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• Complex derived attributes in Django models

  - by rabidpebble

  What I want to do is implement submission scoring for a site with users voting on the content, much like in e.g. reddit (see the 'hot' function in http://code.reddit.com/browser/sql/functions.sql). My submission model currently keeps track of up and down vote totals. Currently, when a user votes I create and save a related Vote object and then use F() expressions to update the Submission object's voting totals. The problem is that I want to update the score for the submission at the same time, but F() expressions are limited to only simple operations (it's missing support for log(), date_part(), sign() etc.) From my limited experience with Django I can see 4 options here: extend F() somehow (haven't looked at the code yet) to support the missing SQL functions; this is my preferred option and seems to fit within the Django framework the best define a scoring function (much like reddit's 'hot' function) in my database, and have Django use the value of that function for the value of the score field; as far as I can tell, #2 is not possible wrap my two step voting process in a suitably isolated transaction so that I can calculate the voting totals in Python and then update the Submission's voting totals without fear that another vote against the submission could be added/changed in the meantime; I'm hesitant to take this route because it seems overly complex - what is a "suitably isolated transaction" in this case anyway? use raw SQL; I would prefer to avoid this entirely -- what's the point of an ORM if I have to revert to SQL for such a common use case as this! (Note that this coming from somebody who loves sprocs, but is using Django for ease of development.) Before I embark on this mission to extend F() (which I'm not sure is even possible), am I about to reinvent the wheel? Is there a more standard way to do this? It seems like such a common use case and yet in an hour of searching I have yet to find a common solution...

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• Best way to replace mass emails sent from Entourage with a proper mailing list solution?

  - by aaandre

  I am helping a Los Angeles choreographer to transition away from sending her announcements via Entourage. Here's the situation: She has multiple conact groups, and sends classes and performance announcements several times a month, to different groups. She manages the contact groups manually. The group size is between 1500 and 2500 people. Recently verizon blocked her outgoing port 25, presumably for spam activity. Again, her contacts are interested in the content. She is aware of mailchimp, constantcontact etc. but would like to be able to send the email via her email software and not have to create a newsletter for every single mailing. Also, she's very short on $$. So, what would be the best way to set up a system allowing her to send announcements from Entourage, with attached images, to her lists, without having Entourage send every single email? I am thinking of setting up a set of mailing lists, each corresponding to one of her groups. I have never set up a mailing list before and am wondering if it's possible to have a list accept emails from only one person (Admin) and distribute them to the group? Recipients should be able to unsubscribe easily, and by default reply to her but not the list. She should be the only one able to use the list for distribution, and should be able to send messages (with attachments) directly from her email client without modification. Is this possible? Where can I find step-by-step instructions? What are best practices to avoid her domain being blacklisted? What's the easiest way to convert her contact groups to mailing list subscribers? I am helping her for free, so the simpler the better :) Thank you! UPDATE: She has a standard linux hosting account allowing her to run php etc. And, ideally, the emails would come from her personally or at least from her domain name.

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• How to feature-detect/test for specific jQuery (and Javascript) methods/functions used

  - by Zildjoms

  good day everyone, hope yer all doin awesome am very new to javascript and jquery, and i (think) i have come up with a simple fade-in/out implementation on a site am workin on (check out http://www.s5ent.com/expandjs.html - if you have the time to check it for inefficiency or what that'd be real sweet). i use the following functions/methods/collections and i would like to do a feature test before using them. uhm.. how? or is there a better way to go about this? jQuery $ .fadeIn([duration]) .fadeOut([duration]) .attr(attributeName,value) .append(content) .each(function(index,Element)) .css(propertyName,value) .hover(handlerIn(eventObject),handlerOut(eventObject)) .stop([clearQueue],[jumpToEnd]) .parent() .eq(index) JavaScript setInterval(expression,timeout) clearInterval(timeoutId) setTimeout(expression,timeout) clearTimeout(timeoutId) i tried looking into jquery.support for the jquery ones, but i find myself running into conceptual problems with it, i.e. for fadein/fadeout, i (think i) should test for $.support.opacity, but that would be false in ie whereas ie6+ could still fairly render the fades. also am using jquery 1.2.6 coz that's enough for what i need. the support object is in 1.3. so i'm hoping to avoid dragging-in more unnecessary code if i can. i also worked with browser sniffing, no matter how frowned-upon. but that's also a bigger problem for me because of non-standard ua strings and spoofing and everything else am not aware of. so how do you guys think i should go about this? or should i even? is there a better way to go about making sure that i don't run code that'll eventually break the page? i've set it up to degrade into a css hover when javascript ain't there.. expertise needed. much appreciated, thanks guyz!

