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• How to run an application as root without asking for an admin password?

  - by kvaruni

  I am writing a program in Objective-C (XCode 3.2, on Snow Leopard) that is capable of either selectively blocking certain sites for a duration or only allow certain sites (and thus block all others) for a duration. The reasoning behind this program is rather simple. I tend to get distracted when I have full internet access, but I do need internet access during my working hours to get to a number of work-related websites. Clearly, this is not a permanent block, but only helps me to focus whenever I find myself wandering a bit too much. At the moment, I am using a Unix script that is called via AppleScript to obtain Administrator permissions. It then activates a number of ipfw rules and clears those after a specific duration to restore full internet access. Simple and effective, but since I am running as a standard user, it gets cumbersome to enter my administrator password each and every time I want to go "offline". Furthermore, this is a great opportunity to learn to work with XCode and Objective-C. At the moment, everything works as expected, minus the actual blocking. I can add a number of sites in a list, specify whether or not I want to block or allow these websites and I can "start" the blocking by specifying a time until which I want to stay "offline". However, I find it hard to obtain clear information on how I can run a privileged Unix command from Objective-C. Ideally, I would like to be able to store information with respect to the Administrator account into the Keychain to use these later on, so that I can simply move into "offline" mode with the convenience of clicking a button. Even more ideally, there might be some class in Objective-C with which I can block access to some/all websites for this particular user without needing to rely on privileged Unix commands. A third possibility is in starting this program with root permissions and the reducing the permissions until I need them, but since this is a GUI application that is nested in the menu bar of OS X, the results are rather awkward and getting it to run each and every time with root permission is no easy task. Anyone who can offer me some pointers or advice? Please, no security-warnings, I am fully aware that what I want to do is a potential security threat.

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• Volunteer for a potential employer?

  - by EoRaptor013

  I've been looking for work since March, and haven't had much luck. Recently, however, I interviewed with a small company near my home for a C#, .NET, SQL development position. I hit it off very well with the hiring manager during the phone screen, and even more so during the face to face. Unfortunately, I failed the practical test: wiring up a web form, creating a couple of SQL stored procedures, saving new data with validation, and creating a minimal search screen. I knew what I was doing, but I was too slow to meet their standards as all the work needed to be done within an hour. Nevertheless, I really liked the place, the environment, the people who I would have been working with, and the boss. (I gave the company an 11 on Joel's 12 point scale.) So, the obvious next step was to scrape the rust off. I've been trying to create little projects for myself, but I don't know that I've been effective in getting any faster. What with all that goes into creating a project, I'm not heads-down coding as much as I think I need. Now, with all that introduction, here's the question. I have been thinking about calling the hiring manager at that place, and asking him to let me volunteer for three or four weeks, with no strings attached. I think it would benefit me, and wouldn't cost him anything (as long as I didn't slow the existing people down!). At the end of that period, he might, or might not, be inclined to hire me, but even if not, I would have had as much as 160 hours of in the trenches development. Maybe not all shiny, but no more rust, I would think. Does this plan make any sense at all? I certainly don't want to sound desperate (although, I'm not far from being there), and I very much need the tuneup, lube, and change the oil. What's the downside, if any, to me doing this? Do any of you see red flags going up—either from the prerspective of the hiring manager, or from the perspective of a developer?

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• quartz: preventing concurrent instances of a job in jobs.xml

  - by Jason S

  This should be really easy. I'm using Quartz running under Apache Tomcat 6.0.18, and I have a jobs.xml file which sets up my scheduled job that runs every minute. What I would like to do, is if the job is still running when the next trigger time rolls around, I don't want to start a new job, so I can let the old instance complete. Is there a way to specify this in jobs.xml (prevent concurrent instances)? If not, is there a way I can share access to an in-memory singleton within my application's Job implementation (is this through the JobExecutionContext?) so I can handle the concurrency myself? (and detect if a previous instance is running) update: After floundering around in the docs, here's a couple of approaches I am considering, but either don't know how to get them to work, or there are problems. Use StatefulJob. This prevents concurrent access... but I'm not sure what other side-effects would occur if I use it, also I want to avoid the following situation: Suppose trigger times would be every minute, i.e. trigger#0 = at time 0, trigger #1 = 60000msec, #2 = 120000, #3 = 180000, etc. and the trigger#0 at time 0 fires my job which takes 130000msec. With a plain Job, this would execute triggers #1 and #2 while job trigger #0 is still running. With a StatefulJob, this would execute triggers #1 and #2 in order, immediately after #0 finishes at 130000. I don't want that, I want #1 and #2 not to run and the next trigger that runs a job should take place at #3 (180000msec). So I still have to do something else with StatefulJob to get it to work the way I want, so I don't see much of an advantage to using it. Use a TriggerListener to return true from vetoJobExecution(). Although implementing the interface seems straightforward, I have to figure out how to setup one instance of a TriggerListener declaratively. Can't find the docs for the xml file. Use a static shared thread-safe object (e.g. a semaphore or whatever) owned by my class that implements Job. I don't like the idea of using singletons via the static keyword under Tomcat/Quartz, not sure if there are side effects. Also I really don't want them to be true singletons, just something that is associated with a particular job definition. Implement my own Trigger which extends SimpleTrigger and contains shared state that could run its own TriggerListener. Again, I don't know how to setup the XML file to use this trigger rather than the standard <trigger><simple>...</simple></trigger>.

