Search Results

Search found 44902 results on 1797 pages for 'call naive true'.

Page 243/1797 | < Previous Page | 239 240 241 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250  | Next Page >

  • All Targets Not Being Called (nested Targets not being executed)

    - by obautista
    I am using a two TARGET files. On one TARGET file I call a TARGET that is inside the second TARGET file. This second TARGET then calls another TARGET that has 6 other TARGET calls, which do a number of different things (in addition to calling other nested TARGETS (but inside the same TARGET file)). The problem is that, on the TARGET where I call 6 TARGETS, only the first one is being executed. The program doesnt find its way to call the 2nd, 3rd, 4th, 5th, and 6th TARGET. Is there a limit to the number of nested TARGETS that can be called and run? Nothing is failing. The problem is the other TARGET calls are not running. Thanks for any help you can provide. Oscar Bautista

    Read the article

  • Programmatically selecting file in explorer

    - by flashk
    In my application I can programmatically open explorer and select a file using the following code: void BrowseToFile(LPCTSTR filename) { CString strArgs; strArgs = _T("/select,\""); strArgs += filename; strArgs += _T("\""); ShellExecute(0, _T("open"), _T("explorer.exe"), strArgs, 0, SW_NORMAL); } My problem is that if I call this function a second time with a different file, but in the same folder, the selection in explorer does not change to the new file, but remains on the previous file. For example, if I call my function with C:\path\to\file1.txt, a new explorer window will open and file1.txt will be selected. If I call my function a second time with C:\path\to\file2.txt, the existing explorer window will be activated, but the selection will still be on file1.txt. Is there a way to force explorer to update the selection or a better way to accomplish this?

    Read the article

  • How to use error provider at run time along with associating any control to validate

    - by Shantanu Gupta
    I am trying to create a Validation in a reusable fashion. Purpose: Make the validation control reusable. Error Provider should associate with control passed dynamically and can be set or cleared at run time. When user press OnClick event then all the controls gets validated with their own Error Providers. public bool IsFieldEmpty(ref TextBox txtControl, Boolean SetErrorProvider,string msgToShowOnError) { ErrorProvider EP = new ErrorProvider(); if (txtControl.Text == string.Empty) { if(SetErrorProvider==true) EP.SetError(txtControl, msgToShowOnError); return true; } else { if(SetErrorProvider==true) EP.Clear(); return false; } } Issue: Every time the function is called new errorprovider object gets created which i dont want. Every control should not have more than 1 error provider and i should be able to search it just like as done in asp.net to search for some control on a Page. How can I do this

    Read the article

  • javascript in asp.net

    - by questionbank
    <asp:RadioButtonList ID="RdoBtnHasNotified" runat="server" RepeatDirection="Horizontal" AutoPostBack="True" OnSelectedIndexChanged="RdoBtnHasNotified_SelectedIndexChanged"> <asp:ListItem Value="1">Yes</asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Value="0" Selected="True">No</asp:ListItem> </asp:RadioButtonList> <asp:TextBox ID="TxtHowNotified" runat="server" TextMode="MultiLine" MaxLength="100"></asp:TextBox> i want to enable textbox by clicking on radiobuttonlist but i am not able to do so without making autopostback=true.how can i do it using javascript??

    Read the article

  • jQuery: datepicker - Calendar activated by the icon and the date field at the same time

    - by Ricardo Zea
    Hello, I've already looked around but couldn't find the exact solution/problem I'm having right now. All I want is to have the calendar appear either by clicking on the calendar icon AND from the text field in which the date appears when selecting a date. Right now, after trying different properties, I can only have the calendar appear by one or the other, but not both: the icon and the field. This is the code I'm using to activate it via the icon: $("#datepicker").datepicker({ showOn: 'button', buttonImage: 'images/icon-calendar.gif', buttonImageOnly: true, changeMonth: true, changeYear: true, showAnim: 'slideDown', duration: 'fast' }); Is there a way to have the calendar appear by clicking on the icon AND the field as well? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Asp.net Script manager conflicting with button

