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• Why is "start in" needed for Windows scheduled tasks?

  - by GomoX

  We develop a web application that can be deployed on Windows or Linux. The Linux implementation uses cron, and the Windows one uses scheduled tasks to run a single PHP script that processes all scheduled tasks for our system. The task is scheduled using schtasks during the install process, like: This has always worked both under W2003 and W2008. A week ago a customer reported that scheduled tasks were not running. He is running on Windows 2008. We checked over and over and finally solved the issue by entering the folder that contains the .vbs script as the "start in" folder for the scheduled task. This said, there is no way to set up the "start in..." value from schtasks without using an XML definition of the tasks. XML definitions don't work in Windows 2003, so I would have to add windows version detection to the installer, additional testing, etc (I'd like to avoid this if at all possible). The only atypical thing I noticed about the install is that the system is installed in D:\ as opposed to the default C:\Program Files (x86)\, but I don't see how this would matter. All the paths are absolute in all the scripts. Can anyone suggest a reasonable solution for this?

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• Understanding MySQL Query Caches and when to implement it?

  - by Jeff

  On our current MySQL server query cache is enabled. Qchache_hits: 31913 Qchache_inserts: 50959 Qchache_lowmem_prunes: 9320 Qchache_not_chached: 209320 Qchache_queries_in_chace: 986 com_update: 0 com_delete: 0 I do not fully understand the Query cache - I am reading about it currently and trying to understand it. Our database holds inventory data, customer data, employee data, sales data and so forth. The query is very rarely run more than once. The possibility of a query being run twice is viewing a specific sales information twice. But basically everything in our system changes constantly. It is always being updated, deleted, insterted and off the top of my head I can't picture users running the same query twice within a week. Do I even need to have the query cache enabled? I am guessing that the inserts means 51k entries have been added, but only 986 of those are being stored? Would an idea be to refresh the cache, and watch it for a week and check how many of the queries in cached are accessed maybe on a weekly basis to see if it is actually returning any benefits? Any help/guidance on this is appreciated, thanks

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• SSL configuration issue. SSL/IIS7 not loading all scripts/CSS on user's first visit

  - by Chris

  Hi all, Hopefully this isnt a tricky one. I've got a web app that doesn't load all javascript/css/images on the first visit. Second visit is fine. After approximately 2 minutes of inactivity the problem reoccurs. These problems only started occuring after the customer requested SSL be applied to the application. Ajax requests stop working after 2 minutes of activity despite a successful page load of all javascript elements. Application timeout is 30 minutes - like I said, everything was fine before SSL was applied. All javascript and CSS files use absolute URLS - e.g https://blablabla There appears to be no pattern as to why certain files arent loaded. The firebug Net output shows the status for the failed elements as 'Aborted'. For example, site.css and nav.css are in the same folder, are declared after each other in the head tag yet one is loaded and the other is not. Both will load fine after refreshing the page (unless roughly two minutes have passed). An Ajax request also shows as aborted after two minutes. However, if i do the request again the Ajax request will succeed. Almost as if the first request woke something up. None of these problems occur in Chrome Any ideas? FYI this is a .Net 4 C# MVC app running under IIS7 but I'm not sure its relevant since it works in Chrome. Everything worked fine before SSL was applied. Originally posted on stackoverflow but recommended to list here. Can provide additional details if necessary.

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• Is a modem required to be programmed when using with an internet provider?

  - by Tim

  I wonder if a modem is required to be programmed when using with an internet provider? If yes, what is the purpose of programming a modem? Do both a DSL and a cable ISP both require a modem to be used in an individual home? For example, I have a Motorola modem SURFboard Model:SB5101, Customer S/N: xxx S/N? xxx HFC MAC ID: xxx USB CPE MAC ID: xxx a coil of cable and a splitter from Comcast High-Speed internet Self-Installation Kit, which were bought 5 years ago, when I purchased Comcast internet service from its retailer www.comcastoffers.com. With them, I was hoping to reduce the amount of fee by avoiding to ask Comcast people to come over to install. But I remember at that time Comcast sent its technician here, dismissed my idea of self-installation, saying they needed to use their own modem and charging me a hefty fee, and so my equipments have never been used. I haven't been using Comcast for a long time. I wonder if my modem, cable and splitter (brand new, never used) are still good to use with an internet provider such as Comcast? If needed, we can ignore their policy and just consider the technology side? Or they are not good to use and I must throw them away like trash? Thanks and regards!

