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  • XmlHttpRequest in a bookmarklet returns empty responseText on GET?

    - by David Eyk
    I'm trying to build a javascript bookmarklet for a special URL shortening service we've built at http://esv.to for shortening scripture references (i.e. "Matthew 5" becomes "http://esv.to/Mt5". The bookmarklet is supposed to do a GET request to http://api.esv.to/Matthew+5, which returns a text/plain response of http://esv.to/Mt5. The code for the bookmarklet itself looks like this (expanded for readability): var body = document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0], script = document.createElement('script'); script.type = 'text/javascript'; script.src = 'http://esv.to/media/js/bookmarklet.js'; body.appendChild(script); void(0); The code from http://esv.to/media/js/bookmarklet.js looks like this: (function() { function shorten(ref, callback) { var url = "http://esv.to/api/" + escape(ref); var req = new XMLHttpRequest(); req.onreadystatechange = function shortenIt() { if ( this.readyState == 4 && this.status == 200 ) { callback(req.responseText); }; }; req.open( "GET", url ); req.send(); }; function doBookmarklet() { var ref = prompt("Enter a scripture reference or keyword search to link to:", "") shorten(ref, function (short) { prompt("Here is your shortened ESV URL:", short); }); }; doBookmarklet(); })(); When called from http://esv.to itself, the bookmarklet works correctly. But when used on another page, it does not. The strange thing is, when I watch the request from Firebug, the response is 200 OK, the browser downloads 17 bytes (the length of the returned string), but the response body is empty! No error is thrown, just an empty responseText on the XmlHttpRequest object. Now, according to http://stackoverflow.com/questions/664689/ajax-call-from-bookmarklet, GET shouldn't violate the same origin policy. Is this a bug? Is there a workaround?

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  • Serializing Exceptions WCF + Silverlight

    - by Bram
    I have a WCF service I use to submit bugs for my project. Snippet of the data class: Private _exception As Exception <DataMember()> _ Public Property Exception As Exception Get Return _exception End Get Set(ByVal value As Exception) _exception = value End Set End Property I have a Silverlight app that uses the WCF service to send any bugs home if and when they occur. This is the error I'm testing with: Dim i As Integer = 5 i = i / 0 The problem is SL is banging on with this message: System.ServiceModel.CommunicationException was unhandled by user code Message=There was an error while trying to serialize parameter :bug. The InnerException message was 'Type 'System.OverflowException' with data contract name 'OverflowException:http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/System' is not expected. Add any types not known statically to the list of known types - for example, by using the KnownTypeAttribute attribute or by adding them to the list of known types passed to DataContractSerializer.'. Please see InnerException for more details. Is there some trick to get a generic .NET Exception (any InnerException) to serialize properly? I'm not doing anything funky with the exception - it's just a plain 'ol exception Thanks for any help.

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  • In C#, are event handler arguments covariant?

    - by Roger Lipscombe
    Maybe covariant's not the word, but if I have a class that raises an event, with (e.g.) FrobbingEventArgs, am I allowed to handle it with a method that takes EventArgs? Here's some code: class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Frobber frobber = new Frobber(); frobber.Frobbing += FrobberOnFrobbing; frobber.Frob(); } private static void FrobberOnFrobbing(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Do something interesting. Note that the parameter is 'EventArgs'. } } internal class Frobber { public event EventHandler<FrobbingEventArgs> Frobbing; public event EventHandler<FrobbedEventArgs> Frobbed; public void Frob() { OnFrobbing(); // Frob. OnFrobbed(); } private void OnFrobbing() { var handler = Frobbing; if (handler != null) handler(this, new FrobbingEventArgs()); } private void OnFrobbed() { var handler = Frobbed; if (handler != null) handler(this, new FrobbedEventArgs()); } } internal class FrobbedEventArgs : EventArgs { } internal class FrobbingEventArgs : EventArgs { } The reason I ask is that ReSharper seems to have a problem with (what looks like) the equivalent in XAML, and I'm wondering if it's a bug in ReSharper, or a mistake in my understanding of C#.