    - by DJPB
    Hi there. I'm working on an asp.net app and I have some controls that are created dinamically on the OnInit event. One of that controls is an asp button that has been working fine until now. When I add a ScriptManager to my page, that same button is unnable to postback. It's only working if a take the ScriptManager out. has anything like this ever appened to somebody else? Am I invalidating the page somehow? Tks ps: this is my scrip manager tag: <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" runat="server" EnablePageMethods="true" EnableScriptGlobalization="true" EnableScriptLocalization="true"> </asp:ScriptManager> //My Dynamic Button: Button button1 = new Button { ID = "button1", Text = "Ok" }; button1.Click += new EventHandler(Button1_Click);

    Read the article

  • How do I read user input in python thread?

    - by Sid H
    I'm trying to read from a thread in python as follows import threading, time, random var = True class MyThread(threading.Thread): def set_name(self, name): self.name = name def run(self): global var while var == True: print "In mythread " + self.name time.sleep(random.randint(2,5)) class MyReader(threading.Thread): def run(self): global var while var == True: input = raw_input("Quit?") if input == "q": var = False t1 = MyThread() t1.set_name("One") t2 = MyReader() t1.start() t2.start() However, if I enter 'q', I see the following error. In mythread One Quit?q Exception in thread Thread-2: Traceback (most recent call last): File "/usr/lib/python2.6/threading.py", line 522, in __bootstrap_inner self.run() File "test.py", line 20, in run input = raw_input("Quit?") EOFError In mythread One In mythread One How does on get user input from a thread?

    Read the article

  • Reusing datasource

    - by nubby
    I'm tying to use one database call and reuse that data for other controls - without having to do another call. Scenario: I call the books table which returns all the authors and titles. I create an author's list control called list1 to displays all the titles by Shakespeare and a list2 to display titles by Charles Dickens. Void Bindme() { string commandText = "Select * from books"; SqlCommand mycommand = new SqlCommand(commandText, datasource1); datasource1.Open(); SqlDataReader myReader1 = mycommand.ExecuteReader(); list1.DataSource = myReader1; list1.DataBind(); list2.DataSource = myReader1; list2.DataBind(); datasource1.Close(); } In my example only the first bind to the source, list1, gets data. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • GKSession sendDataToAllPeers including sendee?

    - by Typeoneerror
    I've got a number of devices connected over wifi using GameKit. I have a simple UIAlertView popping up when peers receive data. All but the sendee show this alert view when data is sent, so I'm wondering if that's a bug in my app or if that's expected behavior. Should call a method manually at the same on the sendee device? For example, if I wanted to send a "GameStart" packet to the 4 phones, the peers would call startGame: in the receiveData:fromPeer:inSession:context: method when it receives that packet and the sendee would just sendData and call startGame: on itself. Does that sound right or is there a way to include the sendee in the sendData list so that it responds exactly the same as all connected peers?

    Read the article

  • Problem Rewriting URL's from HTTPS to HTTP using IIS7 URL Rewriter, when using Webforms ReturnURL=

    - by theminesgreg
    I took Jeff's Re-write rules from this post and the HTTP to HTTPS conversion works great. However, going back to HTTP is giving me problems because of the ReturnUrl= in the URL (I'm using webforms). Here's an example of the url: https://localhost/Login.aspx?ReturnUrl=%2f Here's the rewrite rule I'm using: <rule name="HTTPS to HTTP redirect for all other pages" stopProcessing="true"> <match url="^login\.aspx$" ignoreCase="true" negate="true" /> <conditions> <add input="{SERVER_PORT}" pattern="^443$" /> </conditions> <action type="Redirect" redirectType="Found" url="http://{HTTP_HOST}{REQUEST_URI}" /> </rule> Here's the resulting re-written URL: http://localhost/,/ Has anyone found a work around for this?

    Read the article

  • Refer to te current directory in a shell script

    - by One Two Three
    How do I refer to the current directory in a shell script So I have this script which calls another script in the same directory #! /bin/sh #Call the other script ./foo.sh # do something ... For this I got ./foo.sh: No such file or directory So I changed it to: #! /bin/sh #Call the other script foo.sh # do something ... But this would call the foo script which is, by default, in the PATH. This is not what I want. So the question is, what's the syntax of doing './` in a shell script?

