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• Why do I always think I know much less than others? [closed]

  - by John Kenedy

  I have been in programming since primary 6. Since the time DOS comes, I have been doing programming in quickbasic 4.5, then to VB 6, then to C#. In between I also do programming in C++. But every time I open Stack Overflow and trying to help others answering their problems, it seems that I know nothing. I feel that I am so stupid even I have been in programming for so long. I would shock reading all the questions and unable to find any clue. Is technology moving too fast that left out me? I feel that technology changes too fast and I can't keep up, when I know ASP.NET web form, MVC is out, when I know MVC, android/iphone/HTML5 app is popular. It seems that I am chasing something and never reach 'it'. I don't know whether this is correct place for me to talk about this. I just wish to listen to opinion like you, how do you think technology should grow instead of recreating language, adding bug here and there to let programmer figure it out, while big company share the solution among themselves. This is exactly how I feel. The simple example is how do you think why doesn't Dictionary<> in .NET provide iterating the object using index? Why must we use Key or GetEnumerator(). Developer has to google and read wasted hour of hour of time to find pieces of hack code to use reflection to achieve reading from index. Where developer will keep it as collection and valuable code. HOwever when times come, everything changes again, developer has to find answer for new silly problems again! Yes, I really hate it! I hate how many big companies are playing with the developer by cutting a big picture into small puzzle and messing it up and asking developer to place it together themselves. As if they are creating problems for us to solve it, so we are unable to grow upfront, we are being manipulated by those silly problems they have created. Another sample would how difficult to collect Cookies from CookieContainer without passing the URL, yes without the URL and I WANT to get all cookie in the cookiecontainer without knowing the URL, I want to iterate all. Why does micros0ft have to limit me from doing that?

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• Html.DropDownListFor() doesn't always render selected value

  - by Andrey

  I have a view model: public class LanguagesViewModel { public IEnumerable<LanguageItem> Languages { get; set; } public IEnumerable<SelectListItem> LanguageItems { get; set; } public IEnumerable<SelectListItem> LanguageLevelItems { get; set; } } public class LanguageItem { public int LanguageId { get; set; } public int SpeakingSkillId { get; set; } public int WritingSkillId { get; set; } public int UnderstandingSkillId { get; set; } public LanguagesViewModel Lvm { get; internal set; } } It's rendered with the following code: <tbody> <% foreach( var language in Model.Languages ) { Html.RenderPartial("LanguageItem", language); } %> </tbody> LanguageItem.ascx: <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<HrmCV.Web.ViewModels.LanguageItem>" %> <tr id="lngRow"> <td class="a_left"> <%: Html.DropDownListFor(m => m.LanguageId, Model.Lvm.LanguageItems, null, new { @class = "span-3" }) %> </td> <td> <%: Html.DropDownListFor(m => m.SpeakingSkillId, Model.Lvm.LanguageLevelItems, null, new { @class = "span-3" }) %> </td> <td> <%: Html.DropDownListFor(m => m.WritingSkillId, Model.Lvm.LanguageLevelItems, null, new { @class = "span-3" })%> </td> <td> <%: Html.DropDownListFor(m => m.UnderstandingSkillId, Model.Lvm.LanguageLevelItems, null, new { @class = "span-3" })%> </td> <td> <div class="btn-primary"> <a class="btn-primary-l" onclick="DeleteLanguage(this.id)" id="btnDel" href="javascript:void(0)"><%:ViewResources.SharedStrings.BtnDelete%></a> <span class="btn-primary-r"></span> </div> </td> </tr> The problem is that upon POST, LanguageId dropdown doesn't render its previously selected value. While all other dropdowns - do render. I cannot see any differences in the implementation between them. What is the reason for such behavior?

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• The parameters dictionary contains a null entry for parameter

  - by ognjenb

  <%using (Html.BeginForm("OrderDevice", "ImportXML", FormMethod.Post)) { %> <table id="OrderDevices" class="data-table"> <tr> <th> DeviceId </th> <th> Id </th> <th> OrderId </th> </tr> <% foreach (var item in Model) { %> <tr> <td> <input readonly="readonly" class="" id="DeviceId" type="text" name="<%= Html.Encode(item.DeviceId) %>" value="<%= Html.Encode(item.DeviceId) %>" style="width: 61px" /> </td> <td> <input readonly="readonly" class="" id="c" type="text" name= "<%= Html.Encode(item.Id) %>" value=" <%= Html.Encode(item.Id) %>" style="width: 50px" /> </td> <td> <input readonly="readonly" class="" id="OrderId" type="text" name= " <%= Html.Encode(item.OrderId) %>" value="<%= Html.Encode(item.OrderId) %> " style="width: 49px" /> </td> </tr> <% } %> </table> <input type="submit" value="Create"/> <%} %> My controller action: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult OrderDevice(int id) { try { // TODO: Add insert logic here orderdevice ord = new orderdevice(); ord.Id = System.Convert.ToInt32(Request.Form["Id"]); ord.OrderId = System.Convert.ToInt32(Request.Form["OrderId"]); ord.DeviceId = System.Convert.ToInt32(Request.Form["DeviceId"]); XMLEntities.AddToorderdevice(ord); XMLEntities.SaveChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch { return View("Index"); } } When post a form I have this error: The parameters dictionary contains a null entry for parameter 'id' of non-nullable type 'System.Int32' for method 'System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult OrderDevice(Int32)' in 'MvcKVteam.Controllers.ImportXMLController'. An optional parameter must be a reference type, a nullable type, or be declared as an optional parameter. Parameter name: parameters How fix it?

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• Attempting to update partial view using Ajax.ActionLink gives error in MicrosoftAjax.js

