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  • jQuery Validation Plugin: Invoke errorPlacement function when onfocusout, keyup and click

    - by th3hamburgler
    Hi, I am using the jquery validation plugin and want to use the errorPlacement function to add error messages to the fields title attribute and display just a ? next to the field. This works great when the form is submitted with the submit button but when any of the following events are triggered: - onfocusout - click - onkeyup The validation checks are run but it skips the errorPlacement function and adds the full error message after the field, like the default behaviour. I am using the following code: $("#send-mail").validate({ debug: true, // set this class to error-labels to indicate valid fields success: function(label) { // set text as tick label.html("&#10004;").addClass("valid"); }, // the errorPlacement has to take the table layout into account errorPlacement: function(error, element) { console.log("errorPlacement called for "+element.attr("name")+" field"); // check for blank/success error if(error.text() == "") { // remove field title/error message from element element.attr("title", ""); console.log("error check passed"); } else { // get error message var message = error.text(); // set as element title element.attr("title", message); // clear error html and add cross glyph error.html("&#10008;"); console.log("error check failed: "+message); } // add error label after form element error.insertAfter(element); }, ignoreTitle: true, errorClass: "invalid" });

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  • NHibernate HiLo generation and SQL 2005/8 Schemas

    - by Kirk Clawson
    I have an issue on my hands that I've spent several days searching for an answer to no avail... We're using HiLo Id generation, and everything seems to be working fine, as long as the entity table is in the same schema as the hibernate_unique_key table. The table structure is pretty simple. I have my hi value table in the db as dbo.hibernate_unique_key. Several entity table are also in the dbo schema, and they work without issue. Then we have tables under the "Contact" schema (such as Contact.Person and Contact.Address). In the Person Mapping file: <class name="Person" table="Person" schema="Contact"> <id name="Id" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="hilo"> <param name="max_lo">100</param> </generator> </id> ... When I try to insert a Person entity, I get an error of "Invalid object name 'Contact.hibernate_unique_key'. That error is certainly clear enough. So I add: <param name="schema">dbo</param> to my mapping file/generator element. Now, when the SessionFactory is built, I get a "An item with the same key has already been added." error. So now I'm a bit stuck. I can't leave the HiLo generator without a schema, because it picks up the schema from the Class, and I can't specify the schema because it's already been added (presumably because it's my "default_schema" as identified in my XML cfg file). Am I completely hosed here? Must I either A) Keep all my tables in the dbo schema or B) Create a separate HiLo Key table for each unique schema in the DB? Neither of those scenarios is particularly palatable for my application, so I'm hoping that I can "fix" my mapping files to address this issue.

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  • ASP.NET MVC: null reference exception using HtmlHelper.TextBox and custom model binder

    - by mr.nicksta
    I have written a class which implements IModelBinder (see below). This class handles a form which has 3 inputs each representing parts of a date value (day, month, year). I have also written a corresponding HtmlHelper extension method to print out three fields on the form. When the day, month, year inputs are given values which can be parsed, but a seperate value fails validation, all is fine - the fields are repopulated and the page served to the user as expected. however when an invalid values are supplied and a DateTime cannot be parsed, i return an arbitrary DateTime so that the fields will be repopulated when returned to the user. I read up on similar problems people have had and they all seemed to be due to lack of calling SetModelValue(). I wasn't doing this, but even after adding the problem has not been resolved. public object BindModel(ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext) { string modelName = bindingContext.ModelName; string monthKey = modelName + ".Month"; string dayKey = modelName + ".Day"; string yearKey = modelName + ".Year"; //get values submitted on form string year = bindingContext.ValueProvider[yearKey].AttemptedValue; string month = bindingContext.ValueProvider[monthKey].AttemptedValue; string day = bindingContext.ValueProvider[dayKey].AttemptedValue; DateTime parsedDate; if (DateTime.TryParse(string.Format(DateFormat, year, month, day), out parsedDate)) return parsedDate; //could not parse date time report error, return current date bindingContext.ModelState.AddModelError(yearKey, ValidationErrorMessages.DateInvalid); //added this after reading similar problems, does not fix! bindingContext.ModelState.SetModelValue(modelName, bindingContext.ValueProvider[modelName]); return DateTime.Today; } the null reference exception is thrown when i attempt to create a textbox for the Year property of the date, but strangely not for Day or Month! Can anyone offer an explanation as to why this is? Thanks :-)