    Read the article

  • Rails / JBuilder - Entity array with has_many attributes

    - by seufagner
    I have two models, Person and Image and I want return an json array of Persons with your Images. But I dont want return all Image attributes, but produces a different result. Code below: class Person < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :images, as: :imageable validates :name, presence: true accepts_nested_attributes_for :images, :reject_if => lambda { |img| img['asset'].blank? } end class Image < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :imageable, polymorphic: true mount_uploader :asset, ImageUploader validates :asset, presence: true end zzz.jbuilder.json template json.persons(@rodas, :id, :name, :images) json produced: { "rodas": [{ "id": 4, "name": "John", "images": [ { "asset": { "url": "/uploads/image/xxxx.png" } }, { "asset": { "url": "/uploads/image/yyyyy.jpeg" } } ]}, { "id": 19, "name": "Mary", "images": [ { "asset": { "url": "/uploads/image/kkkkkkk.png" } } ] }] } I want something like: { "rodas": [ { "id": 4, "name": "John", "images": [ "/uploads/image/xxxx.png" , "/uploads/image/yyyy.jpeg" ] }, { "id": 10, "name": "Mary", "images": [ "/uploads/image/dddd.png" , "/uploads/image/xxxx.jpeg" ] } ]}

    Read the article

  • WCF Rest services for use with the repository pattern?

    - by mark smith
    Hi there, I am considering moving my Service Layer and my data layer (repository pattern) to a WCF Rest service. So basically i would have my software installed locally (WPF client) which would call the Service Layer that exists via a Rest Service... The service layer would then call my data layer using a WCF Rest Service also OR maybe just call it via the DLL assembly I was hoping to understand what the performance would be like. Currently I have my datalayer and servicelayer installed locally via DLL Assemblies locally on the pc. Also i presume the WCF REST services won't support method overloading hance the same name but with a different signature?? I would really appreciate any feedback anyone can give. Thanks

    Read the article

  • How can I detect 'any' ajax request being completed using jQuery?

    - by Brian Scott
    I have a page where I can insert some javascript / jquery to manipulate the output. I don't have any other control over the page markup etc. I need to add an extra element via jquery after each present on the page. The issue is that the elements are generated via an asynchronous call on the existing page which occurs after $(document).ready is complete. Essentially, I need a way of calling my jquery after the page has loaded and the subsequent ajax calls have completed. Is there a way to detect the completion of any ajax call on the page and then call my own custom function to insert the additional elements after the newly created s ?

    Read the article

  • How to execute commands in Command Prompt using c#

    - by karthik
    I want to execute these steps in CMD using c# 1 - CD C:\MySQL\MySQL Server 5.0\bin 2 - mysqldump -uroot -ppassword sample d:\Test\222.sql On manually doing this, i will get file named "222.sql" I am using the below code to do it, but missing something.. Nothing Happens public void CreateScript_AAR() { string commandLine = @"CD C:\MySQL\MySQL Server 5.0\bin\mysqldump -uroot -ppassword sample> d:\Test\222.sql"""; System.Diagnostics.ProcessStartInfo PSI = new System.Diagnostics.ProcessStartInfo("cmd.exe"); PSI.RedirectStandardInput = true; PSI.RedirectStandardOutput = true; PSI.RedirectStandardError = true; PSI.UseShellExecute = false; System.Diagnostics.Process p = System.Diagnostics.Process.Start(PSI); System.IO.StreamWriter SW = p.StandardInput; System.IO.StreamReader SR = p.StandardOutput; SW.WriteLine(commandLine); SW.Close(); }

    Read the article

  • Handling missing/incomplete data in R

    - by doug
    As you would expect from a DSL aimed at data analysts, R handles missing/incomplete data very well, for instance: Many R functions have an 'na.rm' flag that you can set to 'T' to remove the NAs, but if you want to deal with this before the function call, then: to replace each 'NA' w/ 0: ifelse(is.na(vx), 0, vx) to remove each 'NA': vx = vx[!is.na(a)] to remove entire each row that contains 'NA' from a data frame: dfx = dfx[complete.cases(dfx),] All of these functions remove 'NA' or rows with an 'NA' in them. Sometimes this isn't quite what you want though--making an 'NA'-excised copy of the data frame might be necessary for the next step in the workflow but in subsequent steps you often want those rows back (e.g., to calculate a column-wise statistic for a column that has missing rows caused by a prior call to 'complete cases' yet that column has no 'NA' values in it). to be as clear as possible about what i'm looking for: python/numpy has a class, 'masked array', with a 'mask' method, which lets you conceal--but not remove--NAs during a function call. Is there an analogous function in R?