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• What's wrong with closing applications on Windows Mobile?

  - by balpha

  As far as I can tell, this annoys the crap out of people that do notice and (at max) gives no real benefit to people who don't notice: Why did Microsoft decide to make the "X" on Windows Mobile (or CE before that) not close, but only hide the application, and thus keep cluttering up your memory? WM wants you to go to the Control Panel - Memory and "Do you really want to" shut down the app. Pretty much every WM application I've seen that did not come from Microsoft has a "Quit" menu choice. The number of task managers out there that let you quit programs is larger than the count of emails from African bank managers that want me to take care of some millions of bucks that belonged to a deceased customer of theirs. My new HTC even comes with a close-able (not closeable, though) task manager pre-installed. But still today, Word Mobile just wants to hide, not be closed. I don't want to get a "That's M$hit, get used to it" answer; I really want to know: What in the world is the reason for this decision, and even more, for still sticking with it?

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• Core Data managed object context thread synchronisation

  - by Ben Reeves

  I'm have an issue where i'm updating a many-to-many relationship in a background thread, which works fine in that threa, but when I send the object back to the main thread the changes do not show. If I close the app and reopen the data is saved fine and the changes show on the main thread. Also using [context lock] instead of a different managed object context works fine. I have tried NSManagedObjectContext: - (BOOL)save:(NSError **)error; - (void)refreshObject:(NSManagedObject *)object mergeChanges:(BOOL)flag; at different stages throughout the process but it doesn't seem to help. My core data code uses the following getter to ensure any operations are thread safe: - (NSManagedObjectContext *) managedObjectContext { NSThread * thisThread = [NSThread currentThread]; if (thisThread == [NSThread mainThread]) { //Main thread just return default context return managedObjectContext; } else { //Thread safe trickery NSManagedObjectContext * threadManagedObjectContext = [[thisThread threadDictionary] objectForKey:CONTEXT_KEY]; if (threadManagedObjectContext == nil) { threadManagedObjectContext = [[[NSManagedObjectContext alloc] init] autorelease]; [threadManagedObjectContext setPersistentStoreCoordinator: [self persistentStoreCoordinator]]; [[thisThread threadDictionary] setObject:threadManagedObjectContext forKey:CONTEXT_KEY]; } return threadManagedObjectContext; } } and when I pass object between threads i'm using -(NSManagedObject*)makeSafe:(NSManagedObject*)object { if ([object managedObjectContext] != [self managedObjectContext]) { NSError * error = nil; object = [[self managedObjectContext] existingObjectWithID:[object objectID] error:&error]; if (error) { NSLog(@"Error makeSafe: %@", error); } } return object; } Any help appreciated

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• Core Data migration problem: "Persistent store migration failed, missing source managed object model

  - by John Gallagher

  The Background A Cocoa Non Document Core Data project with two Managed Object Models. Model 1 stays the same. Model 2 has changed, so I want to migrate the store. I've created a new version by Design Data Model Add Model Version in Xcode. The difference between versions is a single relationship that's been changed from to a one to many. I've made my changes to the model, then saved. I've made a new Mapping Model that has the old model as a source and new model as a destination. I've ensured all Mapping Models and Data Models and are being compiled and all are copied to the Resource folder of my app bundle. I've switched on migrations by passing in a dictionary with the NSMigratePersistentStoresAutomaticallyOption key as [NSNumber numberWithBool:YES] when adding the Persistent Store. Rather than merging all models in the bundle, I've specified the two models I want to use (model 1 and the new version of model 2) and merged them using modelByMergingModels: The Problem No matter what I do to migrate, I get the error message: "Persistent store migration failed, missing source managed object model." What I've Tried I clean after every single build. I've tried various combinations of having only the model I'm migrating to in Resources, being compiled, or both. Since the error message implies it can't find the source model for my migration, I've tried having every version of the model in both the Resources folder and being compiled. I've made sure I'm not making a really basic error by switching back to the original version of my data model. The app runs fine. I've deleted the Mapping Model and the new version of the model, cleaned, then recreated both. I've tried making a different change in the new model - deleting an entity instead. I'm at my wits end. I can't help but think I've made a huge mistake somewhere that I'm not seeing. Any ideas?

