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  • How is covariance cooler than polymorphism...and not redundant?

    - by P.Brian.Mackey
    .NET 4 introduces covariance. I guess it is useful. After all, MS went through all the trouble of adding it to the C# language. But, why is Covariance more useful than good old polymorphism? I wrote this example to understand why I should implement Covariance, but I still don't get it. Please enlighten me. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace Sample { class Demo { public delegate void ContraAction<in T>(T a); public interface IContainer<out T> { T GetItem(); void Do(ContraAction<T> action); } public class Container<T> : IContainer<T> { private T item; public Container(T item) { this.item = item; } public T GetItem() { return item; } public void Do(ContraAction<T> action) { action(item); } } public class Shape { public void Draw() { Console.WriteLine("Shape Drawn"); } } public class Circle:Shape { public void DrawCircle() { Console.WriteLine("Circle Drawn"); } } public static void Main() { Circle circle = new Circle(); IContainer<Shape> container = new Container<Circle>(circle); container.Do(s => s.Draw());//calls shape //Old school polymorphism...how is this not the same thing? Shape shape = new Circle(); shape.Draw(); } } }

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  • Displaying a message after adding duplicate records in database

    - by user1770370
    I wrote program in C# winforms and SQL server and LINQ to SQL. I use user control instead of form. In my user control, I put 3 textbox, txtStartNumber, txtEndNumber, txtQuantity. user define value of textboxes, when clicked button, it will insert some records according to the value of txtQuantity. I want to when duplicate number is created, it won't add to database and display message. how do i do? I must write code in code behind or server side? i must set this in store procedure or trigger? private void btnSave_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { long from = Convert.ToInt64(txt_barcode_f.Text); long to = Convert.ToInt64(txt_barcode_t.Text); long quantity = Convert.ToInt64(to - from); int card_Type_ID=Convert.ToInt32(cmb_BracodeType .SelectedValue); long[] arrCardNum = new long[(to - from)]; arrCardNum[0]=from; for (long i = from; i < to; i++) { for(int j=0; j<(to-from) ;j++) { arrCardNum[j]=from+j; string r = arrCardNum[j].ToString(); sp.SaveCards(r, 2, card_Type_ID, SaveDate, 2); } } } Stored Procedure code. ALTER PROCEDURE dbo.SaveCards @Barcode_Num int ,@Card_Status_ID int ,@Card_Type_ID int ,@SaveDate varchar(10) ,@Save_User_ID int AS BEGIN INSERT INTO [Parking].[dbo].[TBL_Cards] ([Barcode_Num] ,[Card_Status_ID] ,[Card_Type_ID] ,[Save_User_ID]) VALUES (@Barcode_Num ,@Card_Status_ID ,@Card_Type_ID ,@Save_User_ID) END

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  • ASP.NET MVC: How to show value in a label from selected Drop Down List item?

    - by Lillie
    Hi! I'm trying to show a value of selected Drop Down List item in a label. I managed to make this work with Web Forms but with MVC I'm totally lost. My Index looks like this: [...] <% using (Html.BeginForm()) { %> <table> <tr> <td>Processor</td> <td><%= Html.DropDownList("lstProcessor1", new SelectList((IEnumerable)ViewData["Processor1List"], "product_price", "product_description")) %></td> </tr> <tr> <td>Total Amount</td> <td>0,00 €</td> </tr> </table> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> <% } %> [...] And my HomeController starts with: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Mvc; using System.Web.Mvc.Ajax; using MvcApplication1.Models; namespace MvcApplication1.Controllers { [HandleError] public class HomeController : Controller { // Connect database DB50DataContext _ctx = new DB50DataContext(); // GET: /Home/ public ActionResult Index() { // Search: Processors var products = from prod in _ctx.products where prod.product_searchcode == "processor1" select prod; ViewData["Processort1List"] = products; return View(); } I would like the product_price to show on the second line of the table, where it now says 0,00 €. It should also update the price automatically when the item from the Drop Down List is changed. I guess I should use JQuery but I have no idea how. Could someone please give me some tips how to do this?

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  • How do i use Form.ShowDialog?

    - by Daniel Lip
    private void button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { ChangeLink cl = new ChangeLink(); // Show testDialog as a modal dialog and determine if DialogResult = OK. if (cl.ShowDialog() == DialogResult.OK) { // Read the contents of testDialog's TextBox. // cl.AcceptButton.DialogResult = DialogResult.OK; this.label4.Text = cl.textBox1Text; } else { this.label4.Text = "Cancelled"; } cl.Dispose(); } When i click the button i see the new Form and the textBox1 in the new Form and i can type in the textBox1 something but i dont see anywhere an OK or CANCEL buttons. Should i add them manualy in the new Form designer ? And how to use them then ? This is the code in my new Form what i wanted to do is to type something in the new Form textBox1 and pass the text in the textBox1 to Form1 label4. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Data; using System.Drawing; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; namespace GatherLinks { public partial class ChangeLink : Form { public ChangeLink() { InitializeComponent(); } public string textBox1Text { get { return textBox1Text = textBox1.Text; } set { } } } } So where are the OK and CANCEL buttons of the Form.ShowDialog ?