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  • CakePHP 1.3 and Uploadifive/Uploadify - Change Upload Filename to a random string

    - by CaboONE
    I have somehow implemented UPLOADIFIVE in my CakePHP application. Everything seems to work great including uploading multiple files and inserting the correct information in the Database. Based on the following code, I would like to UPLOAD AND SAVE EVERY FILE WITH A RANDOM NAME TAKING INTO ACCOUNT THE CURRENT DATE OR SOMETHING SIMILAR. How could I accomplish this? In my Photos Controller I have the following function: // This function is called at every file upload. It uploads the file onto the server // and save the corresponding image name, etc, to the database table `photos`. function upload() { $uploadDir = '/img/uploads/photos/'; if (!empty($_FILES)) { debug($_FILES); $tempFile = $_FILES['Filedata']['tmp_name'][0]; $uploadDir = $_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT'] . $uploadDir; $targetFile = $uploadDir . $_FILES['Filedata']['name'][0]; // Validate the file type $fileTypes = array('jpg', 'jpeg', 'gif', 'png'); // Allowed file extensions $fileParts = pathinfo($_FILES['Filedata']['name'][0]); // Validate the filetype if (in_array($fileParts['extension'], $fileTypes)) { // Save the file move_uploaded_file($tempFile,$targetFile); $_POST['image'] = $_FILES['Filedata']['name'][0]; $this->Photo->create(); if ($this->Photo->save($_POST)) { $this->Session->setFlash($targetFile, 'default', array('class' => 'alert_success')); $this->redirect(array('action' => 'index')); } } else { // The file type wasn't allowed //echo 'Invalid file type.'; $this->Session->setFlash(__('The photo could not be saved. Please, try again.', true)); } } } In my View file - admin_add.ctp I have added the following function $('#file_upload').uploadifive({ 'auto' : false, 'uploadScript' : '/photos/upload', 'buttonText' : 'BROWSE FILES', 'method' : 'post', 'onAddQueueItem' : function(file) { this.data('uploadifive').settings.formData = { 'photocategory_id' : $('#PhotoPhotocategoryId').val() }; } }); <input type="file" name="file_upload" id="file_upload" />

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  • SQL Server 2008 - Editing Tables: Bit columns require 'True' or 'False'

    - by CJM
    Not so much a question as an observation... I'm just upgrading to SQL Server 2008 on my development machine in anticipation of upgrading my live applications. I didn't anticipate any problems since [I think] I generally use standard T-SQL, and probably not too far from ANSI standard SQL. So far so good, but I was really thrown by a very simple change: I was creating a simple, small look-up table to store a list of codes and including a bit column to indicate the current default code. But when I used the new/modified 'Edit Top 200 Rows' option, and entered my 0s and 1s in the the bit column I got an error: 'Invalid value for cell - String was not recognised as a valid boolean' After a bit of head-scratching, I tried True and False - and they worked. So it seems this new Edit feature requires 4 or 5 characters to be typed, rather than the previous 1. Checking further, we can still use '...where bitval = 1' but can now also use '...where bitval = 'true''. But any results returned render these bit columns as 0 or 1 still. It all sounds like half a step backwards. Not the end of the world, but and unnecessary annoyance. Does anybody have any insight on this issue? Or there any other new Gotchas with SQL Server 2008?

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  • Simulate Windows Service with ASP.NET

    - by Bayonian
    Hi, I have small web app that generate PDF files as a report. I'm trying to delete those generated PDF files after 10 sec that they are generated. What I want to do is to read a folder with PDF files every 10 sec, and delete all the PDF files inside that folder. I read this post of Easy Background Tasks in ASP.NET. The following code is the VB version. Protected Sub Application_Start(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) AddTask("DoStuff", 10) End Sub Private Sub AddTask(ByVal name As String, ByVal seconds As Integer) OnCacheRemove = New CacheItemRemovedCallback(CacheItemRemoved) HttpRuntime.Cache.Insert(name, seconds, Nothing, DateTime.Now.AddSeconds(seconds), Cache.NoSlidingExpiration, CacheItemPriority.NotRemovable, _ OnCacheRemove) End Sub Public Sub CacheItemRemoved(ByVal k As String, ByVal v As Object, ByVal r As CacheItemRemovedReason) ' do stuff here if it matches our taskname, like WebRequest DeletePDFilesInFoler() ' re-add our task so it recurs AddTask(k, Convert.ToInt32(v)) End Sub But I got this error Delegate 'System.Web.Caching.CacheItemRemovedCallback' requires an 'AddressOf' expression or lambda expression as the only argument to its constructor. If this code works, where I should put it. Right, now I'm putting it in the master page. How to get this error out? Thank you