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• NServiceBus and NHibernate - Message Handler and Transactions

  - by mattcodes

  From my understanding NServiceBus executes the Handle method of an IMessageHandler within a transaction, if an exception propagates out of this method, then NServiceBus will ensure the message is put back on the message queue (up X amount of times before error queue) etc.. so we have an atomic operation so to speak. Now when if I inside my NServiceBus Message Handle method I do something like this using(var trans = session.BeginTransaction()) { person.Age = 10; session.Update<Person>(person); trans.Commit() } using(var trans2 = session.BeginTransaction()) { person.Age = 20; session.Update<Person>(person); // throw new ApplicationException("Oh no"); trans2.Commit() } What is the effect of this on the transaction scope? Is trans1 now counted as a nested transaction in terms of its relationship with the Nservicebus transaction even though we have done nothing to marry them up? (if not how would one link onto the transaction of NServiceBus? Looking at the second block (trans2), if I uncomment the throw statement, will the NServiceBus transaction then rollback trans1 as well? In basic scenarios, say I dump the above into a console app, then trans1 is independent, commit, flushed and won't rollback. I'm trying to clarify what happens now we sit in someone else's transaction like NServiceBus? The above is just example code, im wouldnt be working directly with session, more like through a uow pattern.

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• Using parameters in reports for VIsual Studio 2008

  - by Jim Thomas

  This is my first attempt to create a Visual Studio 2008 report using parameters. I have created the dataset and the report. If I run it with a hard-coded filter on a column the report runs fine. When I change the filter to '?' I keep getting this error: No overload for method 'Fill' takes '1' argument Obviously I am missing some way to connect the parameter on the dataset to a report parameter. I have defined a report parameter using the Report/Report Parameter screen. But how does that report parameter get tied to the dataset table parameter? Is there a special naming convention for the parameter? I have Googled this a half dozen times and read the msdn documentation but the examples all seem to use a different approach (like creating a SQL query rather then a table based dataset) or entering the parameter name as "=Parameters!name.value" but I can't figure out where to do that. One msdn example suggestted I needed to create some C# code using a SetParameters() method to make the connection. Is that how it is done? If anyone can recommend a good walk-through I'd appreciate it. Edit: After more reading it appears I don't need report parameters at all. I am simply trying to add a parameter to the database query. So I would create a text box on the form, get the user's input, then apply that parameter programmatically to the fill() argument list. The report parameter on the other hand is an ad-hoc value generally entered by a user that you want to appear on the report. But there is no relationship between report parameters and query/dataset parameters. Is that correct?

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• Self-reference entity in Hibernate

  - by Marco

  Hi guys, I have an Action entity, that can have other Action objects as child in a bidirectional one-to-many relationship. The problem is that Hibernate outputs the following exception: "Repeated column in mapping for collection: DbAction.childs column: actionId" Below the code of the mapping: <?xml version="1.0"?> <!DOCTYPE hibernate-mapping PUBLIC "-//Hibernate/Hibernate Mapping DTD 3.0//EN" "http://hibernate.sourceforge.net/hibernate-mapping-3.0.dtd"> <hibernate-mapping> <class name="DbAction" table="actions"> <id name="actionId" type="short" /> <property not-null="true" name="value" type="string" /> <set name="childs" table="action_action" cascade="all-delete-orphan"> <key column="actionId" /> <many-to-many column="actionId" unique="true" class="DbAction" /> </set> <join table="action_action" inverse="true" optional="false"> <key column="actionId" /> <many-to-one name="parentAction" column="actionId" not-null="true" class="DbAction" /> </join> </class> </hibernate-mapping>

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• What do you mean by the expressiveness in a programming language?