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  • Adjust size of MPMediaPickerController's view ?

    - by Mr.Gando
    In my application I don't use the upper bar that displays Wi-Fi/Date/Time because it's a game. However I need to be able to let my user to pick his music, so I'm using a MPMediaPickerController. The problem is, that when I present my controller, the controller ends up leaving a 10 pixels ( aprox ) bar at the top of the screen, just in the place the Wi-Fi/Date/Time bar, should be present. Is there a way I could make my MPMediaPickerController bigger ? or to be presented upper in the screen ? // Configures and displays the media item picker. - (void) showMediaPicker: (id) sender { MPMediaPickerController *picker = [[MPMediaPickerController alloc] initWithMediaTypes: MPMediaTypeAnyAudio]; [[picker view] setFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 480)]; picker.delegate = self; picker.allowsPickingMultipleItems = YES; picker.prompt = NSLocalizedString (@"AddSongsPrompt", @"Prompt to user to choose some songs to play"); [self presentModalViewController:picker animated: YES]; [picker release]; } There I tried to set the size to 320x480 but no luck, the picker is still presented and leaves a space in the upper part of the screen, could anyone help me ? Btw, here's how it looks: I have asked a bit, and people told me this could indeed be a bug, what do you guys think ?

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  • How to control CSS class applied to ASP.NET 4 Menu with RenderingMode=List

    - by Joe
    I am using an ASP.NET 4.0 Menu control with RenderingMode=List and am struggling with creating the appropriate CSS. Each menu item is represented by an <li tag that contains a nested <a tag with what appear to be fixed class names: <a class="level1" for unselected level 1 menu items <a class="level2" for unselected level 2 menu items <a class="level1 selected" for the selected level 1 menu item ... etc... What I want to do is to is to prevent the currently selected menu item from being "clickable". To do so I tried using: if (menuItem.Selected) menuItem.Selectable = false; This has the desired effect of removing the href attribute from the <a tag but also removes the class attribute - and as a result my CSS can not identify what level the menu item belongs to! Looks to me like a possible bug, but in any case I can't find any documentation describing what CSS class names are used, nor whether there is any way to control this (the old Style properties don't appear to have any effect). Ideally I would like to have "level" class attributes on the <li tags, not just the nested <a tags.

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  • Page_PreRender fires twice on first load in session

    - by awe
    I have an issue when I access the application, I notice that Page_PreRender is fired twice. This only happens the first time in a new session. It does not happen if I refresh the page, or on postbacks. I use .NET framework 3.5 and the built in ajax functionality. I think the problem is not related to img tag with empty src attribute as I have seen other posts has mentioned, because I see this in both FireFox and IE. The posts I saw about this stated that this was not a problem in IE. I have also searched and found no img tags with empty src in the generated page source, so it should not be this. I have also made a simple test page where I have included some of the functionality, and this does not happen. Here I have also tried to reproduce the empty src bug by including <img src="" /> on the page, but this does not trigger this problem. Have anyone any suggestions on what happens? Note: It is the entire page cycle that is firing twice, not just render.

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  • Gadget vista error var with flyout

    - by Jiinn
    hello ! i have a problem with a variable for the flyout : var friendsUser = ""; var friendsMdp = ""; System.Gadget.Settings.write("variableName", variableName); System.Gadget.settingsUI = "Settings.html"; System.Gadget.onSettingsClosed = SettingsClosed; System.Gadget.Flyout.visible = SettingsClosed; function SettingsClosed() { variableName = System.Gadget.Settings.read("variableName"); friendsUser = System.Gadget.Settings.read("friendUser"); friendsMdp = System.Gadget.Settings.read("friendMdp"); setContentText(); } function flyFriends() { System.Gadget.Flyout.file = 'friends.htm'; System.Gadget.Flyout.show = true ; var flyoutDiv = System.Gadget.Flyout.document.parentWindow; flyoutDiv.gMyVar = friendsUser; flyoutDiv.gMyVar2 = friendsMdp; } If i use this my flyout var is undefined , and if i write : var friendsUser = "test"; i have Test in var and after use setting i have nothing ... if i write var in flyoutDiv before System.Gadget.Flyout.show = true ; gadget bug . my settings dont have a problem, but the refresh of the var ... have you a idea ? thank you for all !