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  • Having Uploadify e-mail a link to download the file

    - by kwek-kwek
    Uploadify is a jQuery plugin that allows the easy integration of a multiple (or single) file uploads on your website. It requires Flash and any backend development language. An array of options allow for full customization for advanced users, but basic implementation is so easy that even coding novices can do it. I wanted to ask if It is possible to sends out a link of a file that has just been uploaded wioth the e-mail notification of Uploadify. Here is the code for uploadify.php : <?php if (!empty($_FILES)) { $tempFile = $_FILES['Filedata']['tmp_name']; $targetPath = $_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT'] . $_REQUEST['folder'] . '/'; $targetFile = str_replace('//','/',$targetPath) . $_FILES['Filedata']['name']; // $fileTypes = str_replace('*.','',$_REQUEST['fileext']); // $fileTypes = str_replace(';','|',$fileTypes); // $typesArray = split('\|',$fileTypes); // $fileParts = pathinfo($_FILES['Filedata']['name']); // if (in_array($fileParts['extension'],$typesArray)) { // Uncomment the following line if you want to make the directory if it doesn't exist // mkdir(str_replace('//','/',$targetPath), 0755, true); move_uploaded_file($tempFile,$targetFile); echo "1"; // } else { // echo 'Invalid file type.'; // } } //define the receiver of the email $to = '[email protected]'; //define the subject of the email $subject = 'Test email'; //define the message to be sent. Each line should be separated with \n $message = "Hello World!\n\nThis is my first mail."; //define the headers we want passed. Note that they are separated with \r\n $headers = "From: [email protected]\r\nReply-To: [email protected]"; //send the email $mail_sent = @mail( $to, $subject, $message, $headers ); //if the message is sent successfully print "Mail sent". Otherwise print "Mail failed" echo $mail_sent ? "Mail sent" : "Mail failed"; ?>

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  • How do you unit test a LINQ expression using Moq and Machine.Specifications?

    - by Phil.Wheeler
    I'm struggling to get my head around how to accommodate a mocked repository's method that only accepts a Linq expression as its argument. Specifically, the repository has a First() method that looks like this: public T First(Expression<Func<T, bool>> expression) { return All().Where(expression).FirstOrDefault(); } The difficulty I'm encountering is with my MSpec tests, where I'm (probably incorrectly) trying to mock that call: public abstract class with_userprofile_repository { protected static Mock<IRepository<UserProfile>> repository; Establish context = () => { repository = new Mock<IRepository<UserProfile>>(); repository.Setup<UserProfile>(x => x.First(up => up.OpenID == @"http://testuser.myopenid.com")).Returns(GetDummyUser()); }; protected static UserProfile GetDummyUser() { UserProfile p = new UserProfile(); p.OpenID = @"http://testuser.myopenid.com"; p.FirstName = "Joe"; p.LastLogin = DateTime.Now.Date.AddDays(-7); p.LastName = "Bloggs"; p.Email = "[email protected]"; return p; } } I run into trouble because it's not enjoying the Linq expression: System.NotSupportedException: Expression up = (up.OpenID = "http://testuser.myopenid.com") is not supported. So how does one test these sorts of scenarios?

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  • jquery lib conflicts

    - by Indranil Mutsuddy
    Hello friends, I am tryin to use jgrowl and jquery validation in the same page and each time either of them works. I ve gone through the jQuery.nonConflict but coulnt solve the problem my .cs code for jgrowl is string js = "$.jGrowl(' INVALID MEMBER ID, KINDLY TRY AGAIN ');"; Page.ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(typeof(string), "jgrowlwarn", js, true); and in .aspx is the following libs <script src="../jquery.jgrowl.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <link href="../jquery.jgrowl.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> whereas for validations the followin are the codes in .aspx page <link href="../ketchup.jquery.ketchup.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <script src="../JS/ketchup.jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../JS/ketchup.jquery.ketchup.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../JS/ketchup.jquery.ketchup.messages.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../JS/ketchup.jquery.ketchup.validations.basic.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type ="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function($) { $('#example1').ketchup(); }); </script> How to make this work? please help. Thanking you, Indranil