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• Combine regular expressions for splitting camelCase string into words

  - by stou

  I managed to implement a function that converts camel case to words, by using the solution suggested by @ridgerunner in this question: Split camelCase word into words with php preg_match (Regular Expression) However, I want to also handle embedded abreviations like this: 'hasABREVIATIONEmbedded' translates to 'Has ABREVIATION Embedded' I came up with this solution: <?php function camelCaseToWords($camelCaseStr) { // Convert: "TestASAPTestMore" to "TestASAP TestMore" $abreviationsPattern = '/' . // Match position between UPPERCASE "words" '(?<=[A-Z])' . // Position is after group of uppercase, '(?=[A-Z][a-z])' . // and before group of lowercase letters, except the last upper case letter in the group. '/x'; $arr = preg_split($abreviationsPattern, $camelCaseStr); $str = implode(' ', $arr); // Convert "TestASAP TestMore" to "Test ASAP Test More" $camelCasePattern = '/' . // Match position between camelCase "words". '(?<=[a-z])' . // Position is after a lowercase, '(?=[A-Z])' . // and before an uppercase letter. '/x'; $arr = preg_split($camelCasePattern, $str); $str = implode(' ', $arr); $str = ucfirst(trim($str)); return $str; } $inputs = array( 'oneTwoThreeFour', 'StartsWithCap', 'hasConsecutiveCAPS', 'ALLCAPS', 'ALL_CAPS_AND_UNDERSCORES', 'hasABREVIATIONEmbedded', ); echo "INPUT"; foreach($inputs as $val) { echo "'" . $val . "' translates to '" . camelCaseToWords($val). "'\n"; } The output is: INPUT'oneTwoThreeFour' translates to 'One Two Three Four' 'StartsWithCap' translates to 'Starts With Cap' 'hasConsecutiveCAPS' translates to 'Has Consecutive CAPS' 'ALLCAPS' translates to 'ALLCAPS' 'ALL_CAPS_AND_UNDERSCORES' translates to 'ALL_CAPS_AND_UNDERSCORES' 'hasABREVIATIONEmbedded' translates to 'Has ABREVIATION Embedded' It works as intended. My question is: Can I combine the 2 regular expressions $abreviationsPattern and camelCasePattern so i can avoid running the preg_split() function twice?

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• How to properly force a Blackberry Java application to install using Loader.exe

  - by Kevin White

  I want to include the Application Loader process in a software installation, to ensure that users get our software installed on their Blackberry by the time our installer software finishes. I know this is possible, because Aerize Card Loader (http://aerize.com/blackberry/software/loader/) does this. When you install their software, if your Blackberry is connected the Application Loader will come up and force the .COD file to install to the device. I can't make it work. Looking at RIM's own documentation, I need to: Place the ALX and COD files into a subfolder here: C:\Program Files\Common Files\Research In Motion\Shared\Applications\ Add a path to the ALX file in HKCU\Software\Research In Motion\Blackberry\Loader\Packages Index the application, by executing this at the command line: loader.exe /index Start the force load, by doing this: loader.exe /defaultUSB /forceload When I execute that last command, the Application Loader comes up and says that all applications are up to date and nothing needs to be done. If I execute loader.exe by double-clicking on it (or typing in the command with no parameters), I get the regular Application Loader wizard. It shows my program as listed, but un-checked. If I check it and click next, it will install to the Blackberry. (This is the part that I want to avoid, and that Aerize Card Loader's install process avoids.) What am I missing? It appears that the Aerize installer is doing something different but I haven't been able to ascertain what.

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• Running ASP / ASP.NET markup outside of a web application (perhaps with MVC)

  - by Frank Schwieterman

  Is there a way to include some aspx/ascx markup in a DLL and use that to generate text dynamically? I really just want to pass a model instance to a view and get the produced html as a string. Similar to what you might do with an XSLT transform, except the transform input is a CLR object rather than an XML document. A second benefit is using the ASP.NET code-behind markup which is known by most team members. One way to achieve this would be to load the MVC view engine in-process and perhaps have it use an ASPX file from a resource. It seems like I could call into just the ViewEngine somehow and have it generate a ViewEngineResult. I don't know ASP.NET MVC well enough though to know what calls to make. I don't think this would be possible with classic ASP or ASP.NET as the control model is so tied to the page model, which doesn't exist in this case. Using something like SparkViewEngine in isolation would be cool too, though not as useful since other team members wouldn't know the syntax. At that point I might as well use XSLT (yes I am looking for a clever way to avoid XSLT).