    Read the article

  • python json_encode throws KeyError exception

    - by MattM
    In a unit test case that I am running, I get a KeyError exception on the 4th json object in the json text below. I went through the sub-objects and found that it was the "cpuid" object that is the offending object, but I am completely at a loss as to what is wrong with the formatting. response = self.app.post( '/machinestats', params=dict(record=self.json_encode([ {"type": "crash", "instance_id": "xxx", "version": "0.2.0", "build_id": "unknown", "crash_text": "Gah!"}, {"type": "machine_info", "machine_info": "I'm awesome.", "version": "0.2.0", "build_id": "unknown", "instance_id": "yyy"}, {"machine_info": "Soup", "crash_text": "boom!", "version": "0.2.0", "build_id": "unknown", "instance_id": "zzz", "type": "crash"}, {"build_id" : "unknown", "cpu_brand" : "intel", "cpu_count" : 4, "cpuid": { "00000000": {"eax" :123,"ebx" :456, "ecx" :789,"edx" :321}, "00000001": {"eax" :123,"ebx" :456, "ecx" :789,"edx" :321}}, "driver_installed" : True, "instance_id" : "yyy", "version" : "0.2.0", "machine_info" : "I'm awesome.", "os_version" : "linux", "physical_memory_mib" : 1024, "product_loaded" : True, "type" : "machine_info", "virtualization_advertised" : True} ])))

    Read the article

  • Gracefully avoiding NullPointerException in Java

    - by Yuval A
    Consider this line: if (object.getAttribute("someAttr").equals("true")) { // .... Obviously this line is a potential bug, the attribute might be null and we will get a NullPointerException. So we need to refactor it to one of two choices: First option: if ("true".equals(object.getAttribute("someAttr"))) { // .... Second option: String attr = object.getAttribute("someAttr"); if (attr != null) { if (attr.equals("true")) { // .... The first option is awkward to read but more concise, while the second one is clear in intent, but verbose. Which option do you prefer in terms of readability?

    Read the article

  • problems with extended classes and overwrite with methods

    - by Marco
    I have a .net website written in C# and will make functionalities that other developers can use. So i will make some default implementation and a developer can overwrite some methods Example: i have a class ShoppingCart and a class Product the class product haves a method getProductPrice the shoppingcart will call the method getProductPrice for calculating the total price of cart The Shoppingcart and Product are in the same project and i will give the developers the .dll so they can't change the source code so we can update the assembly later So they need to make a other project and extend the product class and overwrite the method getProductPrice so they can implement there own logic The problem is that the shoppingcart will not call the extended method but the original If we make already a extended project for the developers and the shoppingcart will call the extended method then we have a circular reference because the extended product needs a reference to product and the shopping cart to the extended product partial classes also don't works because we only can use partials within the same assembly anyone a suggestion ? thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • cant scroll the scrolview?

    - by Abhi_Iphone_Blackberry
    I have a problem with my UIScrollView. It's visible but I can't scroll it. CGRect frame = CGRectMake(20, 90,280,1000); scroll1=[[UIScrollView alloc]initWithFrame:frame]; scroll1.contentSize = CGSizeMake(280,1000); scroll1.backgroundColor=[UIColor grayColor]; //scroll1.delegate=scroll1; [scroll1 setUserInteractionEnabled:TRUE]; [scroll1 setPagingEnabled:TRUE]; [scroll1 setScrollEnabled:TRUE]; [scroll1 showsVerticalScrollIndicator]; Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Comparing numeric strings

    - by Kiren Siva
    From the question PHP Type-Juggling and (strict) Greater/Lesser Than Comparisons I know PHP interpret strings as numbers whenever it can. "10" < "1a" => 10 less than 1 expecting false "1a" < "2" => 1 less than 2 expecting true "10" > "2" => 10 greater than 2 expecting true But in the case of "10" < "1a" php returns true. I am not understanding the concept please help me to clarify it. Edit: But when I add "10" + "1a" it returns 11 that means php interprets "10" as 10 and "1a" as 1. Is that correct?