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  • Unknown date shown for mails received from Mantis in Webmail

    - by Timw
    Hello, Im using Mantis bug tracker v1.1.8, and the Horde Webmail System for my company emails. When emails sent by Mantis arrive in my company inbox, i get Unknown Date in the Date field of the inbox view. When i open the message, i see the Date like Thu, 31 Dec 2009 14:32:15 +0580. The other mails, whose date i can see in the Inbox view have date in a format like Mon, 21 Dec 2009 06:56:18 +0100 [12/21/2009 11:26:18 AM IST] . For your reference i have pasted below the contents of my config_inc.php <?php $g_hostname = 'localhost'; $g_db_type = 'mysql'; $g_database_name = 'bugtracker_mantis'; $g_db_username = 'root'; $g_db_password = ''; # select the method to mail by: # 0 - mail() # 1 - sendmail # 2 - SMTP $g_phpMailer_method = 2; # This option allows you to use a remote SMTP host. Must use the phpMailer script # Name of smtp host, needed for phpMailer, taken from php.ini $g_smtp_host = <my_smtp_host>; $g_administrator_email = <my_administrator_email>; $g_webmaster_email = <my_webmaster_email>; $g_from_email = <my_from_email>; putenv("TZ=Asia/Calcutta"); #Date Settings $g_default_language = 'english'; $g_short_date_format = 'dm-Y'; $g_normal_date_format = 'dmY H: i'; $g_complete_date_format = 'm-d-y H:i T'; ?> Any way to fix this problem ? Thank You

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  • Oracle why does creating trigger fail when there is a field called timestamp?

    - by Omar Kooheji
    I've just wasted the past two hours of my life trying to create a table with an auto incrementing primary key bases on this tutorial, The tutorial is great the issue I've been encountering is that the Create Target fails if I have a column which is a timestamp and a table that is called timestamp in the same table... Why doesn't oracle flag this as being an issue when I create the table? Here is the Sequence of commands I enter: Creating the Table: CREATE TABLE myTable (id NUMBER PRIMARY KEY, field1 TIMESTAMP(6), timeStamp NUMBER, ); Creating the Sequence: CREATE SEQUENCE test_sequence START WITH 1 INCREMENT BY 1; Creating the trigger: CREATE OR REPLACE TRIGGER test_trigger BEFORE INSERT ON myTable REFERENCING NEW AS NEW FOR EACH ROW BEGIN SELECT test_sequence.nextval INTO :NEW.ID FROM dual; END; / Here is the error message I get: ORA-06552: PL/SQL: Compilation unit analysis terminated ORA-06553: PLS-320: the declaration of the type of this expression is incomplete or malformed Any combination that does not have the two lines with a the word "timestamp" in them works fine. I would have thought the syntax would be enough to differentiate between the keyword and a column name. As I've said I don't understand why the table is created fine but oracle falls over when I try to create the trigger... CLARIFICATION I know that the issue is that there is a column called timestamp which may or may not be a keyword. MY issue is why it barfed when I tried to create a trigger and not when I created the table, I would have at least expected a warning. That said having used Oracle for a few hours, it seems a lot less verbose in it's error reporting, Maybe just because I'm using the express version though. If this is a bug in Oracle how would one who doesn't have a support contract go about reporting it? I'm just playing around with the express version because I have to migrate some code from MySQL to Oracle.