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• FLEX: the custom component is still a Null Object when I invoke its method

  - by Patrick

  Hi, I've created a custom component in Flex, and I've created it from the main application with actionscript. Successively I invoke its "setName" method to pass a String. I get the following run-time error (occurring only if I use the setName method): TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. I guess I get it because I'm calling to newUser.setName method from main application before the component is completely created. How can I ask actionscript to "wait" until when the component is created to call the method ? Should I create an event listener in the main application waiting for it ? I would prefer to avoid it if possible. Here is the code: Main app ... newUser = new userComp(); //newUser.setName("name"); Component: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:VBox xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" width="100" height="200" > <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ public function setName(name:String):void { username.text = name; } public function setTags(Tags:String):void { } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:HBox id="tagsPopup" visible="false"> <mx:LinkButton label="Tag1" /> <mx:LinkButton label="Tag2" /> <mx:LinkButton label="Tag3" /> </mx:HBox> <mx:Image source="@Embed(source='../icons/userIcon.png')"/> <mx:Label id="username" text="Nickname" visible="false"/> </mx:VBox> thanks

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• I write barely functional scripts that tend to not be resuable and make the baby jesus cry. Please h

  - by maxxpower

  I received a request to add around 100 users to a linux box the users are already in ldap so I can't just use newusers and point it at a text file. Another admin is taking care of the ldap piece so all I have to do is create all the home directories and chown them to the correct user once he adds the users to the box. creating the directories isn't a problem, but I'd like a more elegant script for chowning them to the correct user. what I have currently basically looks like chown -R testuser1 testgroup1 /home/tetsuser1; chown -R testuser2 testgroup2 /home/testgroup2; chown -R testsuser3 testgroup1 /home/testuser3 bascially I took the request that the user name and group name popped it into excel added a column of "chown -R" to the front, then added a column of "/", copied and pasted the username column after it and then added a column of ";" and dragged it down to the second to last row. Popped it into notepad ran some quick find and replaces and in less than a minute I have a completed request and a sad empty feeling. I know this was a really ghetto method and I'm trying to get away from using excel to avoid learning new scripting techniques so here's my real question. tl;dr I made 100 home directories and chowned them to the correct users, but it was ugly. Actual question below. You have a file named idlist that looks like this (only with say 1000 users and real usernames and groups) testuser1 testgroup1 testuser2 testgroup2 testuser3 testgroup1 write a script that creates home directories for all the users and chowns the created directories to the correct user and group. To make the directories I used the following(feel free to flame/correct me on this as well. ) var= 'cut -f1 -d" " idlist' (I used backticks not apostrophes around the cut command) mkdir $var

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• Variable Assignment and loops (Java)

  - by Raven Dreamer

  Greetings Stack Overflowers, A while back, I was working on a program that hashed values into a hashtable (I don't remember the specifics, and the specifics themselves are irrelevant to the question at hand). Anyway, I had the following code as part of a "recordInput" method. tempElement = new hashElement(someInt); while(in.hasNext() == true) { int firstVal = in.nextInt(); if (firstVal == -911) { break; } tempElement.setKeyValue(firstVal, 0); for(int i = 1; i<numKeyValues;i++) { tempElement.setKeyValue(in.nextInt(), i); } elementArray[placeValue] = tempElement; placeValue++; } // close while loop } // close method This part of the code was giving me a very nasty bug -- no matter how I finagled it, no matter what input I gave the program, it would always produce an array full of only a single value -- the last one. The problem, as I later determined it, was that because I had not created the tempElement variable within the loop, and because values were not being assigned to elementArray[] until after the loop had ended -- every term was defined rather as "tempElement" -- when the loop terminated, every slot in the array was filled with the last value tempElement had taken. I was able to fix this bug by moving the declaration of tempElement within the while loop. My question to you, Stackoverflow, is whether there is another (read: better) way to avoid this bug while keeping the variable declaration of tempElement outside the while loop. (suggestions for better title and tags also appreciated)

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• How close can I get C# to the performance of C++ for small intensive tasks?