  - by mwright

  I am trying to update the partial view ( "OnlyPartialView" ) from an Ajax.ActionLink which is in the same partial view. While executing the foreach loop it throws this error in a popup box in visual studio: htmlfile: Unknown runtime error This error puts the break point in the MicrosoftAjax.js file, Line 5, Col 83,632, Ch 83632. The page is not updated appropriately. Any thoughts or ideas on how I could troubleshoot this? It was previously nested partial views, I've simplified it for this example but this code produces the same error. Is there a better way to do what I am trying to do? Index Page: <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftAjax.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftMvcAjax.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <ul> <% foreach (DomainObject domainObject in Model) { %> <% Html.RenderPartial("OnlyPartialView", domainObject); %> <% } %> </ul> OnlyPartialView: <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<ProjectName.Models.DomainObject>" %> <%@ Import Namespace="ProjectName.Models"%> <li> <div id="<%=Model.Id%>"> //DISPLAY ATTRIBUTES </div> <div id="<%= Model.Id %>ActionStateLinks"> <% foreach ( var actionStateLink in Model.States[0].State.ActionStateLinks) {%> <div id="Div1"> <div> <%= actionStateLink.Action.Name %> </div> <div> <%= Ajax.ActionLink("Submit this Action", "DoAction", "ViewController", new { id = Model.Id, id2 = actionStateLink.ActionStateLinkId }, new AjaxOptions{ UpdateTargetId = Model.Id.ToString()} )%> </div> </div> <br /> <%} %> </div> </li> Controller: public ActionResult DoAction(Guid id, Guid id2) { DomainObject domainObject = _repository.GetDomainObject(id); ActionStateLink actionStateLink = _repository.GetActionStateLink(id2); domainObject.States[0].StateId = actionStateLink.FollowingStateId; repository.AddDomainObjectAction(domainObject, actionStateLink, DateTime.Now); _repository.Save(); return PartialView("OnlyPartialView", _repository.GetDomainObject(id)); }

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• after return PartialView() Url.Actionlink("Action", "Controller"), the Controller is lost

  - by Johannes

  Well the Question is related to a problem I posted before (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2403899/asp-net-mvc-partial-view-does-not-call-my-action). In practice I've a partial view which contains a Form, after submitting the Form the Controller returns the Partial View. Well the Problem is if I reload the page which contains the partial view the function <%= Url.Action("ChangePassword", "Account") %> returns "Account/ChangePassword", if I submit the form and the partial is returned by the controller. Using return PartialView() the function <%= Url.Action("ChangePassword", "Account") %> returns only "ChangePassword". Any Idea because? The View looks like: <form action="<%= Url.Action("ChangePassword", "Account") %>" method="post" id="jform"> <div> <fieldset> <legend>Account Information</legend> <p> <label for="currentPassword">Current password:</label> <%= Html.Password("currentPassword") %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("currentPassword") %> </p> <p> <label for="newPassword">New password:</label> <%= Html.Password("newPassword") %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("newPassword") %> </p> <p> <label for="confirmPassword">Confirm new password:</label> <%= Html.Password("confirmPassword") %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("confirmPassword") %> </p> <p> <input type="submit" value="Change Password" /> </p> </fieldset> </div> </form> </div> <script> $(function() { $('#jform').submit(function() { $('#jform').ajaxSubmit({ target: '#FmChangePassword' }); return false; }); }); </script> Part of the Controller: if (!ValidateChangePassword(currentPassword, newPassword, confirmPassword)) { return PartialView(ViewData); }

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• How to fix a NHibernate lazy loading error "no session or session was closed"?

  - by MCardinale

  I'm developing a website with ASP.NET MVC, NHibernate and Fluent Hibernate and getting the error "no session or session was closed" when I try to access a child object. These are my domain classes: public class ImageGallery { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Title { get; set; } public virtual IList<Image> Images { get; set; } } public class Image { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual ImageGallery ImageGallery { get; set; } public virtual string File { get; set; } } These are my maps: public class ImageGalleryMap:ClassMap<ImageGallery> { public ImageGalleryMap() { Id(x => x.Id); Map(x => x.Title); HasMany(x => x.Images); } } public class ImageMap:ClassMap<Image> { public ImageMap() { Id(x => x.Id); References(x => x.ImageGallery); Map(x => x.File); } } And this is my Session Factory helper class: public class NHibernateSessionFactory { private static ISessionFactory _sessionFactory; private static ISessionFactory SessionFactory { get { if(_sessionFactory == null) { _sessionFactory = Fluently.Configure() .Database(MySQLConfiguration.Standard.ConnectionString(MyConnString)) .Mappings(m => m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<ImageGalleryMap>()) .ExposeConfiguration(c => c.Properties.Add("hbm2ddl.keywords", "none")) .BuildSessionFactory(); } return _sessionFactory; } } public static ISession OpenSession() { return SessionFactory.OpenSession(); } } Everything works fine, when I get ImageGallery from database using this code: IImageGalleryRepository igr = new ImageGalleryRepository(); ImageGallery ig = igr.GetById(1); But, when I try to access the Image child object with this code string imageFile = ig.Images[1].File; I get this error: Initializing[Entities.ImageGallery#1]-failed to lazily initialize a collection of role: Entities.ImageGallery.Images, no session or session was closed Someone know how can I fix this? Thank you very much!

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• passing parameters to .aspx page using renderpartial

  - by dexter

  in my index.aspx page i want to render another module.aspx page using renderpartial which then render a .htm file depanding on which parameter is passed from index.aspx (it would be number ie 1,2 etc ,so as to call different different .htm file everytime depending on the parameter) 1). now i want Index.aspx page to render module.aspx and pass it a parameter(1,2,3,etc) [the parameters would be passed programatically (hardcoded)] and 2). mudule.aspx should catch the parameter and depending on it will call .htm file my index.aspx has <% ViewData["TemplateId"] = 1; %> <% Html.RenderPartial("/Views/Templates/MyModule.aspx", ViewData["TemplateId"]); %> and module.aspx contains <%@ Page Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" %> <script type="text/javascript" src="/Scripts/jquery-1.3.2.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="/Scripts/Service.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> debugger; var tid = '<%=ViewData["TemplateId"] %>'; $.get("/Templates/Select/" + tid, function(result) { $("#datashow").html(result); }); </script> <div id="datashow"></div> this is my controller which is called by $.get(....) (see code) public ActionResult Select(int id) { return File("/Views/Templates/HTML_Temp" +id.ToString()+".htm" , "text/html"); } and finally my .htm file <div id="divdata" class="sys-template"> <p>Event Title:<input id="title" size="150" type="text" style="background-color:yellow;font-size:25px;width: 637px;" readonly="readonly" value="{{title}}" /> </p> <p>Event Description:<input type="text" id="description" value="{{ description }}" readonly="readonly" style="width: 312px" /></p> <p>Event Date: <input type="text" id="date" value="{{ date }}" readonly="readonly" style="width: 251px"/></p> <p>Keywords : <input type="text" id="keywords" value="{{keywords}}" readonly="readonly" /></p> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> Sys.Application.add_init(appInit); function appInit() { start(); } </script> start() is javascript method which is in file Service.js when i run this programm it gives me error js runtime error: 'object expected' and debugger highlighted on <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/**xhtml**1-strict.dtd"> pls help me solve the problem

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• NHibernate: No persister error