    Read the article

  • Zend Framework Custom Validation Class Error Message

    - by remlabm
    The validation fails as it should but does not return the error message. $form->addElement('text', 'phone_number', array( 'required' => true, 'validators' => array( array('NotEmpty', true, array('messages' => 'Enter a valid Phone Number')), array('regex', false, array('pattern' => '/\([0-9]{3}\)\s[0-9]{3}-[0-9]{4}/', 'messages' => 'Enter a valid Phone Number' )), 'CheckPhoneNumber'), ), )); Custom Class: class Custom_Validators_CheckPhoneNumber extends Zend_Validate_Abstract{ const IN_USE = 'inUse'; protected $_messageTemplates = array( self::IN_USE => "'%value%' is currently in use" ); public function isValid($value) { $this->_setValue($value); $user_check = Users::getActive(preg_replace("/[^0-9]/", "", $value)); if($user_check->id){ $this->_error(self::IN_USE); return false; } return true; } } Just fails does not give the "IN_USE" error.

    Read the article

  • Calling a method with getattr in Python

    - by brain_damage
    How to call a method using getattr? I want to create a metaclass, which can call non-existing methods of some other class that start with the word 'oposite_'. The method should have the same number of arguments, but to return the opposite result. def oposite(func): return lambda s, *args, **kw: not oposite(s, *args, **kw) class Negate(type): def __getattr__(self, name): if name.startswith('oposite_'): return oposite(self.__getattr__(name[8:])) def __init__(self,*args,**kwargs): self.__getattr__ = Negate.__getattr__ class P(metaclass=Negate): def yep(self): return True But the problem is that self.__getattr__(sth) returns a NoneType object. >>> p = P() >>> p.oposite_yep() Traceback (most recent call last): File "<pyshell#115>", line 1, in <module> p.oposite_yep() TypeError: <lambda>() takes at least 1 positional argument (0 given) How to deal with this?

    Read the article

  • How Do I get the current instance from an AppDomain?

    - by Spanners
    Hi, I use the default appdomain (AD) which I use to create new appdomains (AD1) when required for running plugins in isolation. When creating the new domain I also wire up the AppDomainUnload event to allow me to call clean up code etc. The issue I seem to have is: 1) Create AD1 from AD 2) Run code in AD1 3) Call AD.Unload(AD1) The code switches to AD1 and calls the unloading event passing in a reference to the current AppDomain (AD1). At this point I'd like to get a reference to the current instance running in AD1 to call a shutdown method however there is no GetInstance on the AppDomain class. Any ideas how I can go about getting it?

    Read the article

  • Remove empty subfolders with PHP

    - by Dmitry Letano
    I am working on a PHP function that will recursively remove all sub-folders that contain no files starting from a given absolute path. Here is the code developed so far: function RemoveEmptySubFolders($starting_from_path) { // Returns true if the folder contains no files function IsEmptyFolder($folder) { return (count(array_diff(glob($folder.DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR."*"), Array(".", ".."))) == 0); } // Cycles thorugh the subfolders of $from_path and // returns true if at least one empty folder has been removed function DoRemoveEmptyFolders($from_path) { if(IsEmptyFolder($from_path)) { rmdir($from_path); return true; } else { $Dirs = glob($from_path.DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR."*", GLOB_ONLYDIR); $ret = false; foreach($Dirs as $path) { $res = DoRemoveEmptyFolders($path); $ret = $ret ? $ret : $res; } return $ret; } } while (DoRemoveEmptyFolders($starting_from_path)) {} } As per my tests this function works, though I would be very delighted to see any ideas for better performing code.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 239 240 241 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250  | Next Page >