  - by SLC

  I was thinking about the speed difference of C++ to C# being mostly about C# compiling to byte-code that is taken in by the JIT compiler (is that correct?) and all the checks C# does. I notice that it is possible to turn a lot of these functions off, both in the compile options, and possibly through using the unsafe keyword as unsafe code is not verifiable by the common language runtime. Therefore if you were to write a simple console application in both languages, that flipped an imaginary coin an infinite number of times and displayed the results to the screen every 10,000 or so iterations, how much speed difference would there be? I chose this because it's a very simple program. I'd like to test this but I don't know C++ or have the tools to compile it. This is my C# version though: static void Main(string[] args) { unsafe { Random rnd = new Random(); int heads = 0, tails = 0; while (true) { if (rnd.NextDouble() > 0.5) heads++; else tails++; if ((heads + tails) % 1000000 == 0) Console.WriteLine("Heads: {0} Tails: {1}", heads, tails); } } } Is the difference enough to warrant deliberately compiling sections of code "unsafe" or into DLLs that do not have some of the compile options like overflow checking enabled? Or does it go the other way, where it would be beneficial to compile sections in C++? I'm sure interop speed comes into play too then. To avoid subjectivity, I reiterate the specific parts of this question as: Does C# have a performance boost from using unsafe code? Do the compile options such as disabling overflow checking boost performance, and do they affect unsafe code? Would the program above be faster in C++ or negligably different? Is it worth compiling long intensive number-crunching tasks in a language such as C++ or using /unsafe for a bonus? Less subjectively, could I complete an intensive operation faster by doing this?

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• Security implications of writing files using PHP

  - by susmits

  I'm currently trying to create a CMS using PHP, purely in the interest of education. I want the administrators to be able to create content, which will be parsed and saved on the server storage in pure HTML form to avoid the overhead that executing PHP script would incur. Unfortunately, I could only think of a few ways of doing so: Setting write permission on every directory where the CMS should want to write a file. This sounds like quite a bad idea. Setting write permissions on a single cached directory. A PHP script could then include or fopen/fread/echo the content from a file in the cached directory at request-time. This could perhaps be carried out in a Mediawiki-esque fashion: something like index.php?page=xyz could read and echo content from cached/xyz.html at runtime. However, I'll need to ensure the sanity of $_GET['page'] to prevent nasty variations like index.php?page=http://www.bad-site.org/malicious-script.js. I'm personally not too thrilled by the second idea, but the first one sounds very insecure. Could someone please suggest a good way of getting this done?

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• deadlock because of foreign key?

  - by George2

  Hello everyone, I am using SQL Server 2008 Enterprise. I met with deadlock in the following store procedure, but because of my fault, I did not record the deadlock graph. But now I can not reproduce deadlock issue. I want to have a postmortem to find the root cause of deadlock to avoid deadlock in the future. The deadlock happens on delete statement. For the delete statement, Param1 is a column of table FooTable, Param1 is a foreign key of another table (refers to another primary key clustered index column of the other table). There is no index on Param1 itself for table FooTable. FooTable has another column which is used as clustered primary key, but not Param1 column. Here is my guess why there is deadlock, and I want to let people review whether my analysis is correct? Since Param1 column has no index, there will be a table scan, and will acquire table level lock, because of foreign key, the delete operation will also need to check master table (e.g. to acquire lock on master table); Some operation on master table acquires master table lock, but want to acquire lock on FooTable; (1) and (2) cause cycle lock which makes deadlock happen. My analysis correct? Any reproduce scenario? create PROCEDURE [dbo].[FooProc] ( @Param1 int ,@Param2 int ,@Param3 int ) AS DELETE FooTable WHERE Param1 = @Param1 INSERT INTO FooTable ( Param1 ,Param2 ,Param3 ) VALUES ( @Param1 ,@Param2 ,@Param3 ) DECLARE @ID bigint SET @ID = ISNULL(@@Identity,-1) IF @ID > 0 BEGIN SELECT IdentityStr FROM FooTable WHERE ID = @ID END thanks in advance, George

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• 301 Redirecting URLs based on GET variables in .htaccess

  - by technicalbloke

  I have a few messy old URLs like... http://www.example.com/bunch.of/unneeded/crap?opendocument&part=1 http://www.example.com/bunch.of/unneeded/crap?opendocument&part=2 ...that I want to redirect to the newer, cleaner form... http://www.example.com/page.php/welcome http://www.example.com/page.php/prices I understand I can redirect one page to another with a simple redirect i.e. Redirect 301 /bunch.of/unneeded/crap http://www.example.com/page.php But the source page doesn't change, only it's GET vars. I can't figure out how to base the redirect on the value of these GET variables. Can anybody help pls!? I'm fairly handy with the old regexes so I can have a pop at using mod-rewrite if I have to but I'm not clear on the syntax for rewriting GET vars and I'd prefer to avoid the performance hit and use the cleaner Redirect directive. Is there a way? and if not can anyone clue me in as to the right mod-rewrite syntax pls? Cheers, Roger.