  - by Mike

  Hello, In my quest to further my knowledge, I'm trying to get get NHibernate running. I have the following structure to my solution Core Class Library Project Infrastructure Class Library Project MVC Application Project Test Project In my Core project I have created the following entity: using System; namespace Core.Domain.Model { public class Category { public virtual Guid Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } } } In my Infrastructure Project I have the following mapping: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" namespace="Core.Domain.Model" assembly="Core"> <class name="Category" table="Categories" dynamic-update="true"> <cache usage="read-write"/> <id name="Id" column="Id" type="Guid"> <generator class="guid"/> </id> <property name="Name" length="100"/> </class> </hibernate-mapping> With the following config file: <hibernate-configuration xmlns="urn:nhibernate-configuration-2.2"> <session-factory> <property name="connection.driver_class">NHibernate.Driver.SqlClientDriver</property> <property name="connection.connection_string">server=xxxx;database=xxxx;Integrated Security=true;</property> <property name="show_sql">true</property> <property name="dialect">NHibernate.Dialect.MsSql2008Dialect</property> <property name="cache.use_query_cache">false</property> <property name="adonet.batch_size">100</property> <property name="proxyfactory.factory_class">NHibernate.ByteCode.Castle.ProxyFactoryFactory, NHibernate.ByteCode.Castle</property> <mapping assembly="Infrastructure" /> </session-factory> </hibernate-configuration> In my test project, I have the following Test [TestMethod] [DeploymentItem("hibernate.cfg.xml")] public void CanCreateCategory() { IRepository<Category> repo = new CategoryRepository(); Category category = new Category(); category.Name = "ASP.NET"; repo.Save(category); } I get the following error when I try to run the test: Test method Volunteer.Tests.CategoryTests.CanCreateCategory threw exception: NHibernate.MappingException: No persister for: Core.Domain.Model.Category. Any help would be greatly appreciated. I do have the cfg build action set to embedded resource. Thanks!

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• jQuery Ajax (beforeSend and complete) working properly on FireFox but not on IE8 and Chrome

  - by Farhan Zia

  I am using jQuery ajax version 1.4.1 in my MVC application (though the issue I am discussing was same with the old jQuery version 3.2.1) as well, to check during customer registration if the username is already registered. As the user clicks on the "Check Availibility" button, I am showing a busy image in place of the check button (actually hiding the check button and showing the image) while checking the availibility on the server and then displaying a message. It is a Sync call (async: false) and I used beforeSend: and complete: to show and hide the busy image and the check button. This thing is working well on Firefox but in IE 8 and Chrome, neither the busy image appear nor the check button hides rather the check button remained pressed as the whole thing has hanged. The available and not available messages appear correctly though. Below is the code: HTML in a User Control (ascx): (i have replaced the angular braces with square below) [div id="available"]This Username is Available [div id="not_available"]This Username is not available [input id="txtUsername" name="txtUsername" type="text" size="50" /]  [button id="check" name="check" type="button"]Check Availability[/button] [img id="busy" src="/Content/Images/busy.gif" /] On the top of this user control, I am linking an external javascript file that has the following code: $(document).ready(function() { $('img#busy').hide(); $('div#available').hide(); $('div#not_available').hide(); $("button#check").click(function() { var available = checkUsername($("input#txtUsername").val()); if (available == "1") { $("div#available").show(); $("div#not_available").hide(); } else { $("div#available").hide(); $("div#not_available").show(); } }); }); function checkUsername(username) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/SomeController/SomeAction", data: { "id": username }, timeout: 3000, async: false, beforeSend: function() { $("button#check").hide(); $("img#busy").show(); }, complete: function() { $("button#check").show(); $("img#busy").hide(); }, cache: false, success: function(result) { return result; }, error: function(error) { $("img#busy").hide(); $("button#check").show(); alert("Some problems have occured. Please try again later: " + error); } }); }

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• Help organising controllers logically

  - by kenny99

  Hi guys, I'm working on a site which i'm developing using an MVC structure. My models will represent all of data in the site, but i'm struggling a bit to decide on a good controller structure. The site will allow users to login/register and see personal data on a number of pages, but also still have access to public pages, e.g FAQs, Contact page etc. This is what I have at the moment... A Template Controller which handles main template display. The basic template for the site will remain the same whether or not you are logged in. A main Website Controller which extends the Template Controller and handles basic authentication. If the user is logged in, a User::control_panel() method is called from the constructor and this builds the control panel which will be present throughout the authenticated session. If user is not logged in, then a different view is loaded instead of the control panel, e.g with a login form. All protected/public page related controllers will extend the website controller. The user homepage has a number of widgets I want to display, which I'm doing via a Home Controller which extends the Website Controller. This controller generates these widgets via the following static calls: $this->template->content->featured_pet = Pet::featured(); $this->template->content->popular_names = Pet::most_popular(); $this->template->content->owner_map = User::generate_map(); $this->template->content->news = News::snippet(); I suppose the first thing I'm unsure about is if the above static calls to controllers (e.g Pet and User) are ok to remain static - these static methods will return views which are loaded into the main template. This is the way I've done things in the past but I'm curious to find out if this is a sensible approach. Other protected pages for signed in users will be similar to the Home Controller. Static pages will be handled by a Page Controller which will also extend the Website Controller, so that it will know whether or not the user control panel or login form should be shown on the left hand side of the template. The protected member only pages will not be routed to the Page Controller, this controller will only handle publicly available pages. One problem I have at the moment, is that if both public and protected pages extend the Website Controller, how do I avoid an infinite loop - for example, the idea is that the website controller should handle authentication then redirect to the requested controller (URL), but this will cause an infinite redirect loop, so i need to come up with a better way of dealing with this. All in all, does this setup make any sense?! Grateful for any feedback.

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• Implementing EAV pattern with Hibernate for User -> Settings relationship

  - by Trevor

  I'm trying to setup a simple EAV pattern in my web app using Java/Spring MVC and Hibernate. I can't seem to figure out the magic behind the hibernate XML setup for this scenario. My database table "SETUP" has three columns: user_id (FK) setup_item setup_value The database composite key is made up of user_id | setup_item Here's the Setup.java class: public class Setup implements CommonFormElements, Serializable { private Map data = new HashMap(); private String saveAction; private Integer speciesNamingList; private User user; Logger log = LoggerFactory.getLogger(Setup.class); public String getSaveAction() { return saveAction; } public void setSaveAction(String action) { this.saveAction = action; } public User getUser() { return user; } public void setUser(User user) { this.user = user; } public Integer getSpeciesNamingList() { return speciesNamingList; } public void setSpeciesNamingList(Integer speciesNamingList) { this.speciesNamingList = speciesNamingList; } public Map getData() { return data; } public void setData(Map data) { this.data = data; } } My problem with the Hibernate setup, is that I can't seem to figure out how to map out the fact that a foreign key and the key of a map will construct the composite key of the table... this is due to a lack of experience using Hibernate. Here's my initial attempt at getting this to work: <composite-id> <key-many-to-one foreign-key="id" name="user" column="user_id" class="Business.User"> <meta attribute="use-in-equals">true</meta> </key-many-to-one> </composite-id> <map lazy="false" name="data" table="setup"> <key column="user_id" property-ref="user"/> <composite-map-key class="Command.Setup"> <key-property name="data" column="setup_item" type="string"/> </composite-map-key> <element column="setup_value" not-null="true" type="string"/> </map> Any insight into how to properly map this common scenario would be most appreciated!