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  • Remove all rows in duplication (different from distinct row selection)

    - by user1671401
    How can I remove EVERY duplicating row in a DataTable, based on the value of two columns that are in duplication. Unfortunately, I am unable to find the equivalent LINQ Query. (I dont want distinct values even). The table below shall explain my problem I want to delete every row in duplication based on Column_A and Column_B COLUMN_A      COLUMN_B      COLUMN_C     COLUMN_D..... A                       B C                       D E                       F G                       H A                       B E                       F EXPECTED OUTPUT: COLUMN_A      COLUMN_B      COLUMN_C     COLUMN_D..... C                       D G                       H Please help

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  • C# return and display syntax issue

    - by thatdude
    I am having trouble passing the return value from TheMethod() to Main and displaying the word if the if statement is passed as true. I have thought of two ways of doing this, neither has worked but I think I am missing synatx. Using a return ?; non void method and then displaying the returned value. Using a void method and actually writing out(example below) So yes I am new at this, however I have made so many iterations everything is blending together and I have forgot what I have tried. Any help on the syntax be great for either of these ways. Basically I need it to iterate numbers 1,2,3,4 and depending on if the current iteration matches an expression in the if statements it will display a word. Example: if (3 = i) { Console.WriteLine("Word"); } Code: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Threading.Tasks; namespace Proj5 { class Program { int i = 0; static void Main(int i) { for (i = 0; i < 101; i++) { Console.WriteLine("test"); } } string TheMethod(int i) { string f = "Word1"; string b = "Word2"; if (i == 3) { return f; } if (i == 5) { return b; } if (0 == (i % 3)) { return f; } if (0 == i % 5) { return b; } else { return b; } } } }

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  • nhibernate mapping: A collection with cascade="all-delete-orphan" was no longer referenced

    - by Chev
    Hi All I am having some probs with my fluent mappings. I have an entity with a child collection of entities i.e Event and EventItems for example. If I set my cascade mapping of the collection to AllDeleteOrphan I get the following error when saving a new entity to the DB: NHibernate.HibernateException : A collection with cascade="all-delete-orphan" was no longer referenced by the owning entity instance: Core.Event.EventItems If I set the cascade to All it works fine? Below are my classes and mapping files: public class EventMap : ClassMap<Event> { public EventMap() { Id(x => x.Id, "Id") .UnsavedValue("00000000-0000-0000-0000-000000000000") .GeneratedBy.GuidComb(); Map(x => x.Name); HasMany(x => x.EventItems) .Inverse() .KeyColumn("EventId") .AsBag() .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan(); } } public class EventItemMap : SubclassMap<EventItem> { public EventItemMap() { Id(x => x.Id, "Id") .UnsavedValue("00000000-0000-0000-0000-000000000000") .GeneratedBy.GuidComb(); References(x => x.Event, "EventId"); } } public class Event : EntityBase { private IList<EventItem> _EventItems; protected Event() { InitMembers(); } public Event(string name) : this() { Name = name; } private void InitMembers() { _EventItems = new List<EventItem>(); } public virtual EventItem CreateEventItem(string name) { EventItem eventItem = new EventItem(this, name); _EventItems.Add(eventItem); return eventItem; } public virtual string Name { get; private set; } public virtual IList<EventItem> EventItems { get { return _EventItems.ToList<EventItem>().AsReadOnly(); } protected set { _EventItems = value; } } } public class EventItem : EntityBase { protected EventItem() { } public EventItem(Event @event, string name):base(name) { Event = @event; } public virtual Event Event { get; private set; } } Pretty stumped here. Any tips greatly appreciated. Chev

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  • Multiple tables\objects in one nHibernate mapping

    - by Morrislgn
    Hi Folks I am trying to create an nHibernate mapping for a class structure like so: class UserDetails{ Guid id; User user; Role role; public User UserInfo{ get;set; } public Role UserRoles{ get;set; } public Guid ID{ Get; set; } } class User{ string name; int id; public string Name{ get;set; } public int ID{ get;set; } } class Role{ string roleName; string roleDesc; int roleId; public string RoleName{ get;set; } public string RoleDesc{ get;set; } public int RoleID{ get;set; } } The underlying DB structure is similar to the tables, but there is a linking table which links user and role using their respective IDs: UserRoleLinkTable[ identity User_Role_ID (pk) userID (FK to User table) roleid (FK to Role table) ] After playing about with nHibernate this is similar to what I want to try and achieve (but it doesnt work!): <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="Admin" namespace="Admin" > <class name="UserDetails" lazy="false" table="USER"> <id name="ID"> <generator class="guid"></generator> </id> <one-to-one name="UserInfo" class="User" lazy="false" cascade="none"/> <bag name="UserRoles" inverse="false" table="Role" lazy="false" cascade="none" > <key column="Role" /> <many-to-many class="Role" column="ROLE_ID" /> </bag> </class> </hibernate-mapping> I have mappings\entities which appear to work for Role and User (used in other aspects of the project) objects but how do I pull this information into one UserDetails class? The point of the user details to be able to return all this information together as one object. Is it possible to create (for want of a better description) a container using an nHibernate mapping and map the data that way? Hopefully there is enough info to help work this out - thanks in advance for all help given! Cheers, Morris

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  • ADO.NET Data Services Entity Framework request error when property setter is internal