  - by prosseek

  I see a lot of the word 'expressiveness' when people want to stress one language is better than the other. But I don't see exactly what they mean by it. Is it the verboseness/succinctness? I mean, if one language can write down something shorter than the other, does that mean expressiveness? Please refer to my other question - http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2411772/article-about-code-density-as-a-measure-of-programming-language-power Is it the power of the language? Paul Graham says that one language is more powerful than the other language in a sense that one language can do that the other language can't do (for example, LISP can do something with macro that the other language can't do). Is it just something that makes life easier? Regular expression can be one of the examples. Is it a different way of solving the same problem: something like SQL to solve the search problem? What do you think about the expressiveness of a programming language? Can you show the expressiveness using some code? What's the relationship with the expressiveness and DSL? Do people come up with DSL to get the expressiveness?

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• Explicit casting doesn't work in default model binding

  - by Felix

  I am using ASP.NET MVC2 and Entity Framework. I am going to simplify the situation a little; hopefully it will make it clearer, not more confusing! I have a controller action to create address, and the country is a lookup table (in other words, there is a one-to-many relationship between Country and Address classes). Let's say for clarity that the field in the Address class is called Address.Land. And, for the purposes of the dropdown list, I am getting Country.CountryID and Country.Name. I am aware of Model vs. Input validation. So, if I call the dropdown field formLand - I can make it work. But if I call the field Land (that is, matching the variable in Address class) - I am getting the following error: "The parameter conversion from type 'System.String' to type 'App.Country' failed because no type converter can convert between these types." OK, this makes sense. A string (CountryID) comes from the form and the binder doesn't know how to convert it to Country type. So, I wrote the converter: namespace App { public partial class Country { public static explicit operator Country(string countryID) { AppEntities context = new AppEntities(); Country country = (Country) context.GetObjectByKey( new EntityKey("AppEntities.Countries", "CountryID", countryID)); return country; } } } FWIW, I tried both explicit and implicit. I tested it from the controller - Country c = (Country)"fr" - and it works fine. However, it never got invoked when the View is posted. I am getting the same "no type converter" error in the model. Any ideas how to hint to the model binder that there is a type converter? Thanks

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• EF4 querying from parent to grandchildren

  - by Hans Kesting

  I have a model withs Parents, Children and Grandchildren, in a many-to-many relationship. Using this article I created POCO classes that work fine, except for one thing I can't yet figure out. When I query the Parents or Children directly using LINQ, the SQL reflects the LINQ query (a .Count() executes a COUNT in the database and so on) - fine. The Parent class has a Children property, to access it's children. But (and now for the problem) this doesn't expose an IQueryable interface but an ICollection. So when I access the Children property on a particular parent all the Parent's Children are read. Even worse, when I access the Grandchildren (theParent.Children.SelectMany(child => child.GrandChildren).Count()) then for each and every child a separate request is issued to select all data of it's grandchildren. That's a lot of separate queries! Changing the type of the Children property from ICollection to IQueryable doesn't solve this. Apart from missing methods I need, like Add() and Remove(), EF just doesn't recognize the navigation property then. Are there correct ways (as in: low database interaction) of querying through children (and what are they)? Or is this just not possible?

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• Django one form for two models