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  • Mercurial Editor: "abort: The system cannot find the file specified"

    - by Killroy
    I have a problem getting Mercurial to recognise my editor. I have a file, c:\windows\notepad.exe and typing "notepad" at the command prompt works. I can commit by using the "-m" argument to supply the commit title. But a simple "hg commit" brings up the error. A call to "hg --traceback commit" brings up: Traceback (most recent call last): File "mercurial\dispatch.pyc", line 47, in _runcatch File "mercurial\dispatch.pyc", line 466, in _dispatch File "mercurial\dispatch.pyc", line 336, in runcommand File "mercurial\dispatch.pyc", line 517, in _runcommand File "mercurial\dispatch.pyc", line 471, in checkargs File "mercurial\dispatch.pyc", line 465, in <lambda> File "mercurial\util.pyc", line 401, in check File "mercurial\commands.pyc", line 708, in commit File "mercurial\cmdutil.pyc", line 1150, in commit File "mercurial\commands.pyc", line 706, in commitfunc File "mercurial\localrepo.pyc", line 836, in commit File "mercurial\cmdutil.pyc", line 1155, in commiteditor File "mercurial\cmdutil.pyc", line 1184, in commitforceeditor File "mercurial\ui.pyc", line 361, in edit File "mercurial\util.pyc", line 383, in system File "subprocess.pyc", line 470, in call File "subprocess.pyc", line 621, in __init__ File "subprocess.pyc", line 830, in _execute_child WindowsError: [Error 2] The system cannot find the file specified abort: The system cannot find the file specified I've tried setting the HGEDITOR environment variable, setting "visual =" and "editor =" in the Mercurial.ini file. I tried full path as well as command only. I also tried copying the notepad.exe file into both the current folder as well as the mercurial folder. Ideally I would like to use the editor at this location "C:\PortableApps\Notepad++Portable\Notepad++Portable.exe", but at this stage I would be happy with any editor!

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  • Inherited fluent nhibenate mapping issue

    - by Aim Kai
    I have an interesting issue today!! Basically I have two classes. public class A : B { public virtual new ISet<DifferentItem> Items {get;set;} } public class B { public virtual int Id {get;set;} public virtual ISet<Item> Items {get;set;} } The subclass A hides the base class B property, Items and replaces it with a new property with the same name and a different type. The mappings for these classes are public class AMapping : SubclassMap<A> { public AMapping() { HasMany(x=>x.Items) .LazyLoad() .AsSet(); } } public class BMapping : ClassMap<B> { public BMapping() { Id(x=>x.Id); HasMany(x=>x.Items) .LazyLoad() .AsSet(); } } However when I run my unit test to check the mapping I get the following exception: Tests the A mapping: NHibernate.PropertyAccessException : Invalid Cast (check your mapping for property type mismatches); setter of A ---- System.InvalidCastException : Unable to cast object of type 'NHibernate.Collection.Generic.PersistentGenericSet1[Item]' to type 'Iesi.Collections.Generic.ISet1[DifferentItem]'. Anyone have any ideas? Clearly it is something to do with the type of the collection on the sub-class. But I skimmed through the available options on the mapping class and nothing stood out as being the solution here.

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  • Parsing unicode XML with Python SAX on App Engine

    - by Derek Dahmer
    I'm using xml.sax with unicode strings of XML as input, originally entered in from a web form. On my local machine (python 2.5, using the default xmlreader expat, running through app engine), it works fine. However, the exact same code and input strings on production app engine servers fail with "not well-formed". For example, it happens with the code below: from xml import sax class MyHandler(sax.ContentHandler): pass handler = MyHandler() # Both of these unicode strings return 'not well-formed' # on app engine, but work locally xml.parseString(u"<a>b</a>",handler) xml.parseString(u"<!DOCTYPE a[<!ELEMENT a (#PCDATA)> ]><a>b</a>",handler) # Both of these work, but output unicode xml.parseString("<a>b</a>",handler) xml.parseString("<!DOCTYPE a[<!ELEMENT a (#PCDATA)> ]><a>b</a>",handler) resulting in the error: File "<string>", line 1, in <module> File "/base/python_dist/lib/python2.5/xml/sax/__init__.py", line 49, in parseString parser.parse(inpsrc) File "/base/python_dist/lib/python2.5/xml/sax/expatreader.py", line 107, in parse xmlreader.IncrementalParser.parse(self, source) File "/base/python_dist/lib/python2.5/xml/sax/xmlreader.py", line 123, in parse self.feed(buffer) File "/base/python_dist/lib/python2.5/xml/sax/expatreader.py", line 211, in feed self._err_handler.fatalError(exc) File "/base/python_dist/lib/python2.5/xml/sax/handler.py", line 38, in fatalError raise exception SAXParseException: <unknown>:1:1: not well-formed (invalid token) Any reason why app engine's parser, which also uses python2.5 and expat, would fail when inputting unicode?