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• Use the output of logs in the execution of a program

  - by myle

  When I try to create a specific object, the program crashes. However, I use a module (mechanize) which logs useful information just before the crash. If I had somehow this information available I could avoid it. Is there any way to use the information which is logged (when I use the function set_debug_redirects) during the normal execution of the program? Just to be a bit more specific, I try to emulate the login behavior in a webpage. The program crashes because it can't handle a specific Following HTTP-EQUIV=REFRESH to <omitted_url>. Given this url, which is available in the logs but not as part of the exception which is thrown, I could visit this page and complete successfully the login process. Any other suggestions that may solve the problem are welcomed. It follows the code so far. SERVICE_LOGIN_BOX_URL = "https://www.google.com/accounts/ServiceLoginBox?service=adsense&ltmpl=login&ifr=true&rm=hide&fpui=3&nui=15&alwf=true&passive=true&continue=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.google.com%2Fadsense%2Flogin-box-gaiaauth&followup=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.google.com%2Fadsense%2Flogin-box-gaiaauth&hl=en_US" def init_browser(): # Browser br = mechanize.Browser() # Cookie Jar cj = cookielib.LWPCookieJar() br.set_cookiejar(cj) # Browser options br.set_handle_equiv(True) br.set_handle_gzip(False) br.set_handle_redirect(True) br.set_handle_referer(True) br.set_handle_robots(True) br.set_handle_refresh(mechanize._http.HTTPRefreshProcessor(), max_time=30.0, honor_time=False) # Want debugging messages? #br.set_debug_http(True) br.set_debug_redirects(True) #br.set_debug_responses(True) return br def adsense_login(login, password): br = init_browser() r = br.open(SERVICE_LOGIN_BOX_URL) html = r.read() # Select the first (index zero) form br.select_form(nr=0) br.form['Email'] = login br.form['Passwd'] = password br.submit() req = br.click_link(text='click here to continue') try: # this is where it crashes br.open(req) except HTTPError, e: sys.exit("post failed: %d: %s" % (e.code, e.msg)) return br

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• Django: Serving Media Behind Custom URL

  - by TheLizardKing

  So I of course know that serving static files through Django will send you straight to hell but I am confused on how to use a custom url to mask the true location of the file using Django. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2681338/django-serving-a-download-in-a-generic-view but the answer I accepted seems to be the "wrong" way of doing things. urls.py: url(r'^song/(?P<song_id>\d+)/download/$', song_download, name='song_download'), views.py: def song_download(request, song_id): song = Song.objects.get(id=song_id) fsock = open(os.path.join(song.path, song.filename)) response = HttpResponse(fsock, mimetype='audio/mpeg') response['Content-Disposition'] = "attachment; filename=%s - %s.mp3" % (song.artist, song.title) return response This solution works perfectly but not perfectly enough it turns out. How can I avoid having a direct link to the mp3 while still serving through nginx/apache? EDIT 1 - ADDITIONAL INFO Currently I can get my files by using an address such as: http://www.example.com/music/song/1692/download/ But the above mentioned method is the devil's work. How can I accomplished what I get above while still making nginx/apache serve the media? Is this something that should be done at the webserver level? Some crazy mod_rewrite? http://static.example.com/music/Aphex%20Twin%20-%20Richard%20D.%20James%20(V0)/10%20Logon-Rock%20Witch.mp3

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• URL "fragment identifier" semantics for HTML documents