  - by martinthenext

  Hello! I have a ForeignKey relationship between TextPage and Paragraph and my goal is to make front-end TextPage creating/editing form as if it was in ModelAdmin with 'inlines': several field for the TextPage and then a couple of Paragraph instances stacked inline. The problem is that i have no idea about how to validate and save that: @login_required def textpage_add(request): profile = request.user.profile_set.all()[0] if not (profile.is_admin() or profile.is_editor()): raise Http404 PageFormSet = inlineformset_factory(TextPage, Paragraph, extra=5) if request.POST: try: textpageform = TextPageForm(request.POST) # formset = PageFormSet(request.POST) except forms.ValidationError as error: textpageform = TextPageForm() formset = PageFormSet() return render_to_response('textpages/manage.html', { 'formset' : formset, 'textpageform' : textpageform, 'error' : str(error), }, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) # Saving data if textpageform.is_valid() and formset.is_valid(): textpageform.save() formset.save() return HttpResponseRedirect(reverse(consults)) else: textpageform = TextPageForm() formset = PageFormSet() return render_to_response('textpages/manage.html', { 'formset' : formset, 'textpageform' : textpageform, }, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) I know I't a kind of code-monkey style to post code that you don't even expect to work but I wanted to show what I'm trying to accomplish. Here is the relevant part of models.py: class TextPage(models.Model): title = models.CharField(max_length=100) page_sub_category = models.ForeignKey(PageSubCategory, blank=True, null=True) def __unicode__(self): return self.title class Paragraph(models.Model): article = models.ForeignKey(TextPage) title = models.CharField(max_length=100, blank=True, null=True) text = models.TextField(blank=True, null=True) def __unicode__(self): return self.title Any help would be appreciated. Thanks!

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• Concatenate row values T-SQL

  - by Robert

  I am trying to pull together some data for a report and need to concatenate the row values of one of the tables. Here is the basic table structure: Reviews ReviewID ReviewDate Reviewers ReviewerID ReviewID UserID Users UserID FName LName This is a M:M relationship. Each Review can have many Reviewers; each User can be associated with many Reviews. Basically, all I want to see is Reviews.ReviewID, Reviews.ReviewDate, and a concatenated string of the FName's of all the associated Users for that Review (comma delimited). Instead of: ReviewID---ReviewDate---User 1----------12/1/2009----Bob 1----------12/1/2009----Joe 1----------12/1/2009----Frank 2----------12/9/2009----Sue 2----------12/9/2009----Alice Display this: ReviewID---ReviewDate----Users 1----------12/1/2009-----Bob, Joe, Frank 2----------12/9/2009-----Sue, Alice I have found this article describing some ways to do this, but most of these seem to only deal with one table, not multiple; unfortunately, my SQL-fu is not strong enough to adapt these to my circumstances. I am particularly interested in the example on that site which utilizes FOR XML PATH() as that looks the cleanest and most straight forward. SELECT p1.CategoryId, ( SELECT ProductName + ', ' FROM Northwind.dbo.Products p2 WHERE p2.CategoryId = p1.CategoryId ORDER BY ProductName FOR XML PATH('') ) AS Products FROM Northwind.dbo.Products p1 GROUP BY CategoryId; Can anyone give me a hand with this? Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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• ILOG CPLEX: how to populate IloLPMatrix while using addGe to set up the model?

  - by downer

  I have a queatoin about IloLPMatrix and addGe. I was trying to follow the example of AdMIPex5.java to generate user defined cutting planes based on the solution to the LP relaxation. The difference is that eh initial MIP model is not read in from a mps file, but set up in the code using methods like addGe, addLe etc. I think this is why I ran into problems while copying the exampe to do the following. IloLPMatrix lp = (IloLPMatrix)cplex.LPMatrixIterator().next(); lp from the above line turns to be NULL. I am wondering 1. What is the relationship between IloLPMatrix and the addLe, addGe commands? I tried to addLPMatrix() to the model, and then used model.addGe methods. but the LPMatrix seems to be empty still. How do I populate the IloLPMatrix of the moel according to the value that I had set up using addGe and addLe. Is the a method to this easily, or do I have to set them up row by row myself? I was doing this to get the number of variables and their values by doing lp.getNumVars(). Is there other methods that I can use to get the number of variables and their values wihout doing these, since my system is set up by addLe, addGe etc? Thanks a lot for your help on this.

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• ASP.NET MVC - using model property as form, how can I post to action?