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• Custom validator not invoked when using Validation Application Block through configuration

  - by Chris

  I have set up a ruleset in my configuration file which has two validators, one of which is a built-in NotNullValidator, the other of which is a custom validator. The problem is that I see the NotNullValidator hit, but not my custom validator. The custom validator is being used to validate an Entity Framework entity object. I have used the debugger to confirm the NotNull is hit (I forced a failure condition so I saw it set an invalid result), but it never steps into the custom one. I am using MVC as the web app, so I defined the ruleset in a config file at that layer, but my custom validator is defined in another project. However, I wouldn't have thought that to be a problem because when I use the Enterprise Library Configuration tool inside Visual Studio 2008 it is able to set the type properly for the custom validator. As well, I believe the custom validator is fine as it builds ok, and the config tool can reference it properly. Does anybody have any ideas what the problem could be, or even what to do/try to debug further? Here is a stripped down version of my custom validator: [ConfigurationElementType(typeof(CustomValidatorData))] public sealed class UserAccountValidator : Validator { public UserAccountValidator(NameValueCollection attributes) : base(string.Empty, "User Account") { } protected override string DefaultMessageTemplate { get { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } protected override void DoValidate(object objectToValidate, object currentTarget, string key, ValidationResults results) { if (!currentTarget.GetType().Equals(typeof(UserAccount))) { throw new Exception(); } UserAccount userAccountToValidate = (UserAccount)currentTarget; // snipped code ... this.LogValidationResult(results, "The User Account is invalid", currentTarget, key); } } Here is the XML of my ruleset in Validation.config (the NotNull rule is only there to force a failure so I could see it getting hit, and it does): <validation> <type defaultRuleset="default" assemblyName="MyProj.Entities, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" name="MyProj.Entities.UserAccount"> <ruleset name="default"> <properties> <property name="HashedPassword"> <validator negated="true" messageTemplate="" messageTemplateResourceName="" messageTemplateResourceType="" tag="" type="Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Validation.Validators.NotNullValidator, Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Validation, Version=4.1.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35" name="Not Null Validator" /> </property> <property name="Property"> <validator messageTemplate="" messageTemplateResourceName="" messageTemplateResourceType="" tag="" type="MyProj.Entities.UserAccountValidator, MyProj.Entities, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" name="Custom Validator" /> </property> </properties> </ruleset> </type> </validation> And here is the stripped down version of the way I invoke the validation: var type = entity.GetType() var validator = ValidationFactory.CreateValidator(type, "default", new FileConfigurationSource("Validation.config")) var results = validator.Validate(entity) Any advice would be much appreciated! Thanks, Chris

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• When does the .NET FormAuthentication ticket get checked and how do I tap into this event?

  - by Mustafakidd

  Hello everyone - We are attempting to integrate an ASP.NET MVC site with our client's SSO system using PingFederate. I would like to use the built in FormsAuthentication framework to do this. The way I've gone about it so far is: Set up my Web.config so that my FormsAuthentication LoginURL goes to my site's "BeginAuthentication" action on a "Security" controller. From this action, I set up some session variables (what URL was being accessed, for example, since Ping won't send this info back to me), and then redirect to our client's login page on an external site (www.client.com/Login for example). From here, the authentication takes place and a cookie is generated on the same domain as the one that our application is running on which contains the unique identifier of the authenticated user, I've set it up so that once this happens, the Ping server will redirect to my "EndAuthentication" action on my "Security" controller. In this action, I call my membership class's "ValidateUser" method which takes this unique identifier from the cookie and loads in the user on our application that this ID refers to. I save that logged in user in our Session (Session["LoggedInAs"], for example) and expire the cookie that contains the id of the authenticated user that the SSO system provided for me. All of this works well. The issue I'm wondering about is what happens after our user has already authenticated and manually goes back to our client's login page (www.client.com/login) and logs in as another user. If they do that, then the flow from #2 above to number 3 happens as normal - but since there already exists an authenticated user on our site, it seems as though the FormsAuthentication system doesn't bother kicking off anything so I don't get a chance to check for the cookie I'm looking for to login as this new user. What I'd like to do is, somewhere in my Global.asax file (probably FormsAuthenticate_OnAuthenticate), check to see if the cookie that the SSO system sends to me exists, and if so, sign out of the application using FormsAuthentication.SignOut(). Another issue that seems to be related is that if I let my Session expire, the FormsAuthentication still seems to think I am authenticated and it lets me access a page even though no currently logged in user exists in my Session, so the page doesn't render correctly. Should I tap into the Session_End event and do FormsAuthentication.SignOut() here as well? Basically, I want to know when the authentication ticket created by System.Web.Security.FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(..) gets checked in the flow of a request so that I can determine whether I need to SignOut() and force revalidation or not. Thanks for any help. Sorry for the length of this message, trying to be as detailed as possible. Mustafa

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• Maintaining ViewModel fields with default model binding and failed validation

  - by TonE

  I have an ASP.Net MVC Controller with a 'MapColumns' action along with a corresponding ViewModel and View. I'm using the defaultModelBinder to bind a number of drop down lists to a Dictionary in the ViewModel. The view model also contains an IList field for both source and destination columns which are used to render the view. My question is what to do when validation fails on the Post call to the MapColumns action? Currently the MapColumns view is returned with the ViewModel resulting from the default binding. This contains the Dictionary values but not the two lists used to render the page. What is the best way to re-provide these to the view? I can set them explicitly after failed validation, but if obtaining these values (via GetSourceColumns() and GetDestinationColumns() in the example) carries any overhead this doesn't seem ideal. What I am looking for is a way to retain these lists when they are not bound to the model from the view. Here is some code to illustrate: public class TestViewModel { public Dictionary<string, string> ColumnMappings { get; set; } public List<string> SourceColumns; public List<string> DestinationColumns; } public class TestController : Controller { [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Get)] public ActionResult MapColumns() { var model = new TestViewModel; model.SourceColumns = GetSourceColumns(); model.DestinationColumns = GetDestinationColumns(); return View(model); } [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult MapColumns(TestViewModel model) { if( Validate(model) ) { // Do something with model.ColumnMappings RedirectToAction("Index"); } else { // Here model.SourceColumns and model.DestinationColumns are empty return View(model); } } } The relevant section of MapColumns.aspx: <% int columnCount = 0; foreach(string column in Model.targetColumns) {%> <tr> <td> <input type="hidden" name="ColumnMappings[<%= columnCount %>].Value" value="<%=column %>" /> <%= Html.DropDownList("ColumnMappings[" + columnCount + "].Key", Model.DestinationColumns.AsSelectItemList())%> </td> </tr> <% columnCount++; }%>