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  • Referencing a Newly inserted Row's seeded PK in C# Linq

    - by Laurence Burke
    I want to use the primary key that was just created on the dc.submitchanges() to create a new EmployeeAddress row that references the employee to the address. protected void btnAdd_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (txtZip.Text != "" && txtAdd1.Text != "" && txtCity.Text != "") { TestDataClassDataContext dc = new TestDataClassDataContext(); Address addr = new Address() { AddressLine1 = txtAdd1.Text, AddressLine2 = txtAdd2.Text, City = txtCity.Text, PostalCode = txtZip.Text, StateProvinceID = Convert.ToInt32(ddlState.SelectedValue) }; dc.Addresses.InsertOnSubmit(addr); lblSuccess.Visible = true; lblErrMsg.Visible = false; dc.SubmitChanges(); // // TODO: insert new row in EmployeeAddress to reference CurEmp to newly created address // SetAddrList(); } else { lblErrMsg.Text = "Invalid Input"; lblErrMsg.Visible = true; } } protected void SetAddrList() { TestDataClassDataContext dc = new TestDataClassDataContext(); dc.ObjectTrackingEnabled = false; var addList = from addr in dc.Addresses from eaddr in dc.EmployeeAddresses where eaddr.EmployeeID == _curEmpID && addr.AddressID == eaddr.AddressID select new { AddValue = addr.AddressID, AddText = addr.AddressID, }; ddlAddList.DataSource = addList; ddlAddList.DataValueField = "AddValue"; ddlAddList.DataTextField = "AddText"; ddlAddList.DataBind(); ddlAddList.Items.Add(new ListItem("<Add Address>", "-1")); }

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  • Silverlight, WCF service, integrated security AND ssl/https not possible?

    - by Flores
    I have this setup that works perfectly when using http. A silverlight 3 client .net 4 WCF service hosted in IIS with basicHttpBinding and using integrated security on the site When setting https to required on the website the setup stops working. Using the wcftestclient on the uri I get the message: The HTTP request is unauthorized with client authentication scheme 'Anonymous'. The authentication header received from the server was 'Negotiate,NTLM'. The remote server returned an error: (401) Unauthorized. Maybe this makes sense because the wcftestclient does not pass credentials? in the web.config the security mode for the service binding is set is set to 'Transport'. The silverlight client is created like this: BasicHttpBinding basicHttpBinding = new BasicHttpBinding(); basicHttpBinding.Security.Mode = BasicHttpSecurityMode.Transport; var serviceClient = new ImportServiceClient(basicHttpBinding, serviceAddress); The service address is ofcourse starting with https:// And the silverlight client reports this error: The provided URI scheme 'https' is invalid; expected 'http'. Parameter name: via Remember, swithing it back to http (and setting security mode to 'TransportCredentialOnly' makes everything working again. Is the setup I want even supported? If so, how should it be configured?

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  • Overlay just a part of an external page with jquery

    - by rolando
    Hi, How can i load a part of an external page with jquery overlay? I have an aspx call TipoFactor.aspx wich has a div inside a contentplaceholder like this: <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder1" runat="Server"> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <br /> <div id="DivGeneral" runat="server" class="tablaPaddingFiveCeleste"> as you can see the "DivGeneral" is the one i want to load into the overlay, wich is defined like this: <a href="TipoFactorSeleccion.aspx" rel="#overlay"> <button type="button"> Pagina Externa</button> </a> <!-- overlayed element --> <div class="apple_overlay" id="overlay"> <!-- the external content is loaded inside this tag --> <div class="contentWrap"> </div> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { // if the function argument is given to overlay, // it is assumed to be the onBeforeLoad event listener $("a[rel]").overlay({ expose: 'darkred', effect: 'apple', onBeforeLoad: function() { // grab wrapper element inside content var wrap = this.getContent().find(".contentWrap"); // load the page specified in the trigger wrap.load(this.getTrigger().attr("href")); } }); }); </script> As it is now its loading the entire page into the overlay and that's not good for me cause it inherites from the same masterpage as the other. I need to keep that masterpage because it has some important aplication functionality. What can I do ? Thank you very much.