    - by Jim Straatman
    I receive an error message when exposing an ADO.NET Data Service using an Entity Framework data model that contains an entity (called "Case") with an internal setter on a property. If I modify the setter to be public (using the entity designer), the data services works fine. I don’t need the entity "Case" exposed in the data service, so I tried to limit which entities are exposed using SetEntitySetAccessRule. This didn’t work, and service end point fails with the same error. public static void InitializeService(IDataServiceConfiguration config) { config.SetEntitySetAccessRule("User", EntitySetRights.AllRead); } The error message is reported in a browser when the .svc endpoint is called. It is very generic, and reads “Request Error. The server encountered an error processing the request. See server logs for more details.” Unfortunately, there are no entries in the System and Application event logs. I found this stackoverflow question that shows how to configure tracing on the service. After doing so, the following NullReferenceExceptoin error was reported in the trace log. Does anyone know how to avoid this exception when including an entity with an internal setter? Blockquote 131076 3 0 2 MOTOJIM http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-US/library/System.ServiceModel.Diagnostics.TraceHandledException.aspx Handling an exception. 685a2910-19-128703978432492675 System.NullReferenceException, mscorlib, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089 Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at System.Data.Services.Providers.ObjectContextServiceProvider.PopulateMemberMetadata(ResourceType resourceType, MetadataWorkspace workspace, IDictionary2 entitySets, IDictionary2 knownTypes) at System.Data.Services.Providers.ObjectContextServiceProvider.PopulateMetadata(IDictionary2 knownTypes, IDictionary2 entitySets) at System.Data.Services.Providers.BaseServiceProvider.PopulateMetadata() at System.Data.Services.DataService1.CreateProvider(Type dataServiceType, Object dataSourceInstance, DataServiceConfiguration&amp; configuration) at System.Data.Services.DataService1.EnsureProviderAndConfigForRequest() at System.Data.Services.DataService1.ProcessRequestForMessage(Stream messageBody) at SyncInvokeProcessRequestForMessage(Object , Object[] , Object[] ) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.SyncMethodInvoker.Invoke(Object instance, Object[] inputs, Object[]&amp; outputs) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.DispatchOperationRuntime.InvokeBegin(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage5(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage4(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage3(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage2(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage1(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.MessageRpc.Process(Boolean isOperationContextSet) </StackTrace> <ExceptionString>System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at System.Data.Services.Providers.ObjectContextServiceProvider.PopulateMemberMetadata(ResourceType resourceType, MetadataWorkspace workspace, IDictionary2 entitySets, IDictionary2 knownTypes) at System.Data.Services.Providers.ObjectContextServiceProvider.PopulateMetadata(IDictionary2 knownTypes, IDictionary2 entitySets) at System.Data.Services.Providers.BaseServiceProvider.P

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  • Can I force JAXB not to convert " into &quot;, for example, when marshalling to XML?

    - by Elliot
    I have an Object that is being marshalled to XML using JAXB. One element contains a String that includes quotes ("). The resulting XML has &quot; where the " existed. Even though this is normally preferred, I need my output to match a legacy system. How do I force JAXB to NOT convert the HTML entities? -- Thank you for the replies. However, I never see the handler escape() called. Can you take a look and see what I'm doing wrong? Thanks! package org.dc.model; import java.io.IOException; import java.io.Writer; import javax.xml.bind.JAXBContext; import javax.xml.bind.JAXBException; import javax.xml.bind.Marshaller; import org.dc.generated.Shiporder; import com.sun.xml.internal.bind.marshaller.CharacterEscapeHandler; public class PleaseWork { public void prettyPlease() throws JAXBException { Shiporder shipOrder = new Shiporder(); shipOrder.setOrderid("Order's ID"); shipOrder.setOrderperson("The woman said, \"How ya doin & stuff?\""); JAXBContext context = JAXBContext.newInstance("org.dc.generated"); Marshaller marshaller = context.createMarshaller(); marshaller.setProperty(Marshaller.JAXB_FORMATTED_OUTPUT, Boolean.TRUE); marshaller.setProperty(CharacterEscapeHandler.class.getName(), new CharacterEscapeHandler() { @Override public void escape(char[] ch, int start, int length, boolean isAttVal, Writer out) throws IOException { out.write("Called escape for characters = " + ch.toString()); } }); marshaller.marshal(shipOrder, System.out); } public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { new PleaseWork().prettyPlease(); } } -- The output is this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes"?> <shiporder orderid="Order's ID"> <orderperson>The woman said, &quot;How ya doin &amp; stuff?&quot;</orderperson> </shiporder> and as you can see, the callback is never displayed. (Once I get the callback being called, I'll worry about having it actually do what I want.) --

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  • Defining an Entity Framework 1:1 association

    - by Craig Fisher
    I'm trying to define a 1:1 association between two entities (one maps to a table and the other to a view - using DefinedQuery) in an Entity Framework model. When trying to define the mapping for this in the designer, it makes me choose the (1) table or view to map the association to. What am I supposed to choose? I can choose either of the two tables but then I am forced to choose a column from that table (or view) for each end of the relationship. I would expect to be able to choose a column from one table for one end of the association and a column from the other table for the other end of the association, but there's no way to do this. Here I've chosen to map to the "DW_ WF_ClaimInfo" view and it is forcing me to choose two columns from that view - one for each end of the relationship. I've also tried defining the mapping manually in the XML as follows: <AssociationSetMapping Name="Entity1Entity2" TypeName="ClaimsModel.Entity1Entity2" StoreEntitySet="Entity1"> <EndProperty Name="Entity2"> <ScalarProperty Name="DOCUMENT" ColumnName="DOCUMENT" /> </EndProperty> <EndProperty Name="Entity1"> <ScalarProperty Name="PK_DocumentId" ColumnName="PK_DocumentId" /> </EndProperty> </AssociationSetMapping> But this gives: Error 2010: The Column 'DOCUMENT' specified as part of this MSL does not exist in MetadataWorkspace. Seems like it still expects both columns to come from the same table, which doesn't make sense to me. Furthermore, if I select the same key for each end, e.g.: <AssociationSetMapping Name="Entity1Entity2" TypeName="ClaimsModel.Entity1Entity2" StoreEntitySet="Entity1"> <EndProperty Name="Entity2"> <ScalarProperty Name="DOCUMENT" ColumnName="PK_DocumentId" /> </EndProperty> <EndProperty Name="Entity1"> <ScalarProperty Name="PK_DocumentId" ColumnName="PK_DocumentId" /> </EndProperty> </AssociationSetMapping> I then get: Error 3021: Problem in Mapping Fragment starting at line 675: Each of the following columns in table AssignedClaims is mapped to multiple conceptual side properties: AssignedClaims.PK_DocumentId is mapped to <AssignedClaimDW_WF_ClaimInfo.DW_WF_ClaimInfo.DOCUMENT, AssignedClaimDW_WF_ClaimInfo.AssignedClaim.PK_DocumentId> What am I not getting?