  - by Ryan Peters

  Consider the following model: public class BandProfileModel { public BandModel Band { get; set; } public IEnumerable<Relationship> Requests { get; set; } } and the following form: <% using (Html.BeginForm()) { %> <%: Html.EditorFor(m => m.Band) %> <input type="submit" value="Save Band" /> <% } %> which posts to the following action: public ActionResult EditPost(BandProfileModel m, string band) { // stuff is done here, but m is null? return View(m); } Basically, I only have one property on my model that is used in the form. The other property in BandProfleModel is just used in the UI for other data. I'm trying to update just the Band property, but for each post, the argument "m" is always null (specifically, the .Band property is null). It's posting just fine to the action, so it isn't a problem with my route. Just the data is null. The ID and name attributes of the fields are BAND_whatever and Band.whatever (whatever being a property of Band), so it seems like it would work... What am I doing wrong? How can I use just one property as part of a form, post back, and have values populated via the model binder for my BandProfileModel property in the action? Thanks.

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• How to apply stereotypes on UML Relationships' MemberEnds?

  - by Cristi Potlog

  I'm running this code on a UML Class Diagram, and it works just fine, but when trying to apply stereotypes from PropertiesEditor in Visual Studio for relationship ends (FirstRole and SecondRole), the stereotypes combo doesn't load even if in code there seems to be applicable stereotypes valid for association properties. What should I put in metaclasses tag in the UML profile except for IProperty? <metaclassMoniker name="/MyUmlProfile/Microsoft.VisualStudio.Uml.Classes.IProperty"/> This is the code: using Microsoft.VisualStudio.Uml.Classes; foreach( IShape shape in currentDiagram.GetSelectedShapes<IElement>() ) { IElement element = shape.GetElement(); foreach( IStereotype stereotype in element.ApplicableStereotypes ) { if( element is Microsoft.VisualStudio.Uml.Classes.IClass ) { IClass classItem = (IClass)element; if( classItem.SuperClasses.Count() > 0 ) { if( stereotype.Name == "SubclassAttribute" ) { element.ApplyStereotype( stereotype ); } } else if( stereotype.Name == "ClassAttribute" ) { element.ApplyStereotype( stereotype ); } } else if( element is Microsoft.VisualStudio.Uml.Classes.IProperty ) { IProperty property = (IProperty)element; if( property.Association != null ) { if( stereotype.Name == "Set" && property.UpperValue != null && property.UpperValue.ToString() == "*" ) { element.ApplyStereotype( stereotype ); } else if( stereotype.Name == "ManyToOne" && ( property.UpperValue == null || property.UpperValue.ToString() == "1" ) ) { element.ApplyStereotype( stereotype ); } } else if( stereotype.Name == "Property" ) { element.ApplyStereotype( stereotype ); } } } }

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• ps forrest for session id

  - by azatoth

  Often I want to get a nice readout what process are running and their relationship; I usually by habit runs ps auxfww and eventual grep for the process in question. Having been thinking about the problem I tried to create an oneliner to get the process tree in ps ufww format for all processes which has the session id specified by arbitrary process name(s); ending up in following code: ps ufww --sid=$(ps -C apache2 -o sess --no-headers | sort | uniq | grep -v -E '^ +0$' | awk 'NR==1{x=$0;next}NF{x=x","$0};END{gsub(/[[:space:]]*/,"",x);print x}') giving for example following output: USER PID %CPU %MEM VSZ RSS TTY STAT START TIME COMMAND root 4157 0.0 0.1 41264 3120 ? Ss Jun11 0:00 /usr/sbin/apache2 -k start www-data 4329 0.0 0.0 41264 1976 ? S Jun11 0:00 \_ /usr/sbin/apache2 -k start www-data 4330 0.0 0.0 41264 2028 ? S Jun11 0:00 \_ /usr/sbin/apache2 -k start www-data 4331 0.0 0.0 41264 2028 ? S Jun11 0:00 \_ /usr/sbin/apache2 -k start www-data 4332 0.0 0.0 41264 2028 ? S Jun11 0:00 \_ /usr/sbin/apache2 -k start www-data 4333 0.0 0.0 41264 2032 ? S Jun11 0:00 \_ /usr/sbin/apache2 -k start www-data 6648 0.0 0.0 41264 1884 ? S Jun11 0:00 \_ /usr/sbin/apache2 -k start www-data 6654 0.0 0.0 41264 1884 ? S Jun11 0:00 \_ /usr/sbin/apache2 -k start www-data 6655 0.0 0.0 41264 1884 ? S Jun11 0:00 \_ /usr/sbin/apache2 -k start I do wonder now if anyone has an better idea to solve this issue? Are there anything out there that is easier to "oneline" and gives above or better information? For example I would actually want to have included all childs relative any parent. (uncertain if this should be on SF instead, but felt it was more like an programming question)