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  • Access custom error messages for InArray validator when using Zend_Form_Element_Select

    - by Ben Waine
    Hello, I'm using Zend Framework 1.62 (becuase we are deploying the finished product to a Red Hat instance, which doesn't have a hgih enough PHP version to support ZF1.62). When creating a Form using Zend Form, I add a select element, add some multi options. I use the Zend Form as an in-object validation layer, passing an objects values through it and using the isValid method to determine if all the values fall within normal parameters. Zend_Form_Element_Select works exactly as expected, showing invalid if any other value is input other than one of the multi select options I added. The problem comes when I want to display the form at some point, I cant edit the error message created by the pre registered 'InArray' validator added automatically by ZF. I know I can disable this behaviour, but it works great apart from the error messages. I've tryed the following: $this->getElement('country')->getValidator('InArray')->setMessage('The country is not in the approved lists of countries'); // Doesn't work at all. $this->getElement('country')->setErrorMessage('The country is not in the approved lists of countries'); // Causes a conflict elswhere in the application and doesnt allow granular control of error messages. Anyone have any ideas? Ben

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  • Cleanest RESTful design for purely "action" calls?

    - by Josh Handel
    Hello all, I am sticking my toe in the RESTful waters and I just can't find a "satisfactory" solution to how to handle truely "action" oriented calls on a RESTful service? My quandry can be broken down into two parts. 1) Transactional calls: I understand the idea of having an ActionTransactor that you get a resource too with a post, update the parameters and then commit with a PUT (as described all over the place and in the Orilly RESTful Web services book).. But I struggle with the idea of keeping URLs with states present for ever.. If we really honestly don't need to keep a transaction for ever can we kill the resource URI? do URIs need to be perminate or can they be transiant URIs that expire 2) Non transactional calls: these might be calls to perform some workflow that spans multiple resources but having a resource just doesn't make since.. An example might be to re-generating some calculated ans cached value like a large aggreget or re-indexing blog or some such "purely" action. Anyways, I'm curious about the communities thoughts on this... Thus far, I've read that Overloading Post is the cleanest way to handle part 2.. But there is an equal amount of argument against that approach as well. And (to me) its not self documenting which I though was one of the key design goals of RESTful APIs.

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  • To (monkey)patch or not to (monkey)patch, that is the question

    - by gsakkis
    I was talking to a colleague about one rather unexpected/undesired behavior of some package we use. Although there is an easy fix (or at least workaround) on our end without any apparent side effect, he strongly suggested extending the relevant code by hard patching it and posting the patch upstream, hopefully to be accepted at some point in the future. In fact we maintain patches against specific versions of several packages that are applied automatically on each new build. The main argument is that this is the right thing to do, as opposed to an "ugly" workaround or a fragile monkey patch. On the other hand, I favor practicality over purity and my general rule of thumb is that "no patch" "monkey patch" "hard patch", at least for anything other than a (critical) bug fix. So I'm wondering if there is a consensus on when it's better to (hard) patch, monkey patch or just try to work around a third party package that doesn't do exactly what one would like. Does it have mainly to do with the reason for the patch (e.g. fixing a bug, modifying behavior, adding missing feature), the given package (size, complexity, maturity, developer responsiveness), something else or there are no general rules and one should decide on a case-by-case basis ?