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  • How can I use a custom TabItem control when databinding a TabControl in WPF?

    - by Russ
    I have a custom control that is derived from TabItem, and I want to databind that custom TabItem to a stock TabControl. I would rather avoid creating a new TabControl just for this rare case. This is what I have and I'm not having any luck getting the correct control to be loaded. In this case I want to use my ClosableTabItem control instead of the stock TabItem control. <TabControl x:Name="tabCases" IsSynchronizedWithCurrentItem="True" Controls:ClosableTabItem.TabClose="TabClosed" > <TabControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type Controls:ClosableTabItem}" > <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Id}" /> </DataTemplate> </TabControl.ItemTemplate> <TabControl.ContentTemplate> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type Entities:Case}"> <CallLog:CaseReadOnlyDisplay DataContext="{Binding}" /> </DataTemplate> </TabControl.ContentTemplate> </TabControl> EDIT: This is what I ended up with, rather than trying to bind a custom control. The "CloseCommand" im getting from a previous question. <Style TargetType="{x:Type TabItem}" BasedOn="{StaticResource {x:Type TabItem}}" > <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type TabItem}"> <Border Name="Border" Background="LightGray" BorderBrush="Black" BorderThickness="1" CornerRadius="25,0,0,0" SnapsToDevicePixels="True"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <ContentPresenter x:Name="ContentSite" VerticalAlignment="Center" HorizontalAlignment="Center" ContentSource="Header" Margin="20,1,5,1"/> <Button Command="{Binding Path=CloseCommand}" Cursor="Hand" DockPanel.Dock="Right" Focusable="False" Margin="1,1,5,1" Background="Transparent" BorderThickness="0"> <Image Source="/Russound.Windows;component/Resources/Delete.png" Height="10" /> </Button> </StackPanel> </Border> <ControlTemplate.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsSelected" Value="True"> <Setter Property="FontWeight" Value="Bold" /> <Setter TargetName="Border" Property="Background" Value="LightBlue" /> <Setter TargetName="Border" Property="BorderThickness" Value="1,1,1,0" /> <Setter TargetName="Border" Property="BorderBrush" Value="DarkBlue" /> </Trigger> </ControlTemplate.Triggers> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style>

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  • NHibernate many-to-many with composite element

    - by E1
    Hello everyone. I encountered the following problem. In my application uses the entities Owner and Area binding as many to many. public class Area : DomainObject<int> { private ISet<OwnersPeriod> _owners = new HashedSet<OwnersPeriod>(); public ICollection<OwnersPeriod> Owners { get { return _owners; } set { Check.Require(value != null); _owners = new HashedSet<OwnersPeriod>(value); } } } Table Owner2Area has the following fields: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Owner2Area]( [ID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [IDOwner] [int] NOT NULL, [IDArea] [int] NOT NULL, [FirstDate] [datetime] NOT NULL, [LastDate] [datetime] NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Owner2Area] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED) Therefore corresponds to the class OwnersPeriod public class OwnersPeriod { private Owner _member; private Area _area; public Owner Owner { get {...} set{...} } public Area Area { get { ... } set { ... } } public DateTime FirstDate { get; set; } public DateTime? LastDate { get; set; } } I wrote mappings <class lazy="false" name="Core.Domain.Area, Core" table="Areas"> ... <set name="Owners" table="Owner2Area" inverse="true" lazy="true" > <key column="IDArea"/> <composite-element class="Core.Domain.OwnersPeriod, Core" > <parent name="Area" /> <property name="FirstDate" type="datetime"/> <property name="LastDate" type="datetime"/> <many-to-one name="Owner" class="Core.Domain.Owner, Core" column="IDOwner"/> </composite-element> </set> </class> For each area existing data are successfully loaded into Owners, but when I add new record in Owner2Area through CreateSQLQuery, these data are not updated for instance of area. If I re-opened the form and got all areas, added link successfully loaded into the collection. How can be forced to load added thus recording of relation many-to-many? Nhibernate v.2.0.1, db MSSQL 2005

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  • How do I merge a transient entity with a session using Castle ActiveRecordMediator?

    - by Daniel T.
    I have a Store and a Product entity: public class Store { public Guid Id { get; set; } public int Version { get; set; } public ISet<Product> Products { get; set; } } public class Product { public Guid Id { get; set; } public int Version { get; set; } public Store ParentStore { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } In other words, I have a Store that can contain multiple Products in a bidirectional one-to-many relationship. I'm sending data back and forth between a web browser and a web service. The following steps emulates the communication between the two, using session-per-request. I first save a new instance of a Store: using (new SessionScope()) { // this is data from the browser var store = new Store { Id = Guid.Empty }; ActiveRecordMediator.SaveAndFlush(store); } Then I grab the store out of the DB, add a new product to it, and then save it: using (new SessionScope()) { // this is data from the browser var product = new Product { Id = Guid.Empty, Name = "Apples" }); var store = ActiveRecordLinq.AsQueryable<Store>().First(); store.Products.Add(product); ActiveRecordMediator.SaveAndFlush(store); } Up to this point, everything works well. Now I want to update the Product I just saved: using (new SessionScope()) { // data from browser var product = new Product { Id = Guid.Empty, Version = 1, Name = "Grapes" }; var store = ActiveRecordLinq.AsQueryable<Store>().First(); store.Products.Add(product); // throws exception on this call ActiveRecordMediator.SaveAndFlush(store); } When I try to update the product, I get the following exception: a different object with the same identifier value was already associated with the session: 00000000-0000-0000-0000-000000000000, of entity:Product" As I understand it, the problem is that when I get the Store out of the database, it also gets the Product that's associated with it. Both entities are persistent. Then I tried to save a transient Product (the one that has the updated info from the browser) that has the same ID as the one that's already associated with the session, and an exception is thrown. However, I don't know how to get around this problem. If I could get access to a NHibernate.ISession, I could call ISession.Merge() on it, but it doesn't look like ActiveRecordMediator has anything similar (SaveCopy threw the same exception). Does anyone know the solution? Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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  • practical security ramifications of increasing WCF clock skew to more than an hour

