp.gsp testHtm.htm testHtml Why is the last one "testHtml", not "testHtml.html"? In a previous (Stack Overflow query) Olexandr encountered this issue and was advised to simply concatenate the value of request.format - which, indeed, does return "html". However request.format also returns "html" for all four links. I'm interested in gaining an understanding of what Grails is doing and why. Is there some way to configure Grails so the params.path variable in the controller shows "testHtml.html" rather than stripping off the "html" extension? It doesn't seem to remove the extension for any other file type (including .htm). Is there a good reason it's doing this? I know that it is a bit unusual to use a controller for static html, but still would like to understand what's going on.

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  • Can I do my own HTTP header attribute?

    - by wokena
    Hi, can I make my own headers in HTTP request? e.g. This is normal HTTP request GET / HTTP/1.1 Host: google.com User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT x.x; xx; rv:x.x.x.x) xxx Firefox/3.0.10 (.NET CLR 3.5.30729) Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language: xx,en-us;q=0.7,en;q=0.3 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: windows-1250,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 300 Connection: keep-alive and this is header with my "attribute" GET / HTTP/1.1 Host: google.com User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT x.x; xx; rv:x.x.x.x) xxx Firefox/3.0.10 (.NET CLR 3.5.30729) Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language: xx,en-us;q=0.7,en;q=0.3 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: windows-1250,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 300 Connection: keep-alive Name: John and I will have "attribute" in server response. I'll use "attrubutes" in HTTP headers instead of sessions attributes... BTW.Sorry for my english... ;)

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  • C# client to Java web service

    - by tomislavg
    I have received wsdl file from outside company. I'm using VS2005 c#. With wsdl.exe I have created class containing methods and types for the given web service. To connect to the service outside company requires that certificate from the smart card is inputed in the header. I think i have achieved this with service.ClientCertificates.Add("Path to exported cert" - at least for now, after probably later i will take it from Certificate Store When service is called there are three steps that are taken and visible by the Fidller(Web Debugging Proxy)). service is called on the url http://test.company.com/webservice.wsdl service redirects the request to certificate server and pin needs to be inputed to get cookie for the server service is again redirected to url http://test.company.com/webservice.wsdl At point 1. I can see that my request send to the server contains .... but at point 3. i can not see request` just a empty string. The exception is thrown Msg: Possible SOAP version mismatch: Envelope namespace http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/wsdl/ was unexpected. Expecting http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/. Does somebody have an example how to connect to java web service with certificate and AlowRedirect enabled for the web service? Any ideas what i am doing wrong are more that welcome.

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  • Is this a clean way to manage AsyncResults with Generic Methods?

    - by Michael Stum
    I've contributed Async Support to a Project I'm using, but I made a bug which I'm trying to fix. Basically I have this construct: private readonly Dictionary<WaitHandle, object> genericCallbacks = new Dictionary<WaitHandle, object>(); public IAsyncResult BeginExecute<T>(RestRequest request, AsyncCallback callback, object state) where T : new() { var genericCallback = new RequestExecuteCaller<T>(this.Execute<T>); var asyncResult = genericCallback.BeginInvoke(request, callback, state); genericCallbacks[asyncResult.AsyncWaitHandle] = genericCallback; return asyncResult; } public RestResponse<T> EndExecute<T>(IAsyncResult asyncResult) where T : new() { var cb = genericCallbacks[asyncResult.AsyncWaitHandle] as RequestExecuteCaller<T>; genericCallbacks.Remove(asyncResult.AsyncWaitHandle); return cb.EndInvoke(asyncResult); } So I have a generic BeginExecute/EndExecute method pair. As I need to store the delegate that is called on EndExecute somewhere I created a dictionary. I'm unsure about using WaitHandles as keys though, but that seems to be the only safe choice. Does this approach make sense? Are WaitHandles unique or could I have two equal ones? Or should I instead use the State (and wrap any user provided state into my own State value)? Just to add, the class itself is non-generic, only the Begin/EndExecute methods are generic.

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  • Yahoo BOSS Question

    - by Fincha
    Hello everyone, I wonna to echo totalresults but somethink is wrong. // Get search results from Yahoo BOSS as an XML* $API = 'http://boss.yahooapis.com/ysearch/web/v1/'; $request = $API . $query .'?format=xml&appid='. APP_ID.'&start='.$start."0"; $ch = curl_init($request); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, 0); $xml = simplexml_load_string(curl_exec($ch)); echo $xml->resultset_web->totalhits; // Display search results - Title, Date and URL. foreach ($xml->resultset_web->result as $result) { $ausgabe .= '<a href="'.$result->clickurl.'">'.$result->title.'</a><br />'; $ausgabe .= $result->abstract."<br>"; $ausgabe .= '<a href="'.$result->clickurl.'">'.$result->url."</a> - ".round(($result->size/1024), 2)." Kb<br><br>"; } Can someone help me

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  • httpHandler - subfolder issue

    - by Patto
    Hi, I am trying to redirect my old typepad blog to my new blog (permanent 301 redirect) that runs with wordpress. The new blog will also be on a new server. the old Blog had the following structure: http://subdomain.domain.com/weblog/year/month/what-ever-article.html The new Blog looks like this: http://www.domain.com/Blog/year/month/what-ever-article.html I am using an http handler that I found online and tried to work with it: public class MyHttpModule :IHttpModule { public MyHttpModule() { // // TODO: Add constructor logic here // } #region IHttpModule Members public void Dispose() { } public void Init(HttpApplication context) { context.BeginRequest += new EventHandler(context_BeginRequest); } void context_BeginRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { string oldURL = System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.ToString(); string newURL = String.Empty; //oldURL = if (oldURL.ToString().ToLower().IndexOf("articles") >= 0 || System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.ToString().ToLower().IndexOf("weblog") >= 0) { newURL = oldURL.Replace("subdomain.domain.com/weblog", "www.domain.com/Blog/index.php"); if (newURL.ToLower().Contains("subdomain")) { newURL = "http://www.domain.com/Blog"; } } else { newURL = "http://www.domain.com/Blog"; } System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.Clear(); System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.StatusCode = 301; System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.AddHeader("Location", newURL); System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.End(); } #endregion } To use this code, I put the handler into the web.config <httpModules> <add name="MyHttpModule" type="MyHttpModule, App_Code"/> </httpModules> The issue that I have is that when I want to redirect from the http://subdomain.domain.com/weblog/year/month/what-ever-article.html, I get an error that the folder would not exist. Is there any way to change my script or add an catch all to the web.config that forwards the URL to my script? When I use "http://subdomain.domain.com/weblog/year/month/what-ever-article.html" in oldURL string, then the redirect works just fine... so I must have some IIS or web.config settings wrong. Thanks in advance, Patrick

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