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• Wondering why DisplayName attribute is ignored in LabelFor on an overridden property

  - by Lasse Krantz

  Hi, today I got confused when doing a couple of <%=Html.LabelFor(m=>m.MyProperty)%> in ASP.NET MVC 2 and using the [DisplayName("Show this instead of MyProperty")] attribute from System.ComponentModel. As it turned out, when I put the attribute on an overridden property, LabelFor didn't seem to notice it. However, the [Required] attribute works fine on the overridden property, and the generated errormessage actually uses the DisplayNameAttribute. This is some trivial examplecode, the more realistic scenario is that I have a databasemodel separate from the viewmodel, but for convenience, I'd like to inherit from the databasemodel, add View-only properties and decorating the viewmodel with the attributes for the UI. public class POCOWithoutDataAnnotations { public virtual string PleaseOverrideMe { get; set; } } public class EditModel : POCOWithoutDataAnnotations { [Required] [DisplayName("This should be as label for please override me!")] public override string PleaseOverrideMe { get { return base.PleaseOverrideMe; } set { base.PleaseOverrideMe = value; } } [Required] [DisplayName("This property exists only in EditModel")] public string NonOverriddenProp { get; set; } } The strongly typed ViewPage<EditModel> contains: <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.PleaseOverrideMe) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.PleaseOverrideMe) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.PleaseOverrideMe) %> </div> <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.NonOverriddenProp) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.NonOverriddenProp) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.NonOverriddenProp) %> </div> The labels are then displayed as "PleaseOverrideMe" (not using the DisplayNameAttribute) and "This property exists only in EditModel" (using the DisplayNameAttribute) when viewing the page. If I post with empty values, triggering the validation with this ActionMethod: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(EditModel model) { if (!ModelState.IsValid) return View(model); return View("Thanks"); } the <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.PleaseOverrideMe) %> actually uses [DisplayName("This should be as label for please override me!")] attribute, and produces the default errortext "The This should be as label for please override me! field is required." Would some friendly soul shed some light on this?

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• ELMAH - Using custom error pages to collecting user feedback

  - by vdh_ant

  Hey guys I'm looking at using ELMAH for the first time but have a requirement that needs to be met that I'm not sure how to go about achieving... Basically, I am going to configure ELMAH to work under asp.net MVC and get it to log errors to the database when they occur. On top of this I be using customErrors to direct the user to a friendly message page when an error occurs. Fairly standard stuff... The requirement is that on this custom error page I have a form which enables to user to provide extra information if they wish. Now the problem arises due to the fact that at this point the error is already logged and I need to associate the loged error with the users feedback. Normally, if I was using my own custom implementation, after I log the error I would pass through the ID of the error to the custom error page so that an association can be made. But because of the way that ELMAH works, I don't think the same is quite possible. Hence I was wondering how people thought that one might go about doing this.... Cheers UPDATE: My solution to the problem is as follows: public class UserCurrentConextUsingWebContext : IUserCurrentConext { private const string _StoredExceptionName = "System.StoredException."; private const string _StoredExceptionIdName = "System.StoredExceptionId."; public virtual string UniqueAddress { get { return HttpContext.Current.Request.UserHostAddress; } } public Exception StoredException { get { return HttpContext.Current.Application[_StoredExceptionName + this.UniqueAddress] as Exception; } set { HttpContext.Current.Application[_StoredExceptionName + this.UniqueAddress] = value; } } public string StoredExceptionId { get { return HttpContext.Current.Application[_StoredExceptionIdName + this.UniqueAddress] as string; } set { HttpContext.Current.Application[_StoredExceptionIdName + this.UniqueAddress] = value; } } } Then when the error occurs, I have something like this in my Global.asax: public void ErrorLog_Logged(object sender, ErrorLoggedEventArgs args) { var item = new UserCurrentConextUsingWebContext(); item.StoredException = args.Entry.Error.Exception; item.StoredExceptionId = args.Entry.Id; } Then where ever you are later you can pull out the details by var item = new UserCurrentConextUsingWebContext(); var error = item.StoredException; var errorId = item.StoredExceptionId; item.StoredException = null; item.StoredExceptionId = null; Note this isn't 100% perfect as its possible for the same IP to have multiple requests to have errors at the same time. But the likely hood of that happening is remote. And this solution is independent of the session, which in our case is important, also some errors can cause sessions to be terminated, etc. Hence why this approach has worked nicely for us.

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• Strange error in SpringMVC Application Startup