    - by Andrew Patterson
    I have written a WCF service that returns 'semi-private' data concerning peoples name, addresses and phone numbers. By semi-private, I mean that there is a username and password to access the data, and the data is meant to be secured in transit. However, IMHO noone is going to expend any energy trying to obtain the data, as it is mostly available in the public phone book anyway etc. At some level, the security is a bit of security 'theatre' to tick some boxes imposed on us by government entities. The client end of the service is an application which is given out to registered 'users' to run within their own IT setups. We have no control over the IT of the users - and in fact they often tell us to 'go jump' if we put too many requirements on their systems. One problem we have been encountering is numerous users that have system clocks that are not accurate. This can either be caused by a genuine slow/fast clocks, or more than likely a timezone or daylight savings zone error (putting their machine an hour off the 'real' time). A feature of the WCF bindings we are using is that they rely on the notion of time to detect replay attacks etc. <wsHttpBinding> <binding name="normalWsBinding" maxBufferPoolSize="524288" maxReceivedMessageSize="655360"> <reliableSession enabled="false" /> <security mode="Message"> <message clientCredentialType="UserName" negotiateServiceCredential="false" algorithmSuite="Default" establishSecurityContext="false" /> </security> </binding> </wsHttpBinding> The inaccurate client clocks cause security exceptions to be thrown and unhappy users. Other than suggesting users correct their clocks, we know that we can increase the clock skew of the security bindings. http://www.danrigsby.com/blog/index.php/2008/08/26/changing-the-default-clock-skew-in-wcf/ My question is, what are the real practical security ramifications of increasing the skew to say 2 hours? If an attacker can perform some sort of replay attack, why would a clock skew window of 5 minutes be necessarily safer than 2 hours? I presume performing any attack with security mode of 'message' requires more than just capturing some data at a proxy and sending the data back in again to 'replay' the call? In a situation like mine where data is only 'read' by the users, are there indeed any security ramifications at all to allowing 'replay' attacks?

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  • C# Design Questions

    - by guazz
    How to approach unit testing of private methods? I have a class that loads Employee data into a database. Here is a sample: public class EmployeeFacade { public Employees EmployeeRepository = new Employees(); public TaxDatas TaxRepository = new TaxDatas(); public Accounts AccountRepository = new Accounts(); //and so on for about 20 more repositories etc. public bool LoadAllEmployeeData(Employee employee) { if (employee == null) throw new Exception("..."); EmployeeRepository emps = new EmployeeRepository(); bool exists = emps.FetchExisting(emps.Id); if (!exists) { emps.AddNew(); } try { emps.Id = employee.Id; emps.Name = employee.EmployeeDetails.PersonalDetails.Active.Names.FirstName; emps.SomeOtherAttribute; } catch() {} try { emps.Save(); } catch(){} try { LoadorUpdateTaxData(employee.TaxData); } catch() {} try { LoadorUpdateAccountData(employee.AccountData); } catch() {} ... etc. for about 20 more other employee objects } private bool LoadorUpdateTaxData(employeeId, TaxData taxData) { if (taxData == null) throw new Exception("..."); ...same format as above but using AccountRepository } private bool LoadorUpdateAccountData(employee.TaxData) { ...same format as above but using TaxRepository } } I am writing an application to take serialised objects(e.g. Employee above) and load the data to the database. I have a few design question that I would like opinions on: A - I am calling this class "EmployeeFacade" because I am (attempting?) to use the facade pattern. Is it good practace to name the pattern on the class name? B - Is it good to call the concrete entities of my DAL layer classes "Repositories" e.g. "EmployeeRepository" ? C - Is using the repositories in this way sensible or should I create a method on the repository itself to take, say, the Employee and then load the data from there e.g. EmployeeRepository.LoadAllEmployeeData(Employee employee)? I am aim for cohesive class and but this will requrie the repository to have knowledge of the Employee object which may not be good? D - Is there any nice way around of not having to check if an object is null at the begining of each method? E - I have a EmployeeRepository, TaxRepository, AccountRepository declared as public for unit testing purpose. These are really private enities but I need to be able to substitute these with stubs so that the won't write to my database(I overload the save() method to do nothing). Is there anyway around this or do I have to expose them? F - How can I test the private methods - or is this done (something tells me it's not)? G- "emps.Name = employee.EmployeeDetails.PersonalDetails.Active.Names.FirstName;" this breaks the Law of Demeter but how do I adjust my objects to abide by the law?

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  • How do you model roles / relationships with Domain Driven Design in mind?

    - by kitsune
    If I have three entities, Project, ProjectRole and Person, where a Person can be a member of different Projects and be in different Project Roles (such as "Project Lead", or "Project Member") - how would you model such a relationship? In the database, I currently have the following tablers: Project, Person, ProjectRole Project_Person with PersonId & ProjectId as PK and a ProjectRoleId as a FK Relationship. I'm really at a loss here since all domain models I come up with seem to break some "DDD" rule. Are there any 'standards' for this problem? I had a look at a Streamlined Object Modeling and there is an example what a Project and ProjectMember would look like, but AddProjectMember() in Project would call ProjectMember.AddProject(). So Project has a List of ProjectMembers, and each ProjectMember in return has a reference to the Project. Looks a bit convoluted to me. update After reading more about this subject, I will try the following: There are distinct roles, or better, model relationships, that are of a certain role type within my domain. For instance, ProjectMember is a distinct role that tells us something about the relationship a Person plays within a Project. It contains a ProjectMembershipType that tells us more about the Role it will play. I do know for certain that persons will have to play roles inside a project, so I will model that relationship. ProjectMembershipTypes can be created and modified. These can be "Project Leader", "Developer", "External Adviser", or something different. A person can have many roles inside a project, and these roles can start and end at a certain date. Such relationships are modeled by the class ProjectMember. public class ProjectMember : IRole { public virtual int ProjectMemberId { get; set; } public virtual ProjectMembershipType ProjectMembershipType { get; set; } public virtual Person Person { get; set; } public virtual Project Project { get; set; } public virtual DateTime From { get; set; } public virtual DateTime Thru { get; set; } // etc... } ProjectMembershipType: ie. "Project Manager", "Developer", "Adviser" public class ProjectMembershipType : IRoleType { public virtual int ProjectMembershipTypeId { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual string Description { get; set; } // etc... }