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• NHibernate save / update event listeners: listening for child object saves

  - by James Allen

  I have an Area object which has many SubArea children: public class Area { ... public virtual IList<SubArea> SubAreas { get; set; } } he children are mapped as a uni-directional non-inverse relationship: public class AreaMapping : ClassMap<Area> { public AreaMapping() { HasMany(x => x. SubAreas).Not.Inverse().Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan(); } } The Area is my aggregate root. When I save an area (e.g. Session.Save(area) ), the area gets saved and the child SubAreas automatically cascaded. I want to add a save or update event listener to catch whenever my areas and/or subareas are persisted. Say for example I have an area, which has 5 SubAreas. If I hook into SaveEventListeners: Configuration.EventListeners.SaveEventListeners = new ISaveOrUpdateEventListener[] { mylistener }; When I save the area, Mylistener is only fired once only for area (SubAreas are ignored). I want the 5 SubAreas to be caught aswell in the event listener. If I hook into SaveOrUpdateEventListeners instead: Configuration.EventListeners.SaveOrUpdateEventListeners = new ISaveOrUpdateEventListener[] { mylistener }; When I save the area, Mylistener is not fired at all. Strangely, if I hook into SaveEventListeners and SaveOrUpdateEventListeners: Configuration.EventListeners.SaveEventListeners = new ISaveOrUpdateEventListener[] { mylistener }; Configuration.EventListeners.SaveOrUpdateEventListeners = new ISaveOrUpdateEventListener[] { mylistener }; When I save the area, Mylistener is fired 11 times: once for the area, and twice for each SubArea! (I think because NHIbernate is INSERTing the SubArea and then UPDATING with the area foreign key). Does anyone know what I'm doing wrong here, and how I can get the listener to fire once for each area and subarea?

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• Symfony / Doctrine - How to filter form field by property in related model

  - by Dan

  I have a UserForm class which has a select list populated from a related model (specified by a foreign relationship in the yml) like so: $this->setWidget('report_id', new sfWidgetFormDoctrineChoice(array('model' => $this->getRelatedModelName('Report')))); I'd like to filter the Report objects that come from this relation by one of the Report fields, "active" such that only Reports with active=1 appear in the form. I have a method, ReportTable::GetActiveReports() that performs the appropriate query and returns the filtered reports. So one option is to populate the Widget with the results of that function. Any tips on the syntax to do that? It seems to me the cleaner way is to use the UserFormFilter class to filter the reports by active=1 there. Unfortunately I couldn't find any documentation on how to use form filters (or really what they are), so maybe this is not the right solution. Is a Form Filter the appropriate tool for this job? It seems I should use the Doctrine_Record_Filter_Standard class as defined here: http://www.doctrine-project.org/api/orm/1.2/doctrine/doctrine_record_filter_standard.html But it's not clear to me the appropriate usage. Any guidance would be helpful. Thanks! Dan

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• Mapping a child collection without indexing based on database primary key or using bag

  - by Colin Bowern

  I have a existing parent-child relationship I am trying to map in Fluent Nhibernate: [RatingCollection] -- [Rating] Rating Collection has: ID (database generated ID) Code Name Rating has: ID (database generated id) Rating Collection ID Code Name I have been trying to figure out which permutation of HasMany makes sense here. What I have right now: HasMany<Rating>(x => x.Ratings) .WithTableName("Rating") .KeyColumnNames.Add("RatingCollectionId") .Component(c => { c.Map(x => x.Code); c.Map(x => x.Name); ); It works from a CRUD perspective but because it's a bag it ends up deleting the rating contents any time I try to do a simple update / insert to the Ratings property. What I want is an indexed collection but not using the database generated ID (which is in the six digit range right now). Any thoughts on how I could get a zero-based indexed collection (so I can go entity.Ratings[0].Name = "foo") which would allow me to modify the collection without deleting/reinserting it all when persisting?