  - by Pointy

  I've been working with a new installation of the "MoinMoin" wiki software. As I was playing with it, typing in mostly random test pages, I created a link with a fragment blah blah see also [[SomeStuff#whatever|some other stuff about whatever]] Then I needed to figure out how to create the anchor for that "whatever" fragment identifier. I don't recall having to do that with MediaWiki, so I had to dig around, but finally I found that MoinMoin has an "Anchor" macro: == Whatever == <<Anchor(whatever)>> Looking at the generated HTML, I was surprised to see an empty <span> tag with an "id" value of "whatever". I expected that it'd be an <a> tag with a "name" attribute of "whatever". I dug around and found the source, and there's a comment that says they changed it from an <a> tag in order to avoid some IE problem with <pre> sections. This confused me — not because of the IE thing, but because it looked to me as if their "fix" had left the whole anchor mechanism completely broken. Much to my surprise, however, further testing indicated that it worked fine. I wrote a test page with 300 <span> tags all with "id" values, and I further shocked myself when Firefox behaved exactly as I would have expected it to had I used <a> tags. It also worked when I changed all the <span> tags to <em>. So by this time, you're either as surprised as I was, or else you're thinking "how can somebody that dumb have so many reputation points?" If you're in the second category, is it really the case that I've been typing in HTML for about 15 years now — a lot of HTML — and it's somehow escaped my notice that browsers use the HTML fragment to find any sort of element with a matching "id"? mind status: blown

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• Search book by title, and author

  - by Swoosh

  I got a table with columns: author firstname, author lastname, and booktitle Multiple users are inserting in the database, through an import, and I'd like to avoid duplicates. So I'm trying to do something like this: I have a record in the db: First Name: "Isaac" Last Name: "Assimov" Title: "I, Robot" If the user tries to add it again, it would be basically a non-split-text (would not be split up into author firstname, author lastname, and booktitle) So it would basically look like this: "Isaac Asimov - I Robot" or "Asimov, Isaac - I Robot" or "I Robot by Isaac Asimov" You see where I am getting at? (I cannot force the user to split up all the books into into author firstname, author lastname, and booktitle, and I don't even like the idea to force the user, because it's not too user-friendly) What is the best way (in SQL) to compare all this possible bookdata scenarios to what I have in the database, not to add the same book twice. I was thinking about a possibility of suggesting the user: "is THIS the book you are trying to add?" (imagine a list instead of the THIS word, just like on stackoverflow - ask question - Related Questions. I was thinking about soundex and maybe even the like operators, but so far i didn't get the results i was hoping.

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• Memory allocation in detached NSThread to load an NSDictionary in background?

  - by mobibob

  I am trying to launch a background thread to retrieve XML data from a web service. I developed it synchronously - without threads, so I know that part works. Now I am ready to have a non-blocking service by spawning a thread to wait for the response and parse. I created an NSAutoreleasePool inside the thread and release it at the end of the parsing. The code to spawn and the thread are as follows: Spawn from main-loop code: . . [NSThread detachNewThreadSelector:@selector(spawnRequestThread:) toTarget:self withObject:url]; . . Thread (inside 'self'): -(void) spawnRequestThread: (NSURL*) url { NSAutoreleasePool * pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; parser = [[NSXMLParser alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:url]; [self parseContentsOfResponse]; [parser release]; [pool release]; } The method parseContentsOfResponse fills an NSMutableDictionary with the parsed document contents. I would like to avoid moving the data around a lot and allocate it back in the main-loop that spawned the thread rather than making a copy. First, is that possible, and if not, can I simply pass in an allocated pointer from the main thread and allocate with 'dictionaryWithDictionary' method? That just seems so inefficient. Are there perferred designs?

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• How to TDD Asynchronous Events?

  - by Padu Merloti

  The fundamental question is how do I create a unit test that needs to call a method, wait for an event to happen on the tested class and then call another method (the one that we actually want to test)? Here's the scenario if you have time to read further: I'm developing an application that has to control a piece of hardware. In order to avoid dependency from hardware availability, when I create my object I specify that we are running in test mode. When that happens, the class that is being tested creates the appropriate driver hierarchy (in this case a thin mock layer of hardware drivers). Imagine that the class in question is an Elevator and I want to test the method that gives me the floor number that the elevator is. Here is how my fictitious test looks like right now: [TestMethod] public void TestGetCurrentFloor() { var elevator = new Elevator(Elevator.Environment.Offline); elevator.ElevatorArrivedOnFloor += TestElevatorArrived; elevator.GoToFloor(5); //Here's where I'm getting lost... I could block //until TestElevatorArrived gives me a signal, but //I'm not sure it's the best way int floor = elevator.GetCurrentFloor(); Assert.AreEqual(floor, 5); } Edit: Thanks for all the answers. This is how I ended up implementing it: [TestMethod] public void TestGetCurrentFloor() { var elevator = new Elevator(Elevator.Environment.Offline); elevator.ElevatorArrivedOnFloor += (s, e) => { Monitor.Pulse(this); }; lock (this) { elevator.GoToFloor(5); if (!Monitor.Wait(this, Timeout)) Assert.Fail("Elevator did not reach destination in time"); int floor = elevator.GetCurrentFloor(); Assert.AreEqual(floor, 5); } }