  - by Euzel Villanueva

  I'm getting a very strange stack trace when trying to load a SpringMVC application and at a lost to why this is occurring. org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name 'org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.AnnotationMethodHandlerAdapter#0': Cannot create inner bean '(inner bean)' of type [org.springframework.http.converter.xml.XmlAwareFormHttpMessageConverter] while setting bean property 'messageConverters' with key [4]; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name '(inner bean)#6': Instantiation of bean failed; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.BeanInstantiationException: Could not instantiate bean class [org.springframework.http.converter.xml.XmlAwareFormHttpMessageConverter]: Constructor threw exception; nested exception is java.lang.OutOfMemoryError: Java heap space at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.BeanDefinitionValueResolver.resolveInnerBean(BeanDefinitionValueResolver.java:281) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.BeanDefinitionValueResolver.resolveValueIfNecessary(BeanDefinitionValueResolver.java:125) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.BeanDefinitionValueResolver.resolveManagedList(BeanDefinitionValueResolver.java:353) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.BeanDefinitionValueResolver.resolveValueIfNecessary(BeanDefinitionValueResolver.java:153) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.applyPropertyValues(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:1325) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.populateBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:1086) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.doCreateBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:517) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.createBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:456) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanFactory$1.getObject(AbstractBeanFactory.java:291) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultSingletonBeanRegistry.getSingleton(DefaultSingletonBeanRegistry.java:222) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanFactory.doGetBean(AbstractBeanFactory.java:288) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanFactory.getBean(AbstractBeanFactory.java:190) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory.preInstantiateSingletons(DefaultListableBeanFactory.java:580) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.finishBeanFactoryInitialization(AbstractApplicationContext.java:895) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.refresh(AbstractApplicationContext.java:425) at org.springframework.web.servlet.FrameworkServlet.createWebApplicationContext(FrameworkServlet.java:442) at org.springframework.web.servlet.FrameworkServlet.createWebApplicationContext(FrameworkServlet.java:458) at org.springframework.web.servlet.FrameworkServlet.initWebApplicationContext(FrameworkServlet.java:339) at org.springframework.web.servlet.FrameworkServlet.initServletBean(FrameworkServlet.java:306) at org.springframework.web.servlet.HttpServletBean.init(HttpServletBean.java:127) at javax.servlet.GenericServlet.init(GenericServlet.java:160) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapper.initServlet(StandardWrapper.java:1133) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapper.loadServlet(StandardWrapper.java:1087) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapper.load(StandardWrapper.java:996) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContext.loadOnStartup(StandardContext.java:4834) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContext$3.call(StandardContext.java:5155) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContext$3.call(StandardContext.java:5150) at java.util.concurrent.FutureTask$Sync.innerRun(FutureTask.java:303) at java.util.concurrent.FutureTask.run(FutureTask.java:138) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor$Worker.runTask(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:886) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor$Worker.run(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:908) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:619) Caused by: org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name '(inner bean)#6': Instantiation of bean failed; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.BeanInstantiationException: Could not instantiate bean class [org.springframework.http.converter.xml.XmlAwareFormHttpMessageConverter]: Constructor threw exception; nested exception is java.lang.OutOfMemoryError: Java heap space at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.instantiateBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:965) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.createBeanInstance(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:911) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.doCreateBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:485) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.createBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:456) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.BeanDefinitionValueResolver.resolveInnerBean(BeanDefinitionValueResolver.java:270) ... 31 more Caused by: org.springframework.beans.BeanInstantiationException: Could not instantiate bean class [org.springframework.http.converter.xml.XmlAwareFormHttpMessageConverter]: Constructor threw exception; nested exception is java.lang.OutOfMemoryError: Java heap space at org.springframework.beans.BeanUtils.instantiateClass(BeanUtils.java:141) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.SimpleInstantiationStrategy.instantiate(SimpleInstantiationStrategy.java:74) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.instantiateBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:958) ... 35 more

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• Advantage of creating a generic repository vs. specific repository for each object?

  - by LuckyLindy

  We are developing an ASP.NET MVC application, and are now building the repository/service classes. I'm wondering if there are any major advantages to creating a generic IRepository interface that all repositories implement, vs. each Repository having its own unique interface and set of methods. For example: a generic IRepository interface might look like (taken from this answer): public interface IRepository : IDisposable { T[] GetAll<T>(); T[] GetAll<T>(Expression<Func<T, bool>> filter); T GetSingle<T>(Expression<Func<T, bool>> filter); T GetSingle<T>(Expression<Func<T, bool>> filter, List<Expression<Func<T, object>>> subSelectors); void Delete<T>(T entity); void Add<T>(T entity); int SaveChanges(); DbTransaction BeginTransaction(); } Each Repository would implement this interface (e.g. CustomerRepository:IRepository, ProductRepository:IRepository, etc). The alternate that we've followed in prior projects would be: public interface IInvoiceRepository : IDisposable { EntityCollection<InvoiceEntity> GetAllInvoices(int accountId); EntityCollection<InvoiceEntity> GetAllInvoices(DateTime theDate); InvoiceEntity GetSingleInvoice(int id, bool doFetchRelated); InvoiceEntity GetSingleInvoice(DateTime invoiceDate, int accountId); //unique InvoiceEntity CreateInvoice(); InvoiceLineEntity CreateInvoiceLine(); void SaveChanges(InvoiceEntity); //handles inserts or updates void DeleteInvoice(InvoiceEntity); void DeleteInvoiceLine(InvoiceLineEntity); } In the second case, the expressions (LINQ or otherwise) would be entirely contained in the Repository implementation, whoever is implementing the service just needs to know which repository function to call. I guess I don't see the advantage of writing all the expression syntax in the service class and passing to the repository. Wouldn't this mean easy-to-messup LINQ code is being duplicated in many cases? For example, in our old invoicing system, we call InvoiceRepository.GetSingleInvoice(DateTime invoiceDate, int accountId) from a few different services (Customer, Invoice, Account, etc). That seems much cleaner than writing the following in multiple places: rep.GetSingle(x => x.AccountId = someId && x.InvoiceDate = someDate.Date); The only disadvantage I see to using the specific approach is that we could end up with many permutations of Get* functions, but this still seems preferable to pushing the expression logic up into the Service classes. What am I missing?

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• Entity Framework Update Entity along with child entities (add/update as necessary)

  - by Jorin

  I have a many-to-many relationship between Issues and Scopes in my EF Context. In ASP.NET MVC, I bring up an Edit form that allows the user to edit a particular Issue. At the bottom of the form, is a list of checkboxes that allow them to select which scopes apply to this issue. When editing an issue, it likely will always have some Scopes associated with it already--these boxes will be checked already. However, the user has the opportunity to check more scopes or remove some of the currently checked scopes. My code looked something like this to save just the Issue: using (var edmx = new MayflyEntities()) { Issue issue = new Issue { IssueID = id, TSColumn = formIssue.TSColumn }; edmx.Issues.Attach(issue); UpdateModel(issue); if (ModelState.IsValid) { //if (edmx.SaveChanges() != 1) throw new Exception("Unknown error. Please try again."); edmx.SaveChanges(); TempData["message"] = string.Format("Issue #{0} successfully modified.", id); } } So, when I try to add in the logic to save the associated scopes, I tried several things, but ultimately, this is what made the most sense to me: using (var edmx = new MayflyEntities()) { Issue issue = new Issue { IssueID = id, TSColumn = formIssue.TSColumn }; edmx.Issues.Attach(issue); UpdateModel(issue); foreach (int scopeID in formIssue.ScopeIDs) { var thisScope = new Scope { ID = scopeID }; edmx.Scopes.Attach(thisScope); thisScope.ProjectID = formIssue.ProjectID; if (issue.Scopes.Contains(thisScope)) { issue.Scopes.Attach(thisScope); //the scope already exists } else { issue.Scopes.Add(thisScope); // the scope needs to be added } } if (ModelState.IsValid) { //if (edmx.SaveChanges() != 1) throw new Exception("Unknown error. Please try again."); edmx.SaveChanges(); TempData["message"] = string.Format("Issue #{0} successfully modified.", id); } } But, unfortunately, that just throws the following exception: An object with the same key already exists in the ObjectStateManager. The ObjectStateManager cannot track multiple objects with the same key. What am I doing wrong?