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  • Simple way to repeat a String in java

    - by e5
    I'm looking for a simple commons method or operator that allows me to repeat some String n times. I know I could write this using a for loop, but I wish to avoid for loops whenever necessary and a simple direct method should exist somewhere. String str = "abc"; String repeated = str.repeat(3); repeated.equals("abcabcabc"); Related to: repeat string javascript Create NSString by repeating another string a given number of times Edited I try to avoid for loops when they are not completely necessary because: They add to the number of lines of code even if they are tucked away in another function. Someone reading my code has to figure out what I am doing in that for loop. Even if it is commented and has meaningful variables names, they still have to make sure it is not doing anything "clever". Programmers love to put clever things in for loops, even if I write it to "only do what it is intended to do", that does not preclude someone coming along and adding some additional clever "fix". They are very often easy to get wrong. For loops that involving indexes tend to generate off by one bugs. For loops often reuse the same variables, increasing the chance of really hard to find scoping bugs. For loops increase the number of places a bug hunter has to look.

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  • Best practice - When to evaluate conditionals of function execution

    - by Tesserex
    If I have a function called from a few places, and it requires some condition to be met for anything it does to execute, where should that condition be checked? In my case, it's for drawing - if the mouse button is held down, then execute the drawing logic (this is being done in the mouse movement handler for when you drag.) Option one says put it in the function so that it's guaranteed to be checked. Abstracted, if you will. public function Foo() { DoThing(); } private function DoThing() { if (!condition) return; // do stuff } The problem I have with this is that when reading the code of Foo, which may be far away from DoThing, it looks like a bug. The first thought is that the condition isn't being checked. Option two, then, is to check before calling. public function Foo() { if (condition) DoThing(); } This reads better, but now you have to worry about checking from everywhere you call it. Option three is to rename the function to be more descriptive. public function Foo() { DoThingOnlyIfCondition(); } private function DoThingOnlyIfCondition() { if (!condition) return; // do stuff } Is this the "correct" solution? Or is this going a bit too far? I feel like if everything were like this function names would start to duplicate their code. About this being subjective: of course it is, and there may not be a right answer, but I think it's still perfectly at home here. Getting advice from better programmers than I is the second best way to learn. Subjective questions are exactly the kind of thing Google can't answer.

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  • Weird Qt SSL issue -- error "No Error" shows up, nothing else, and if I ignore it, everything works

    - by houbysoft
    The issue is as follows : in my Qt app, I have a QWebView, which I use to load a HTTPS page. Everything worked fine on my development machine, so I'm now trying to get it to run on a test machine. I ran the app, but the page didn't load (the QWebView was blank). After much debugging, I found the problem is that an SSL error shows up, and the sslErrors() signal is fired. Here is my sslErrors() handling code: void blah::sslErrors(QNetworkReply *reply, const QList<QSslError> &errors) { foreach(QSslError error, errors) { qDebug() << error.errorString() << endl; } reply->ignoreSslErrors(); } The only thing the above code prints is: "No error" So there's no error, but unless I call reply->ignoreSslErrors(), the page doesn't load (on the test machine, on my developer computer no error is reported). Huh? Is this a bug? Is it safe to ignore the error, if I make sure it's of the type "No error"?

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  • Is this a clean way to manage AsyncResults with Generic Methods?

    - by Michael Stum
    I've contributed Async Support to a Project I'm using, but I made a bug which I'm trying to fix. Basically I have this construct: private readonly Dictionary<WaitHandle, object> genericCallbacks = new Dictionary<WaitHandle, object>(); public IAsyncResult BeginExecute<T>(RestRequest request, AsyncCallback callback, object state) where T : new() { var genericCallback = new RequestExecuteCaller<T>(this.Execute<T>); var asyncResult = genericCallback.BeginInvoke(request, callback, state); genericCallbacks[asyncResult.AsyncWaitHandle] = genericCallback; return asyncResult; } public RestResponse<T> EndExecute<T>(IAsyncResult asyncResult) where T : new() { var cb = genericCallbacks[asyncResult.AsyncWaitHandle] as RequestExecuteCaller<T>; genericCallbacks.Remove(asyncResult.AsyncWaitHandle); return cb.EndInvoke(asyncResult); } So I have a generic BeginExecute/EndExecute method pair. As I need to store the delegate that is called on EndExecute somewhere I created a dictionary. I'm unsure about using WaitHandles as keys though, but that seems to be the only safe choice. Does this approach make sense? Are WaitHandles unique or could I have two equal ones? Or should I instead use the State (and wrap any user provided state into my own State value)? Just to add, the class itself is non-generic, only the Begin/EndExecute methods are generic.