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  • Passing a ManagedObjectContext to a second view

    - by amo
    I'm writing my first iPhone/Cocoa app. It has two table views inside a navigation view. When you touch a row in the first table view, you are taken to the second table view. I would like the second view to display records from the CoreData entities related to the row you touched in the first view. I have the CoreData data showing up fine in the first table view. You can touch a row and go to the second table view. I'm able to pass info from the selected object from the first to the second view. But I cannot get the second view to do its own CoreData fetching. For the life of me I cannot get the managedObjectContext object to pass to the second view controller. I don't want to do the lookups in the first view and pass a dictionary because I want to be able to use a search field to refine results in the second view, as well as insert new entries to the CoreData data from there. Here's the function that transitions from the first to the second view. - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { // Navigation logic may go here -- for example, create and push another view controller. NSManagedObject *selectedObject = [[self fetchedResultsController] objectAtIndexPath:indexPath]; SecondViewController *secondViewController = [[SecondViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"SecondView" bundle:nil]; secondViewController.tName = [[selectedObject valueForKey:@"name"] description]; secondViewController.managedObjectContext = [self managedObjectContext]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:secondViewController animated:YES]; [secondViewController release]; } And this is the function inside SecondViewController that crashes: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; self.title = tName; NSError *error; if (![[self fetchedResultsController] performFetch:&error]) { // <-- crashes here // Handle the error... } } - (NSFetchedResultsController *)fetchedResultsController { if (fetchedResultsController != nil) { return fetchedResultsController; } /* Set up the fetched results controller. */ // Create the fetch request for the entity. NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; // Edit the entity name as appropriate. // **** crashes on the next line because managedObjectContext == 0x0 NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"SecondEntity" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [fetchRequest setEntity:entity]; // <snip> ... more code here from Apple template, never gets executed because of the crashing return fetchedResultsController; } Any ideas on what I am doing wrong here? managedObjectContext is a retained property. UPDATE: I inserted a NSLog([[managedObjectContext registeredObjects] description]); in viewDidLoad and it appears managedObjectContext is being passed just fine. Still crashing, though. Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: '+entityForName: could not locate an NSManagedObjectModel for entity name 'SecondEntity''

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  • How to make ASP.Net MVC checkboxes keep state

    - by myotherme
    I have the following situation: I have a class Product that can have a confirmation from various Stations. So I have a ViewModel that holds the Product information, and a list of stations, and all the ProductStationConfirmations. public class ProductViewModel { public Product Product { get; private set; } public List<Station> Stations { get; private set; } public Dictionary<string, ProductStationConfirmation> ProductStationConfirmations { get; private set; } public ProductViewModel(int productID) { // Loads everything from DB } } In my partial view for inserting/editing I iterate over the stations to make a checkbox for each of them: <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.Product.Title)%> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Product.Title)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Product.Title)%> </div> <fieldset> <legend>Station Confirmations</legend> <% foreach (var station in Model.Stations) { %> <div class="nexttoeachother"> <div> <%= Html.Encode(station.Name) %> </div> <div> <%= Html.CheckBox("confirm_"+station.ID.ToString(), Request["confirm_"+station.ID.ToString()] == null ? Model.ProductStationConfirmations.ContainsKey(Entities.ProductStationConfirmation.MakeHash(Model.Product.ID, station.ID)) : Request["confirm_" + station.ID.ToString()].Contains("true") ) %> </div> </div> <% } %> </fieldset> This works and I can process the Request values to store the confirmed Stations, but it is really messy. I made it this way to preserve the state of the checkboxes between round trips if there is a problem with the model (missing title, bad value for decimal, or something that can only be checked server-side like duplicate tile). I would expect that there is a nicer way to do this, I just don't know what it is. I suspect that I need to change the shape of my ViewModel to better accommodate the data, but i don't know how. I am using MVC 2.

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  • How to optimize Core Data query for full text search

    - by dk
    Can I optimize a Core Data query when searching for matching words in a text? (This question also pertains to the wisdom of custom SQL versus Core Data on an iPhone.) I'm working on a new (iPhone) app that is a handheld reference tool for a scientific database. The main interface is a standard searchable table view and I want as-you-type response as the user types new words. Words matches must be prefixes of words in the text. The text is composed of 100,000s of words. In my prototype I coded SQL directly. I created a separate "words" table containing every word in the text fields of the main entity. I indexed words and performed searches along the lines of SELECT id, * FROM textTable JOIN (SELECT DISTINCT textTableId FROM words WHERE word BETWEEN 'foo' AND 'fooz' ) ON id=textTableId LIMIT 50 This runs very fast. Using an IN would probably work just as well, i.e. SELECT * FROM textTable WHERE id IN (SELECT textTableId FROM words WHERE word BETWEEN 'foo' AND 'fooz' ) LIMIT 50 The LIMIT is crucial and allows me to display results quickly. I notify the user that there are too many to display if the limit is reached. This is kludgy. I've spent the last several days pondering the advantages of moving to Core Data, but I worry about the lack of control in the schema, indexing, and querying for an important query. Theoretically an NSPredicate of textField MATCHES '.*\bfoo.*' would just work, but I'm sure it will be slow. This sort of text search seems so common that I wonder what is the usual attack? Would you create a words entity as I did above and use a predicate of "word BEGINSWITH 'foo'"? Will that work as fast as my prototype? Will Core Data automatically create the right indexes? I can't find any explicit means of advising the persistent store about indexes. I see some nice advantages of Core Data in my iPhone app. The faulting and other memory considerations allow for efficient database retrievals for tableview queries without setting arbitrary limits. The object graph management allows me to easily traverse entities without writing lots of SQL. Migration features will be nice in the future. On the other hand, in a limited resource environment (iPhone) I worry that an automatically generated database will be bloated with metadata, unnecessary inverse relationships, inefficient attribute datatypes, etc. Should I dive in or proceed with caution?