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• NHibernate - joining on a subquery using ICriteria

  - by owensymes.mp

  I have a SQL query that I need to represent using NHibernate's ICriteria API. SELECT u.Id as Id, u.Login as Login, u.FirstName as FirstName, u.LastName as LastName, gm.UserGroupId_FK as UserGroupId, inner.Data1, inner.Data2, inner.Data3 FROM dbo.User u inner join dbo.GroupMember gm on u.Id = gm.UserAnchorId_FK left join ( SELECT di.UserAnchorId_FK, sum(di.Data1) as Data1, sum(di.Data2) as Data2, sum(di.Data3) as Data3 FROM dbo.DailyInfo di WHERE di.Date between '2009-04-01' and '2009-06-01' GROUP BY di.UserAnchorId_FK ) inner ON inner.UserAnchorId_FK = u.Id WHERE gm.UserGroupId_FK = 195 Attempts so far have included mapping 'User' and 'DailyInfo' classes (my entities) and making a DailyInfo object a property of the User object. However, how to map the foreign key relationship between them is still a mystery, ie <one-to-one></one-to-one> <one-to-many></one-to-many> <generator class="foreign"><param name="property">Id</param></generator> (!) Solutions on the web are generally to do with subqueries within a WHERE clause, however I need to left join on this subquery instead to ensure NULL values are returned for rows that do not join. I have the feeling that I should be using a Criteria for the outer query, then forming a 'join' with a DetachedCriteria to represent the subquery?

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• Nature of Lock is child table while deletion(sql server)

  - by Mubashar Ahmad

  Dear Devs From couple of days i am thinking of a following scenario Consider I have 2 tables with parent child relationship of kind one-to-many. On removal of parent row i have to delete the rows in child those are related to parents. simple right? i have to make a transaction scope to do above operation i can do this as following; (its psuedo code but i am doing this in c# code using odbc connection and database is sql server) begin transaction(read committed) Read all child where child.fk = p1 foreach(child) delete child where child.pk = cx delete parent where parent.pk = p1 commit trans OR begin transaction(read committed) delete all child where child.fk = p1 delete parent where parent.pk = p1 commit trans Now there are couple of questions in my mind Which one of above is better to use specially considering a scenario of real time system where thousands of other operations(select/update/delete/insert) are being performed within a span of seconds. does it ensure that no new child with child.fk = p1 will be added until transaction completes? If yes for 2nd question then how it ensures? do it take the table level locks or what. Is there any kind of Index locking supported by sql server if yes what it does and how it can be used. Regards Mubashar

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• Django - provide additional information in template

  - by Ninefingers

  Hi all, I am building an app to learn Django and have started with a Contact system that currently stores Contacts and Addresses. C's are a many to many relationship with A's, but rather than use Django's models.ManyToManyField() I've created my own link-table providing additional information about the link, such as what the address type is to the that contact (home, work etc). What I'm trying to do is pass this information out to a view, so in my full view of a contact I can do this: def contact_view_full(request, contact_id): c = get_object_or_404(Contact, id=contact_id) a = [] links = ContactAddressLink.objects.filter(ContactID=c.id) for link in links: b = Address.objects.get(id=link.AddressID_id) a.append(b) return render_to_response('contact_full.html', {'contact_item': c, 'addresses' : a }, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) And so I can do the equivalent of c.Addresses.all() or however the ManyToManyField works. What I'm interested to know is how can I pass out information about the link in the link object with the 'addresses' : a information, so that when my template does this: {% for address in addresses %} <!-- ... --> {% endfor %} and properly associate the correct link object data with the address. So what's the best way to achieve this? I'm thinking a union of two objects might be an idea but I haven't enough experience with Django to know if that's considered the best way of doing it. Suggestions? Thanks in advance. Nf

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