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• Sanity check on this idea for an Image Viewer in a web app

  - by Charlie Flowers

  I have an approach in mind for an image viewer in a web app, and want to get a sanity check and any thoughts you stackoverflowers might have. Here's the whirlwind nutshell summary: I'm working on an ASP.NET MVC application that will run in my company's retail stores. Even though it is a web application, we own the store machines and have control over them. We have a "windows agent" running on the store machine which we can talk to via http post (it is a WCF service, and our web app has permission to talk to it from the browser). One of the web pages needs to be an "image viewer" page with some common things like Rotate & Zoom. Now, there are some WebForms controls that offer Rotate and Zoom. However, they take up server resources and generate a good bit of traffic between the server and the browser. For example, the Rotate function would cause an ajax call to the server, which would then generate a new image written to a .NET Canvas object, which would then be written to a file on the server, which would then be returned from the ajax call and refreshed inside the browser. Normally, that's a pretty good way of doing things. But in our case, we have code running on the store machine that we can communicate with. This leads me to consider the following approach: When the user asks to view an image, we tell our "windows agent" to download it from our image server to the store machine. We then redirect our browser to our image viewer page, which will pull the image from the local file we just wrote to the store machine. When the user clicks "Rotate", we cause JavaScript code in the browser to call our "windows agent" software, asking it to perform the "Rotate" function. The "windows agent" does the rotation using the same kind of imaging control that would formerly have been used on the server, but it does so now on the store machine. Javascript in the browser then refreshes the image on the page to show the newly rotated image. Zoom and similar features would be implemented the same way. This seems to be much more efficient, scalable, and responsive for the end-users. However, I've never heard of anything like it being done, mostly because it's rare to have this combination of a web app plus a "windows agent" on the client machine. What do you think? Feasible? Reasonable? Any pitfalls I overlooked or improvements / suggestions you can see? Has anyone done anything like this who would like to offer the wisdom of experience? Thanks!

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• NoSuchMessageException: No message found

  - by adisembiring

  Hi .... I try to learn Spring MVC 3.0 validation. but I got NoSuchMessageException: No message found under code 'name.required' for locale 'en_US' error message when form submted. I have create message.properties in src/message.properties and the content of that file is: name.required = User Name is required password.required = Password is required gender.required = Gender is required I have set ResourceBundleMessageSource in my app-servlet.xml <bean id="messageSource" class="org.springframework.context.support.ResourceBundleMessageSource" p:basename="messages" /> My validator code is: @Component("registrationValidator") public class RegistrationValidator implements Validator { @Override public boolean supports(Class<?> clazz) { return RegistrationCommand.class.isAssignableFrom(clazz); } @Override public void validate(Object target, Errors errors) { RegistrationCommand registrationCommand = (RegistrationCommand) target; ValidationUtils.rejectIfEmptyOrWhitespace(errors, "name", "name.required"); ValidationUtils.rejectIfEmptyOrWhitespace(errors, "password", "password.required"); ValidationUtils.rejectIfEmpty(errors, "gender", "gender.required"); ValidationUtils.rejectIfEmpty(errors, "country", "country.required"); //ValidationUtils.rejectIfEmpty(errors, "community", "community.required"); ValidationUtils.rejectIfEmptyOrWhitespace(errors, "description", "description.required"); if (registrationCommand.getCommunity().length == 0) { errors.rejectValue("community", "community.required"); } } } and JSP Page is: <form:form commandName="registrationCommand"> <p class="name"> <label for="name">Name</label> <form:input path="name" /> <form:errors path="name" cssClass="error"></form:errors> </p> <p class="password"> <label for="password">Password</label> <form:password path="password" /> <form:errors path="password" cssClass="error"></form:errors> </p> <p class="gender"> <label>Gender</label> <form:radiobutton path="gender" value="M" label="M" /> <form:radiobutton path="gender" value="F" label="F" /> <form:errors path="gender" cssClass="error"></form:errors> </p> <p class="submit"> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> </p> </form:form>

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• Under what circumstances would a LINQ-to-SQL Entity "lose" a changed field?

  - by John Rudy

  I'm going nuts over what should be a very simple situation. In an ASP.NET MVC 2 app (not that I think this matters), I have an edit action which takes a very small entity and makes a few changes. The key portion (outside of error handling/security) looks like this: Todo t = Repository.GetTodoByID(todoID); UpdateModel(t); Repository.Save(); Todo is the very simple, small entity with the following fields: ID (primary key), FolderID (foreign key), PercentComplete, TodoText, IsDeleted and SaleEffortID (foreign key). Each of these obviously corresponds to a field in the database. When UpdateModel(t) is called, t does get correctly updated for all fields which have changed. When Repository.Save() is called, by the time the SQL is written out, FolderID reverts back to its original value. The complete code to Repository.Save(): public void Save() { myDataContext.SubmitChanges(); } myDataContext is an instance of the DataContext class created by the LINQ-to-SQL designer. Nothing custom has been done to this aside from adding some common interfaces to some of the entities. I've validated that the FolderID is getting lost before the call to Repository.Save() by logging out the generated SQL: UPDATE [Todo].[TD_TODO] SET [TD_PercentComplete] = @p4, [TD_TodoText] = @p5, [TD_IsDeleted] = @p6 WHERE ([TD_ID] = @p0) AND ([TD_TDF_ID] = @p1) AND /* Folder ID */ ([TD_PercentComplete] = @p2) AND ([TD_TodoText] = @p3) AND (NOT ([TD_IsDeleted] = 1)) AND ([TD_SE_ID] IS NULL) /* SaleEffort ID */ -- @p0: Input BigInt (Size = -1; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [5] -- @p1: Input BigInt (Size = -1; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [1] /* this SHOULD be 4 and in the update list */ -- @p2: Input TinyInt (Size = -1; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [90] -- @p3: Input NVarChar (Size = 4000; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [changing text] -- @p4: Input TinyInt (Size = -1; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [0] -- @p5: Input NVarChar (Size = 4000; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [changing text foo] -- @p6: Input Bit (Size = -1; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [True] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2005) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 4.0.30319.1 So somewhere between UpdateModel(t) (where I've validated in the debugger that FolderID updated) and the output of this SQL, the FolderID reverts. The other fields all save. (Well, OK, I haven't validated SaleEffortID yet, because that subsystem isn't really ready yet, but everything else saves.) I've exhausted my own means of research on this: Does anyone know of conditions which would cause a partial entity reset (EG, something to do with long foreign keys?), and/or how to work around this?