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  • Intercepting method with Spring AOP using only annotations

    - by fish
    In my Spring context file I have something like this: <bean id="userCheck" class="a.b.c.UserExistsCheck"/> <aop:config> <aop:aspect ref="userCheck"> <aop:pointcut id="checkUser" expression="execution(* a.b.c.d.*.*(..)) &amp;&amp; args(a.b.c.d.RequestObject)"/> <aop:around pointcut-ref="checkUser" method="checkUser"/> </aop:aspect> </aop:config> a.b.c.UserExistsCheck looks like this: @Aspect public class UserExistsCheck { @Autowired private UserInformation userInformation; public Object checkUser(ProceedingJoinPoint pjp) throws Throwable { int userId = ... //get it from the RequestObject passed as a parameter if (userExists(userId)) { return pjp.proceed(); } else { return new ResponseObject("Invalid user); } } And the class that is being intercepted with this stuff looks like this: public class Klazz { public ResponseObject doSomething(RequestObject request) {...} } This works. UserExistCheck is executed as desired before the call is passed to Klazz. The problem is that this is the only way I got it working. To get this working by using annotations instead of the context file seems to be just too much for my small brain. So... how exactly should I annotate the methods in UserExistsCheck and Klazz? And do I still need something else too? Another class? Still something in the context file?

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  • IIS as proxy to rails/mongrel - force a proxied host to generate REMOTE_USER

    - by rbn
    Hello -- Using Application Request Routing I have IIS 7.5 set up as a reverse proxy to a Mongrel service which is serving a rails app. IIS is set up to use Windows Auth and is working but I cannot access the REMOTE_USER variable in the rails app to get at current user's identity. I have inspected the request object in rails and I don't have any other variables like LOGON_USER, HTTP_REMOTE_USER, AUTH_USER, etc. I am trying to find a way to inject the REMOTE_USER variable into Mongrel's server variables. This post describes what I am looking for using mod_rewrite on Apache but I am having trouble recreating this rule for iis. this is the rewrite rule from the post mentioned above for Apache RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{LA-U:REMOTE_USER} (.+) RewriteRule . - [E=RU:%1] Header add X-Forwarded-User %{RU}e I tried reproducing the rule in IIS and got a URL Rewrite Module error ("The condition's expression "%{LA-U:REMOTE_USER}" is invalid."). I know I'm probably using Apache syntax where IIS syntax is needed but am not sure how to proceed at this point. Any help greatly appreciated.

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  • How can I get PowerShell Added-Types to use Added References

    - by Scott Weinstein
    I'm working on a PoSh project that generates CSharp code, and then Add-Types it into memory. The new types use existing types in an on disk DLL, which is loaded via Add-Type. All is well and good untill I actualy try to invoke methods on the new types. Here's an example of what I'm doing: $PWD = "." rm -Force $PWD\TestClassOne* $code = " namespace TEST{ public class TestClassOne { public int DoNothing() { return 1; } } }" $code | Out-File tcone.cs Add-Type -OutputAssembly $PWD\TestClassOne.dll -OutputType Library -Path $PWD\tcone.cs Add-Type -Path $PWD\TestClassOne.dll $a = New-Object TEST.TestClassOne "Using TestClassOne" $a.DoNothing() "Compiling TestClassTwo" Add-Type -Language CSharpVersion3 -TypeDefinition " namespace TEST{ public class TestClassTwo { public int CallTestClassOne() { var a = new TEST.TestClassOne(); return a.DoNothing(); } } }" -ReferencedAssemblies $PWD\TestClassOne.dll "OK" $b = New-Object TEST.TestClassTwo "Using TestClassTwo" $b.CallTestClassOne() Running the above script gives the following error on the last line: Exception calling "CallTestClassOne" with "0" argument(s): "Could not load file or assembly 'TestClassOne,...' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified." At AddTypeTest.ps1:39 char:20 + $b.CallTestClassOne <<<< () + CategoryInfo : NotSpecified: (:) [], MethodInvocationException + FullyQualifiedErrorId : DotNetMethodException What am I doing wrong?

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  • asp.net mvc client side validation; manually calling validation via javascript for ajax posts

    - by Jopache
    Under the built in client side validation (Microsoft mvc validation in mvc 2) using data annotations, when you try to submit a form and the fields are invalid, you will get the red validation summary next to the fields and the form will not post. However, I am using jquery form plugin to intercept the submit action on that form and doing the post via ajax. This is causing it to ignore validation; the red text shows up; but the form posts anyways. Is there an easy way to manually call the validation via javascript when I'm submitting the form? I am still kind of a javascript n00b. I tried googling it with no results and looking through the js source code makes my head hurt trying to figure it out. Or would you all recommend that I look in to some other validation framework? I liked the idea of jquery validate; but would like to define my validation requirements only in my viewmodel. Any experiences with xval or anything of the sort?