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• Creating spotlight in OpenGL scene

  - by Victor Oliveira

  Im studying OpenGL and trying to create a spot light at my application. The code that Im using for my #vertex-shader is below: #:vertex-shader #{ #version 150 core in vec3 in_pos; in vec2 in_tc; out vec2 tc; glLightf(GL_LIGHT0, GL_SPOT_CUTOFF, 20.0f); GLfloat spot_direction[] = { -1.0, -1.0, 0.0 }; glLightfv(GL_LIGHT0, GL_SPOT_DIRECTION, spot_direction); glEnable(GL_LIGHT0); void main() { vec4 pos= vec4(vec3(1.0)*in_pos - vec3(1.0), 1.0); pos.z=0.0; gl_Position = pos; tc = in_tc; } } The thing is, everytime Im trying to run the code an Error that says: Type: other, Source: api, ID: 131169, Severity: low Message: Framebuffer detailed info: The driver allocated storage for renderbuffer 1. len = 157, written = 0 failed to compile vertex shader of deferred: directional info log for shader deferred: directional vertex info log for shader deferred: directional: ERROR: Unbound variable: when Specifications: Renderer: GeForce GTX 580/PCIe/SSE2 Version: 3.3.0 NVIDIA 319.17 GLSL: 3.30 NVIDIA via Cg compiler Status: Using GLEW 1.9.0 1024 x 768 OS: Linux debian I guess to create this spotlight is pretty much simple, but since Im really new to OpenGL I dont have a clue how to do it until now, even reading sources like: http://www.glprogramming.com/red/chapter05.html#name3 Read also in some place that light spots can get really hard to understand, but I cant avoid this step right now since Im following my lecture schedule. Could anybody help me?

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• Reasonable expectation to support new Operating Systems?

  - by Neil N

  My company has a desktop app originally developed for Windows XP. The original programmer has since been fired (fired with extreme prejudice I might add). I have fixed the app various times but overall try to avoid it, it is a mess and the only real way to fix it is to completely rewrite it, which could take a year. We have been trying to "forget" about this app, and instead steer clients towards our web version, which is more up to date, easier to maintain, easier to extend, and WAY easier to support. Most clients agree, the web version is just better all around. However we have one client that insists on using the desktop app. The app required a little duct tape to get working on Vista, but now completely breaks on Windows 7. I'm not even sure WHAT all the fixes are to get it working on Win7 (the current time estimate stands at "miracle") but after both installing the RELEASE build, and running the DEBUG build from Visual Studio, the app has errors on nearly every user action, and from what I can see from a high level test run, none of them are related. Since Windows 7 did not exist when this app was developed, is my company really expected to make all the required changes to make it function as "smoothly" as it did on XP?

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• sql query - how to apply limit within group by

  - by Raj

  hey guys assuming i have a table named t1 with following fields: ROWID, CID, PID, Score, SortKey it has the following data: 1, C1, P1, 10, 1 2, C1, P2, 20, 2 3, C1, P3, 30, 3 4, C2, P4, 20, 3 5, C2, P5, 30, 2 6, C3, P6, 10, 1 7, C3, P7, 20, 2 what query do i write so that it applies group by on CID, but instead of returning me 1 single result per group, it returns me a max of 2 results per group. also where condition is score = 20 and i want the results ordered by CID and SortKey. If I had to run my query on above data, i would expect the following result: RESULTS FOR C1 - note: ROWID 1 is not considered as its score < 20 C1, P2, 20, 2 C1, P3, 30, 3 RESULTS FOR C2 - note: ROWID 5 appears before ROWID 4 as ROWID 5 has lesser value SortKey C2, P5, 30, 2 C2, P4, 20, 3 RESULTS FOR C3 - note: ROWID 6 does not appear as its score is less than 20 so only 1 record returned here C3, P7, 20, 2 IN SHORT, I WANT A LIMIT WITHIN A GROUP BY. I want the simplest solution and want to avoid temp tables. sub queries are fine. also note i am using sqlite for this

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• How do you implement a good profanity filter?