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• Data Access Layer - static list objects and caching

  - by Truegilly

  Hello, i am devloping a site using .net MVC i have a data access layer which basically consists of static list objects that are created from data within my database. The method that rebuilds this data first clears all the list objects. Once they are empty it then add the data. Here is an example of one of the lists im using. its a method which generates all the UK postcodes. there are about 50 methods similar to this in my application that return all sorts of information, such as towns, regions, members, emails etc. public static List<PostCode> AllPostCodes = new List<PostCode>(); when the rebuild method is called it first clears the list. ListPostCodes.AllPostCodes.Clear(); next it re-bulilds the data, by calling the GetAllPostCodes() method /// <summary> /// static method that returns all the UK postcodes /// </summary> public static void GetAllPostCodes() { using (fab_dataContextDataContext db = new fab_dataContextDataContext()) { IQueryable AllPostcodeData = from data in db.PostCodeTables select data; IDbCommand cmd = db.GetCommand(AllPostcodeData); SqlDataAdapter adapter = new SqlDataAdapter(); adapter.SelectCommand = (SqlCommand)cmd; DataSet dataSet = new DataSet(); cmd.Connection.Open(); adapter.FillSchema(dataSet, SchemaType.Source); adapter.Fill(dataSet); cmd.Connection.Close(); // crete the objects foreach (DataRow row in dataSet.Tables[0].Rows) { PostCode postcode = new PostCode(); postcode.ID = Convert.ToInt32(row["PostcodeID"]); postcode.Outcode = row["OutCode"].ToString(); postcode.Latitude = Convert.ToDouble(row["Latitude"]); postcode.Longitude = Convert.ToDouble(row["Longitude"]); postcode.TownID = Convert.ToInt32(row["TownID"]); AllPostCodes.Add(postcode); postcode = null; } } } The rebuild occurs every 1 hour. this ensures that every 1 hour the site will have fresh set of cached data. the issue ive got is that occasionally if during a rebuild, the server will be hit by a request and an exception is thrown. The exception is "Index was outside the bounds of the array." it is due to when a list is being cleared. ListPostCodes.AllPostCodes.Clear(); - // throws exception - although its not always in regard to this list. Once this exception is thrown application dies, All users are affected. I have to restart the server to fix it. i have 2 questions... If i utilise caching instead of static objects would this help ? Is there any way i can say "while the rebuild is taking place, wait for it to complete until accepting requests" any help is most appricaiated ;) truegilly

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• How to access static members in a Velocity template?

  - by matt b

  I'm not sure if there is a way to do this in Velocity or not: I have a User POJO which a property named Status, which looks like an enum (but it is not, since I am stuck on Java 1.4), the definition looks something like this: public class User { // default status to User private Status status = Status.USER; public void setStatus(Status status) { this.status = status; } public Status getStatus() { return status; } And Status is a static inner class: public static final class Status { private String statusString; private Status(String statusString) { this.statusString = statusString; } public final static Status USER = new Status("user"); public final static Status ADMIN = new Status("admin"); public final static Status STATUS_X = new Status("blah"); //.equals() and .hashCode() implemented as well } With this pattern, a user status can easily be tested in a conditional such as if(User.Status.ADMIN.equals(user.getStatus())) ... ... without having to reference any constants for the status ID, any magic numbers, etc. However, I can't figure out how to test these conditionals in my Velocity template with VTL. I'd like to just print a simple string based upon the user's status, such as: Welcome <b>${user.name}</b>! <br/> <br/> #if($user.status == com.company.blah.User.Status.USER) You are a regular user #elseif($user.status == com.company.blah.User.Status.ADMIN) You are an administrator #etc... #end But this throws an Exception that looks like org.apache.velocity.exception.ParseErrorException: Encountered "User" at webpages/include/dashboard.inc[line 10, column 21] Was expecting one of: "[" ... From the VTL User Guide, there is no mention of accessing a Java class/static member directly in VTL, it appears that the right hand side (RHS) of a conditional can only be a number literal, string literal, property reference, or method reference. So is there any way that I can access static Java properties/references in a Velocity template? I'm aware that as a workaround, I could embed the status ID or some other identifier as a reference in my controller (this is a web MVC application using Velocity as the View technology), but I strongly do not want to embed any magic numbers or constants in the view layer.

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• Creating a music catalog and extracting first 30 seconds as soon as the first words are sung

  - by Rad

  I already read a question: Separation of singing voice from music. I don’t need this complex audio processing. I only need some detection mechanism that would detect that there is some voice/vocal playing while the music is playing (or not playing) I need to extract first 30 seconds when a vocalist starts singing along with full band music. See question 2 below. I want to create a music catalog using ASP.NET MVC 2 and Silverlight clients and C#.NET 4.0 programming language that would be front store. On the backend I would also like to create a desktop WPF/Windows application to create the music catalog from already existing music files, most of which have metadata in them ID3v1, ID3v2.3, ID3v2.4, iTunes MP4, WMA, Vorbis Comments and APE Tags etc. I would possibly like to create a web service that would allow catalog contributors to upload a zipped album and trigger metadata extraction of music data and extraction of music segments as described below. I would be happy if I achieve no. 1 below. Let's say I have 1000ths of songs in mp3 (or other formats) grouped in subfolders using some classification (Genre, Artists, Albums, Composers or other groupings). I want to create tables in DB that would organize songs so they can be searched based on different criteria (year, length, above classification or by song title, description etc) like what iTune store allows to their customers. I want to extract metadata from various formats (I will try to get songs in mp3 format, but there may be other popular formats) and allow music Catalog manager person to add missing data from either desktop or web applications. He or other contributors can upload zipped music via an HTML or Silverlight upload or WPF. Can anybody suggest open source libraries, articles, code snippets that can do that in an automatic way using .NET and possibly SQL Server DB? My main questions are these. This is an audio processing challenge. I want to extract 2 segments of music (questions 1 and 2): 1. How to extract a music segment: 1-2 seconds before a vocal starts singing and up to 30 seconds from that point in time and 2. Much more challenging is to find repeating segments (One would usually find or recognize the names of the songs and songs are usually known by these refrains. How would I go about creating a list of songs that go great together like what Genius from iTune does? Is there any characteristics of music that can be used to match songs? The goal is for people quickly scan and recognize songs i.e. associate melody, words with a title/album so they can make intelligent decisions like buying a song, create similar mood songs.

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