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  • PHP autoloader: ignoring non-existing include

    - by Bart van Heukelom
    I have a problem with my autoloader: public function loadClass($className) { $file = str_replace(array('_', '\\'), '/', $className) . '.php'; include_once $file; } As you can see, it's quite simple. I just deduce the filename of the class and try to include it. I have a problem though; I get an exception when trying to load a non-existing class (because I have an error handler which throws exceptions). This is inconvenient, because it's also fired when you use class_exists() on a non-existing class. You don't want an exception there, just a "false" returned. I fixed this earlier by putting an @ before the include (supressing all errors). The big drawback with this, though, is that any parser/compiler errors (that are fatal) in this include won't show up (not even in the logs), resulting in a hard to find bug. What would be the best way to solve both problems at once? The easiest way would be to include something like this in the autoloader (pseudocode): foreach (path in the include_path) { if (is_readable(the path + the class name)) readable = true; } if (!readable) return; But I worry about the performance there. Would it hurt a lot? (Solved) Made it like this: public function loadClass($className) { $file = str_replace(array('_', '\\'), '/', $className) . '.php'; $paths = explode(PATH_SEPARATOR, get_include_path()); foreach ($paths as $path) { if (is_readable($path . '/' . $file)) { include_once $file; return; } } }

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  • segfault during __cxa_allocate_exception in SWIG wrapped library

    - by lefticus
    While developing a SWIG wrapped C++ library for Ruby, we came across an unexplained crash during exception handling inside the C++ code. I'm not sure of the specific circumstances to recreate the issue, but it happened first during a call to std::uncaught_exception, then after a some code changes, moved to __cxa_allocate_exception during exception construction. Neither GDB nor valgrind provided any insight into the cause of the crash. I've found several references to similar problems, including: http://wiki.fifengine.de/Segfault_in_cxa_allocate_exception http://forums.fifengine.de/index.php?topic=30.0 http://code.google.com/p/osgswig/issues/detail?id=17 https://bugs.launchpad.net/ubuntu/+source/libavg/+bug/241808 The overriding theme seems to be a combination of circumstances: A C application is linked to more than one C++ library More than one version of libstdc++ was used during compilation Generally the second version of C++ used comes from a binary-only implementation of libGL The problem does not occur when linking your library with a C++ application, only with a C application The "solution" is to explicitly link your library with libstdc++ and possibly also with libGL, forcing the order of linking. After trying many combinations with my code, the only solution that I found that works is the LD_PRELOAD="libGL.so libstdc++.so.6" ruby scriptname option. That is, none of the compile-time linking solutions made any difference. My understanding of the issue is that the C++ runtime is not being properly initialized. By forcing the order of linking you bootstrap the initialization process and it works. The problem occurs only with C applications calling C++ libraries because the C application is not itself linking to libstdc++ and is not initializing the C++ runtime. Because using SWIG (or boost::python) is a common way of calling a C++ library from a C application, that is why SWIG often comes up when researching the problem. Is anyone out there able to give more insight into this problem? Is there an actual solution or do only workarounds exist? Thanks.