  - by Ben Throop

  Many of us need to deal with user input, search queries, and situations where the input text can potentially contain profanity or undesirable language. Oftentimes this needs to be filtered out. Where can one find a good list of swear words in various languages and dialects? Are there APIs available to sources that contain good lists? Or maybe an API that simply says "yes this is clean" or "no this is dirty" with some parameters? What are some good methods for catching folks trying to trick the system, like a$$, azz, or a55? Bonus points if you offer solutions for PHP. :) Edit: Response to answers that say simply avoid the programmatic issue: I think there is a place for this kind of filter when, for instance, a user can use public image search to find pictures that get added to a sensitive community pool. If they can search for "penis", then they will likely get many pictures of, yep. If we don't want pictures of that, then preventing the word as a search term is a good gatekeeper, though admittedly not a foolproof method. Getting the list of words in the first place is the real question. So I'm really referring to a way to figure out of a single token is dirty or not and then simply disallow it. I'd not bother preventing a sentiment like the totally hilarious "long necked giraffe" reference. Nothing you can do there. :)

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• Android animation's first frame is applied too early on ImageView

  - by Robert

  I have the following View setup in one of my Activities: <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@+id/photoLayout" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent"> <ImageView android:id="@+id/photoImageView" android:src="@drawable/backyardPhoto" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:gravity="center" android:scaleType="centerInside" android:padding="45dip" > </ImageView> </LinearLayout> Without an animation set, this displays just fine. However I want to display a very simple animation. So in my Activity's onStart override, I have the following: @Override public void onStart() { super.onStart(); mPhotoImageView = (ImageView) findViewById(R.id.photoImageView); float offset = -25; int top = mPhotoImageView.getTop(); TranslateAnimation anim1 = new TranslateAnimation( Animation.ABSOLUTE, 0, Animation.ABSOLUTE, 0, Animation.ABSOLUTE, top, Animation.ABSOLUTE, offset); anim1.setInterpolator(new AnticipateInterpolator()); anim1.setDuration(1500); anim1.setStartOffset(5000); TranslateAnimation anim2 = new TranslateAnimation( Animation.ABSOLUTE, 0, Animation.ABSOLUTE, 0, Animation.ABSOLUTE, offset, Animation.ABSOLUTE, top); anim2.setInterpolator(new BounceInterpolator()); anim2.setDuration(3500); anim2.setStartOffset(6500); mBouncingAnimation = new AnimationSet(false); mBouncingAnimation.addAnimation(anim1); mBouncingAnimation.addAnimation(anim2); mPhotoImageView.setAnimation(mBouncingAnimation); } The problem is that when the Activity displays for the first time, the initial position of the photo is not in the center of the screen with padding around. It seems like the first frame of the animation is loaded already. Only after the animation is completed, does the photoImageView "snap" back to the intended location. I've looked and looked and could not find how to avoid this problem. I want the photoImageView to start in the center of the screen, and then the animation to happen, and return it to the center of the screen. The animation should happen by itself without interaction from the user.

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• Password Confirmation Overlay

  - by Alasdair

  Hello, I'm creating a J2EE web application that uses jQuery and Ajax to help with some of the presentation for a user-friendly interface. I've done a lot of work ensuring security around persistant login cookies, and I've decided to request the password from any user that logged in using a persistant login cookie before being allowed to make any changes that could be malicious. This request would only happen once to confirm the user is who they say they are and will last throughout the session. At present, any requests that meet this criteria has their request information stored in session and then the user is forwarded to a page to confirm their password. Once confirmed, the user's original request is then performed and the requestion information removed from session. What I would like to do is avoid all this redirection and minimize what's held in session (even if it's just for a small time), thus improving usability and convenience for the user. I believe that a jQuery overlay could allow me to prompt the user for their password (if required) and then continue to submit the request if successful. I would of originally used ThickBox, but since that's now deprecated I don't see the benefit in implementing it in an application at this development stage. However, I have tried to create an overlay using jQuery but I've scrapped every attempt as I can't seem to make it all come together. My main problem is preventing the submission when the user incorrectly types a password or cancels the overlay. Desired Flow Persistant Login Sensitive Page Submit Password Confirmation Overlay [Continue Submit | (Cancel | Incorrect] I have already created JavaScript code to encrypt the password to be sent in a parameter, but all I need now is a method of controlling the overlay and how best to use Ajax for this purpose. Please ignore the fact that this is a J2EE web application when answering as it is irrelevant really. Thanks in advance, Alasdair

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