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  • Cascade Saves with Fluent NHibernate AutoMapping - Old Anwser Still Valid?

    - by Glenn
    I want to do exactly what this question asks: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/586888/cascade-saves-with-fluent-nhibernate-automapping Using Fluent Nhibernate Mappings to turn on "cascade" globally once for all classes and relation types using one call rather than setting it for each mapping individually. The answer to the earlier question looks great, but I'm afraid that the Fluent Nhibernate API altered its .WithConvention syntax last year and broke the answer... either that or I'm missing something. I keep getting a bunch of name space not found errors relating to the IOneToOnePart, IManyToOnePart and all their variations: "The type or namespace name 'IOneToOnePart' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?)" I've tried the official example dll's, the RTM dll's and the latest build and none of them seem to make VS 2008 see the required namespace. The second problem is that I want to use the class with my AutoPersistenceModel but I'm not sure where to this line: .ConventionDiscovery.AddFromAssemblyOf() in my factory creation method. private static ISessionFactory CreateSessionFactory() { return Fluently.Configure() .Database(SQLiteConfiguration.Standard.UsingFile(DbFile)) .Mappings(m => m.AutoMappings .Add(AutoMap.AssemblyOf<Shelf>(type => type.Namespace.EndsWith("Entities")) .Override<Shelf>(map => { map.HasManyToMany(x => x.Products).Cascade.All(); }) ) )//emd mappings .ExposeConfiguration(BuildSchema) .BuildSessionFactory();//finalizes the whole thing to send back. } Below is the class and using statements I'm trying using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.IO; using FluentNHibernate.Conventions; using FluentNHibernate.Cfg; using FluentNHibernate.Cfg.Db; using NHibernate; using NHibernate.Cfg; using NHibernate.Tool.hbm2ddl; using FluentNHibernate.Mapping; namespace TestCode { public class CascadeAll : IHasOneConvention, IHasManyConvention, IReferenceConvention { public bool Accept(IOneToOnePart target) { return true; } public void Apply(IOneToOnePart target) { target.Cascade.All(); } public bool Accept(IOneToManyPart target) { return true; } public void Apply(IOneToManyPart target) { target.Cascade.All(); } public bool Accept(IManyToOnePart target) { return true; } public void Apply(IManyToOnePart target) { target.Cascade.All(); } } }

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  • Entity Framework in n-layered application - Lazy loading vs. Eager loading patterns

    - by Marconline
    Hi all. This questions doesn't let me sleep as it's since one year I'm trying to find a solution but... still nothing happened in my mind. Probably you can help me, because I think this is a very common issue. I've a n-layered application: presentation layer, business logic layer, model layer. Suppose for simplicity that my application contains, in the presentation layer, a form that allows a user to search for a customer. Now the user fills the filters through the UI and clicks a button. Something happens and the request arrives to presentation layer to a method like CustomerSearch(CustomerFilter myFilter). This business logic layer now keeps it simple: creates a query on the model and gets back results. Now the question: how do you face the problem of loading data? I mean business logic layer doesn't know that that particular method will be invoked just by that form. So I think that it doesn't know if the requesting form needs just the Customer objects back or the Customer objects with the linked Order entities. I try to explain better: our form just wants to list Customers searching by surname. It has nothing to do with orders. So the business logic query will be something like: (from c in ctx.CustomerSet where c.Name.Contains(strQry) select c).ToList(); now this is working correctly. Two days later your boss asks you to add a form that let you search for customers like the other and you need to show the total count of orders created by each customer. Now I'd like to reuse that query and add the piece of logic that attach (includes) orders and gets back that. How would you front this request? Here is the best (I think) idea I had since now. I'd like to hear from you: my CustomerSearch method in BLL doesn't create the query directly but passes through private extension methods that compose the ObjectQuery like: private ObjectQuery<Customer> SearchCustomers(this ObjectQuery<Customer> qry, CustomerFilter myFilter) and private ObjectQuery<Customer> IncludeOrders(this ObjectQuery<Customer> qry) but this doesn't convince me as it seems too complex. Thanks, Marco

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  • Am I using EJBs properly?