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  • System.out.println() does not operate in Akka actor

    - by faisal abdulai
    I am kind of baffled by this encointer. I am working an akka project that was created as a maven projecct and imported into eclipse using the mvn eclipse:eclipse command. the akka actor has the system println method just to make it easy to do read the functions and methods invoked. However any time I run the akka system, the println command does not print any thing to the eclipse console but I do not get any error messages. does any one have any idea about this. below is a code snippet. public class MasterActor extends UntypedActor { /** * */ ActorSystem system = ActorSystem.create("container"); ActorRef worker1; //public MasterActor(){} @Override public void onReceive(Object message) throws Exception { System.out.println(" Master Actor 5"); if(message instanceof GesturePoints) { //GesturePoints gp = (GesturePoints) message; System.out.println(" Master Actor 1"); try { worker1.tell(message, getSelf()); System.out.println(" Master Actor 2"); } catch (Exception e) { getSender().tell(new akka.actor.Status.Failure(e), getSelf()); throw e; } } else{ unhandled(message);} } public void preStart() { worker1 = getContext().actorFor("akka://[email protected]:2553/user/workerActor"); } } don't know whether it is a bug in eclipse. thank you.

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  • DataTable throwing exception on RejectChanges

    - by Vale
    I found this bug while working with a DataTable. I added a primary key column to a DataTable, than added one row to that table, removed that row, and added row with the same key to the table. This works. When I tried to call RejectChanges() on it, I got ConstraintException saying that value is already present. Here is the example: var dataTable = new DataTable(); var column = new DataColumn("ID", typeof(decimal)); dataTable.Columns.Add(column); dataTable.PrimaryKey = new [] {column }; decimal id = 1; var oldRow = dataTable.NewRow(); oldRow[column] = id; dataTable.Rows.Add(oldRow); dataTable.AcceptChanges(); oldRow.Delete(); var newRow = dataTable.NewRow(); newRow[column] = id; dataTable.Rows.Add(newRow); dataTable.RejectChanges(); // This is where it crashes I think since the row is deleted, exception should not be thrown (constraint is not violated because row is in deleted state). Is there something I can do about this? Any help is appreciated.

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  • Visual Studio 2010 / ASP.NET MVC 2 / Publish Error

    - by SevenCentral
    I just did a clean install on Windows 7 x64 Professional with the final release of Visual Studio 2010 Premium. In order to duplicate what I'm experiencing do the following in: Create a new ASP.NET MVC 2 Web Application Right click the project and select Properties On the Web tab, select "Use Local IIS Web Server" Click on Create Virtual Directory Save all Unload the project Edit the project file Change MvcBuildViews to true Save all Reload project Right click the project and select Publish Choose the file system publish method Enter a target location Choose Delete all existing files Select Publish Right click the project Select Publish Each time I do the above I get the following errror: "It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level..." The error originates from obj\debug\package\packagetmp\web.config, relative to the project directory. I can repeat this all day long with any MVC 2 project I've built. In order to fix this problem, I need to set MvcBuildViews to false in the project file. That's not really an option. This wasn't a problem in Visual Studio 2008 and it seems to be an issue with the way the Publish command stages files beneath the project directory. Can anyone else duplicate this error? Is this a bug or by design? Is there a fix, workaround, etc...? Thanks.

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  • How much of STL is too much?

    - by Darius Kucinskas
    I am using a lot of STL code with std::for_each, bind, and so on, but I noticed that sometimes STL usage is not good idea. For example if you have a std::vector and want to do one action on each item of the vector, your first idea is to use this: std::for_each(vec.begin(), vec.end(), Foo()) and it is elegant and ok, for a while. But then comes the first set of bug reports and you have to modify code. Now you should add parameter to call Foo(), so now it becomes: std::for_each(vec.begin(), vec.end(), std::bind2nd(Foo(), X)) but that is only temporary solution. Now the project is maturing and you understand business logic much better and you want to add new modifications to code. It is at this point that you realize that you should use old good: for(std::vector::iterator it = vec.begin(); it != vec.end(); ++it) Is this happening only to me? Do you recognise this kind of pattern in your code? Have you experience similar anti-patterns using STL?