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  • ActiveMQ broker configuration error when specifying persistenceAdapter: "One of '{WC[##other:"http:/

    - by Joe
    I am setting up a simple ActiveMQ embedded broker. It works fine, until I try to configure a persistence adapter. I am basically just copying the configuration from http://activemq.apache.org/persistence.html#Persistence-ConfiguringKahaPersistence. When I add this configuration to my Spring configuration, like so: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:amq="http://activemq.apache.org/schema/core" xsi:schemaLocation=" http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-2.5.xsd http://activemq.apache.org/schema/core http://activemq.apache.org/schema/core/activemq-core-5.3.0.xsd"> <amq:broker useJmx="true" persistent="true" brokerName="localhost"> <amq:transportConnectors> <amq:transportConnector name="vm" uri="vm://localhost"/> </amq:transportConnectors> <amq:persistenceAdapter> <amq:kahaPersistenceAdapter directory="activemq-data" maxDataFileLength="33554432"/> </amq:persistenceAdapter> </amq:broker> </beans> I get the error: cvc-complex-type.2.4.a: Invalid content was found starting with element 'amq:persistenceAdapter'. One of '{WC[##other:"http://activemq.apache.org/schema/core"]}' is expected. When I take out the amq:persistenceAdapter element, it works fine. The same error happens no matter which persistence adapter I include in the body, e.g. jdbc, journal, etc. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Reading from serial port with Boost Asio?

    - by trikri
    Hi! I'm going to check for incoming messages (data packages) on the serial port, using Boost Asio. Each message will start with a header that is one byte long, and will specify which type of the message has been sent. Each different type of message has an own length. The function I'm about to write should check for new incoming messages continually, and when it finds one it should read it, and then some other function should parse it. I thought that the code might look something like this: void check_for_incoming_messages() { boost::asio::streambuf response; boost::system::error_code error; std::string s1, s2; if (boost::asio::read(port, response, boost::asio::transfer_at_least(0), error)) { s1 = streambuf_to_string(response); int msg_code = s1[0]; if (msg_code < 0 || msg_code >= NUM_MESSAGES) { // Handle error, invalid message header } if (boost::asio::read(port, response, boost::asio::transfer_at_least(message_lengths[msg_code]-s1.length()), error)) { s2 = streambuf_to_string(response); // Handle the content of s1 and s2 } else if (error != boost::asio::error::eof) { throw boost::system::system_error(error); } } else if (error != boost::asio::error::eof) { throw boost::system::system_error(error); } } Is boost::asio::streambuf is the right thing to use? And how do I extract the data from it so I can parse the message? I also want to know if I need to have a separate thread which only calls this function, so that it get called more often? Isn't there a risk for loosing data in between two calls to the function otherwise, because so much data comes in that it can't be stored in the serial ports memory? I'm using Qt as a widget toolkit and I don't really know how long time it needs to process all it's events.

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  • Error CS0117: Namespace.A does not contain definition for Interface..

    - by SnOrfus
    I'm getting the error: 'Namespace.A' does not contain a definition for 'MyObjectInterface' and no extension method 'MyObjectInterface' accepting a first argument of type ... I've looked at this and this and neither seems to apply. The code looks like: public abstract class Base { public IObject MyObjectInterface { get; set; } } public class A : Base { /**/ } public class Implementation { public void Method() { Base obj = new A(); obj.MyObjectInterface = /* something */; // Error here } } IObject is defined in a separate assembly, but: IObject is in a separate assembly/namespace Base and A are in the same assembly/namespace each with correct using directives Implementation is in a third separate assembly namespace, also with correct using directives. Casting to A before trying to set MyObjectInterface doesn't work Specifically, I'm trying to set the value of MyObjectInterface to a mock object (though, I created a fake instead to no avail) I've tried everything I can think of. Please help before I lose more hair. edit I can't reproduce the error by creating a test app either, which is why I'm here and why I'm frustrated. @Reed Copsey: /* something */ is either an NUnit.DynamicMock(IMailer).MockInstance or a Fake object I created that inherits from IObject and just returns canned values. @Preet Sangha: I checked and no other assembly that is referenced has a definition for an IObject (specifically, it's called an IMailer). Thing is that intellisense picks up the Property, but when I compile, I get CS0117. I can even 'Go To Definition' in the implementation, and it takes me to where I defined it.

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