    - by kgrad
    I am using a JEE6 stack including JPA 2.0, JSF 2.0, EJB 3.1 etc. The way my architecture is setup is the following: I have JPA annotated DAOs using hibernate as my JPA provider. I have JSF Managed beans which correspond to my facelet/xhtml pages. I have EJBs that handle all of my database requests. My XHTML pages have JSF EL which make calls to my Managed beans. My managed beans contain references to my DAO entities which are managed by EJBs. For example, I have a user entity which is mapped to a db table. I have a user EJB which handles all CRUD operations that return Users. I have a page that edits a user. The highlevel workflow would be: navigate to user edit page - EL calls a method located in the managed bean that loads a user. The method calls userEJB.loadUser(user) from the EJB to get the user from the database. The user is edited and submit - a function is called in the managed bean which calls a function in the EJB to save the user. etc. I am running into issues accessing my data within my JSF pages using EJBs. I am having a lot of problems with lazy initialization errors, which I believe is due to how I have set things up. For example, I have a Client entity that has a List of users which are lazily loaded. In order to get a client I call a method in my EJB which goes to the database, finds a client and returns it. Later on i wish to access this clients list of users, in order to do so i have to go back to the EJB by calling some sort of method in order to load those users (since they are lazily loaded). This means that I have to create a method such as public List<User> getUserListByClient(Client c) { c = em.merge(c); return c.getUserList(); } The only purpose of this method is to load the users (and I'm not even positive this approach is good or works). If i was doing session management myself, I would like just leave the session open for the entire request and access the property directly, this would be fine as the session would be open anyway, there seems to be this one extra layer of indirection in EJBs which is making things difficult for me. I do like EJBs as I like the fact that they are controlled by the container, pooled, offer transaction management for free etc. However, I get the feeling that I am using them incorrectly, or I have set up my JSF app incorrectly. Any feedback would be greatly appreciated. thanks,

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  • Return pre-UPDATE column values in PostgreSQL without using triggers, functions or other "magic"

    - by Python Larry
    I have a related question, but this is another part of MY puzzle. I would like to get the OLD VALUE of a Column from a Row that was UPDATEd... WITHOUT using Triggers (nor Stored Procedures, nor any other extra, non-SQL/-query entities). The query I have is like this: UPDATE my_table SET processing_by = our_id_info -- unique to this instance WHERE trans_nbr IN ( SELECT trans_nbr FROM my_table GROUP BY trans_nbr HAVING COUNT(trans_nbr) > 1 LIMIT our_limit_to_have_single_process_grab ) RETURNING row_id If I could do "FOR UPDATE ON my_table" at the end of the subquery, that'd be devine (and fix my other question/problem). But, that won't work: can't have this AND a "GROUP BY" (which is necessary for figuring out the COUNT of trans_nbr's). Then I could just take those trans_nbr's and do a query first to get the (soon-to-be-) former processing_by values. I've tried doing like: UPDATE my_table SET processing_by = our_id_info -- unique to this instance FROM my_table old_my_table JOIN ( SELECT trans_nbr FROM my_table GROUP BY trans_nbr HAVING COUNT(trans_nbr) > 1 LIMIT our_limit_to_have_single_process_grab ) sub_my_table ON old_my_table.trans_nbr = sub_my_table.trans_nbr WHERE my_table.trans_nbr = sub_my_table.trans_nbr AND my_table.processing_by = old_my_table.processing_by RETURNING my_table.row_id, my_table.processing_by, old_my_table.processing_by But that can't work; "old_my_table" is not viewable outside of the join; the RETURNING clause is blind to it. I've long since lost count of all the attempts I've made; I have been researching this for literally hours. If I could just find a bullet-proof way to lock the rows in my subquery - and ONLY those rows, and WHEN the subquery happens - all the concurrency issues I'm trying to avoid disappear... UPDATE: [WIPES EGG OFF FACE] Okay, so I had a typo in the non-generic code of the above that I wrote "doesn't work"; it does... thanks to Erwin Brandstetter, below, who stated it would, I re-did it (after a night's sleep, refreshed eyes, and a banana for bfast). Since it took me so long/hard to find this sort of solution, perhaps my embarrassment is worth it? At least this is on SO for posterity now... : What I now have (that works) is like this: UPDATE my_table SET processing_by = our_id_info -- unique to this instance FROM my_table AS old_my_table WHERE trans_nbr IN ( SELECT trans_nbr FROM my_table GROUP BY trans_nbr HAVING COUNT(*) > 1 LIMIT our_limit_to_have_single_process_grab ) AND my_table.row_id = old_my_table.row_id RETURNING my_table.row_id, my_table.processing_by, old_my_table.processing_by AS old_processing_by The COUNT(*) is per a suggestion from Flimzy in a comment on my other (linked above) question. (I was more specific than necessary. [In this instance.])

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  • Multiple views and source list in a Core Data app

    - by Ellie P.
    I'm working on my first major Cocoa app for an undergraduate research project. The application is document-based and uses Core Data. One of the entities is an abstract entity, Page. Page is parent of several types of pages: ie PageWithHeaderAndFooter, PageWithTwoColumns, BasicPage etc. Page has attributes, such as title and author, that all pages have in common. Each specific type of page has a certain number of layout blocks (PageWithHeaderAndFooter has three: header, footer, body. BasicPage has one: body. etc.) Additionally, all Page subclasses define layout-specific implementations of certain methods. The other relevant entity is Style, which defines the visual look of a Page. (Think of Pages as HTML and Style as CSS.) I would like my app to have an iTunes/Mail-like source list with sections. (One section would be Pages, the other would be Styles.) I have a pretty good idea how to do the sectioned source list (this was a great help). However, after hours of headbanging and fruitless googling, here's what I can't figure out: Pages and Styles listed in the source list, and when you select one of them, all of the relevant fields for that object appear at the right (mostly NSTextViews, pop up menus, etc). I laid that out and did all of the bindings in Interface Builder. The problem is, if my source list contains different types of pages, how do I get a different view to display at the right depending on the type of page selected? For example, if a BasicPage is selected, I want just what you see above: the general page stuff and one NSTextView that corresponds to the one field body of BasicPage. But if I select a PageWithHeaderAndFooter, I want to display the general page stuff plus three NSTextViews (one for header, body, and footer.) If I have a Style selected, I want to display various pop up menus, color wells, etc. For the pages at least, we're only talking about one or more NSTextViews, each of which corresponds to a String attribute of the respective entity. How would you do this? Thank you for your help!

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