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  • embedded SWF isn't shown (SWFLoader)

    - by Trantec
    I embed a swf as ByteArray and load it at runtime with the SWFLoader. Here is the internal swf that I want to load: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute"> <mx:Label id="rLabel" text="From InternalSWF"/> </mx:Application> The embeding swf loads it with the following code: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute" applicationComplete="main();"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.managers.SystemManager; import mx.events.FlexEvent; [Embed(source="../../InternalSWF/bin-release/InternalSWF.swf", mimeType="application/octet-stream")] mimeType="application/octet-stream")] private const internalSWF:Class; public function main(): void { var binary:ByteArray = new internalSWF() as ByteArray; // setup swfloader rSwfLoader.trustContent = true; rSwfLoader.addEventListener( Event.COMPLETE, onSWFLoaded ); rSwfLoader.load(binary); } public function onSWFLoaded( event:Event ): void { } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:Box> <mx:SWFLoader id="rSwfLoader" height="100%" width="100%" scaleContent="true"/> <mx:Text id="rText" text="from EmbedingSWF"/> </mx:Box> The label "from EmbedingSWF" is shown on both, local and on the webserver. But the label with "From InternalSWF" isn't shown on the webserver, just on the local machine. With some tests I found out that the internal swf is loaded correctly, because it's later added applicationComplete-Function is called. Is this a bug in Adobe-Flash-Player or am I missunderstanding something ? Update: Internet Explorer is fine. Firefox and Chrome not...

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  • Why does a non-dynamically created iframe shim show, but a dynamically created one does not?

    - by Carter
    I have a custom control that is made up of a text field and the ajax control toolkit dateextender. In IE6 I'm hitting the z-index bug where the calendar is showing behind select boxes. If I have the shim sitting in the control, initially hidden, it seems to display fine when the calendar is shown, but when I try to dynamically create the shim on showing it doesn't appear. I've tried bgiframe and some examples I found on SO, no luck. Here is my javascript code currently... var dateEditorShim; function dateEditor_OnShown(dateControl, emptyEventArgs) { var shimWidth = dateControl._width; var shimHeight = dateControl._height; //var dateEditorShim; //dateEditorShim = document.getElementById(dateEditorShimId); dateEditorShim = document.createElement('iframe'); dateEditorShim.setAttribute('src', 'javascript:"";'); dateEditorShim.setAttribute('frameBorder', '0'); dateEditorShim.style.width = dateControl._popupDiv.offsetWidth; dateEditorShim.style.height = dateControl._popupDiv.offsetHeight; dateEditorShim.style.top = dateControl._popupDiv.style.top; dateEditorShim.style.left = dateControl._popupDiv.style.left; dateControl._popupDiv.style.zIndex = 999; dateEditorShim.style.zIndex = 998; dateEditorShim.style.display = "block"; } function dateEditor_OnHiding(dateControl, emptyEventArgs) { var shimWidth = 0; var shimHeight = 0; //var dateEditorShim; //dateEditorShim = document.getElementById(dateEditorShimId); dateEditorShim.style.width = 0; dateEditorShim.style.height = 0; dateEditorShim.style.top = 0; dateEditorShim.style.left = 0; dateEditorShim.style.display = "none"; } You'll notice I have a commented out bit of code that gets an iframe that is embedded into the page, as I said, in this case the iframe at least shows up, but when I dynamically create it like the code above currently, it doesn't. I'm trying to figure out why. Any ideas?

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  • Visual Studio 2010 / ASP.NET MVC / Publish

    - by SevenCentral
    I just did a clean install on Windows 7 x64 Professional with the final release of Visual Studio 2010 Premium. In order to duplicate what I'm experiencing do the following in: Create a new ASP.NET MVC 2 Web Application Right click the project and select Properties On the Web tab, select "Use Local IIS Web Server" Click on Create Virtual Directory Save all Unload the project Edit the project file Change MvcBuildViews to true Save all Reload project Right click the project and select Publish Choose the file system publish method Enter a target location Choose Delete all existing files Select Publish Right click the project Select Publish Each time I do the above I get the following errror: "It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level..." The error originates from obj\debug\package\packagetmp\web.config, relative to the project directory. I can repeat this all day long with any MVC 2 project I've built. In order to fix this problem, I need to set MvcBuildViews to false in the project file. That's not really an option. This wasn't a problem in Visual Studio 2008 and it seems to be an issue with the way the Publish command stages files beneath the project directory. Can anyone else duplicate this error? Is this a bug or by design? Is there a fix, workaround, etc...? Thanks.

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  • How should a one-man development shop document their code?

    - by CKoenig
    Hi, please let me first describe my situation. I work in an IT department for a small-to-medium sized industrial-company and basically I'm the only real developer (sometimes a second guy joins in for his own projects). I programm mostly in C#/.net. Of course I only programm for internal need (Intranet, reporting, data-driven apps, some mobile apps, ...). My question is how should I document my work? It's a highly dynamic environment (the features and bug fixes I implement are tested by me during production, and go live, often within a day. If I technical documentation like MSDN or even overview diagramms those would take me more time to sync than the whole programming process. Also I feel it's a waste of time because I would be the only one who ever read it. I do understand that if I get sick, leave, or forget this documentation would be valuable. PS:well of course you are right - the quesion is how much and how/where. I try using the XML-docu comments for the public exposed parts but as I'm a believer in self-documenting code the comments mostly restates in plain text what you can read from the method-head itself :(Maybe using the remarks section is the key but if you have 30 lines of code with a 15 line xml-comment in front it just looks dirty (sorry for posting it here but our firewall rejects JSON :( )

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  • .NET WebBrowser control with Adobe SVG Viewer

    I'm having problems with SVG files loading in a .NET 2.0 WebBrowser control. If I create a new WinForms application project, drag a WebBrowser control and a button onto the Form1.cs design surface, and add a line to the button's on-click handler to set the Url property of the WebBrowser control to an SVG file, I get two IE script errors at runtime (as in, the dialog you get when there is a Javascript problem). The only line of code I'm writing is therefore: webBrowser1.Url = new Uri(@"http://wiki.allegro.cc/pub/f/fb/Grozilla.svg"); This SVG file loads fine if I browse directly to the link with IE; the errors I get via my test app are: line 2, char 1, error: Invalid character, followed by line 1, char 1, error: Object expected (assuming I answer yes to the prompt to 'continue running scripts on this page'). I'm using IE 7.0.5730.13, Adobe SVG Viewer 3.03 build 94, Visual Studio 2008. Can anyone replicate this? Has anyone seen it/got any idea how to fix it? (edit: previously setting the URL in the constructor for the purposes of the example, but this raised the question of whether or not the control had finished initialising, so have changed the example to use a button - the problem still occurs. This bug originally appeared in production code so the example program I wrote was an attempt to isolate the issue and reproduce it as simply as possible.) (edit 2: having tested on several different machines, this problems seems to be related to IE7 - run IE6, and everything works fine.)

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  • Grails Deployment - Fastest way to get deployed?

    - by gav
    Hi All, If anyone has or is running a Grails application on their server I would appreciate some details on where to go after creating the WAR. Background I chose grails because with Google App Engine and the App Engine Plugin deployment should have been trivial. This issue is that there is a bug which makes any application pretty much unusable, I wish this had been more prominent so I didn't have to get to the point of seeing the error myself before I was aware of it. The next option was EC2 and the Cloud Tools plugin, it seems Cloud Tools worked with grails 1.0 but doesn't work with the current 1.2.1 due to issues getting the JAR dependencies. It also seems that Cloud Tools has been succeeded by Cloud Foundry which is in beta, will cost extra money and has limited places (I signed up but haven't got an e-mail). Question My application is painfully trivial, it has a small load, small data requirements and doesn't need to scale past 5 users. How can I deploy my grails app as quickly and painlessly as possible? Specifically: Are there any hosting companies that have tomcat installed on their servers out of the box that I can sign up to and use that will just work? Do you know of any simple tutorials for getting a grails application deployed to EC2 without Cloud Tools? Thanks in advance, Gav Side-note: I picked grails because of good advice from SO, it should have been a very short time from development to deployed product except the tools for auto-deployment aren't that mature and I've never configured a server before.

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