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• F# Equivalent to Enumerable.OfType<'a>

  - by Joel Mueller

  ...or, how do I filter a sequence of classes by the interfaces they implement? Let's say I have a sequence of objects that inherit from Foo, a seq<#Foo>. In other words, my sequence will contain one or more of four different subclasses of Foo. Each subclass implements a different independent interface that shares nothing with the interfaces implemented by the other subclasses. Now I need to filter this sequence down to only the items that implement a particular interface. The C# version is simple: void MergeFoosIntoList<T>(IEnumerable<Foo> allFoos, IList<T> dest) where T : class { foreach (var foo in allFoos) { var castFoo = foo as T; if (castFoo != null) { dest.Add(castFoo); } } } I could use LINQ from F#: let mergeFoosIntoList (foos:seq<#Foo>) (dest:IList<'a>) = System.Linq.Enumerable.OfType<'a>(foos) |> Seq.iter dest.Add However, I feel like there should be a more idiomatic way to accomplish it. I thought this would work... let mergeFoosIntoList (foos:seq<#Foo>) (dest:IList<'a>) = foos |> Seq.choose (function | :? 'a as x -> Some(x) | _ -> None) |> Seq.iter dest.Add However, the complier complains about :? 'a - telling me: This runtime coercion or type test from type 'b to 'a involves an indeterminate type based on information prior to this program point. Runtime type tests are not allowed on some types. Further type annotations are needed. I can't figure out what further type annotations to add. There's no relationship between the interface 'a and #Foo except that one or more subclasses of Foo implement that interface. Also, there's no relationship between the different interfaces that can be passed in as 'a except that they are all implemented by subclasses of Foo. I eagerly anticipate smacking myself in the head as soon as one of you kind people points out the obvious thing I've been missing.

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• Git/Mercurial (hg) opinion

  - by Richard

  First, let me say I'm not a professional programmer, but an engineer who had a need for it and had to learn. I was always working alone, so it was just me and my seven splitted personalities ... and we worked okey as a team :) Most of my stuff is done in C/Fortran/Matlab and so far I've been learning git to manage it all. However, although I've had no unsolvable problems with it, I've never been "that" happy with it ... for everything I cannot do, I hae to look up a book. And, for some time now I've been hearning a lot of good stuff about hg. Now, a coleague of mine will have to work with me on a project (I almost feel sorry for him) and he's started learning hg (says he likes it more), and I'm considering the switch myself. We work almost exclusivly on Windows platform (although I manage relatively ok using unix tools and things that come from that part of the world). So, I was wondering, in a described scenario, what problems could I expect with the switch. I heard that hg is rather more user friendly towards windows users, regarding the user interfaces. How does it handle repositories ? Does it create them the same way as git does (just one subdirectory in a working directory) and can I just copy the whole project directory (including git repo) and just carry them somewhere with no extra thinking ? (I really liked that when I was choosing over git/svn). Are there any good books on it that you can recommend (something like Pro Git, only for Hg). What are good ways to implement hg into Visual Studio/GVim for Windows, or into Windows Explorer so I can work relatively easily (I would like to avoid using the command line for everything regarding it, like in git shell). Is there something else I should be aware of (please, on this don't point me to other questions ... they just give me a ton of info, and I'm not sure what is it that I should take as important, and what to disregard). I'm trying to cut some time, since I cannot spend all that time relearning hg, like I did for git. I've also heard git is c project, while mercurial is python ... is there any noticeable difference in speed. git was pretty speedy ... will I encounter some waiting while working. Notice: All my projects are of let's say, middle size ... mostly numerical simulations ... 10-15000 lines (medium size?)

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• Am I using EJBs properly?

  - by kgrad

  I am using a JEE6 stack including JPA 2.0, JSF 2.0, EJB 3.1 etc. The way my architecture is setup is the following: I have JPA annotated DAOs using hibernate as my JPA provider. I have JSF Managed beans which correspond to my facelet/xhtml pages. I have EJBs that handle all of my database requests. My XHTML pages have JSF EL which make calls to my Managed beans. My managed beans contain references to my DAO entities which are managed by EJBs. For example, I have a user entity which is mapped to a db table. I have a user EJB which handles all CRUD operations that return Users. I have a page that edits a user. The highlevel workflow would be: navigate to user edit page - EL calls a method located in the managed bean that loads a user. The method calls userEJB.loadUser(user) from the EJB to get the user from the database. The user is edited and submit - a function is called in the managed bean which calls a function in the EJB to save the user. etc. I am running into issues accessing my data within my JSF pages using EJBs. I am having a lot of problems with lazy initialization errors, which I believe is due to how I have set things up. For example, I have a Client entity that has a List of users which are lazily loaded. In order to get a client I call a method in my EJB which goes to the database, finds a client and returns it. Later on i wish to access this clients list of users, in order to do so i have to go back to the EJB by calling some sort of method in order to load those users (since they are lazily loaded). This means that I have to create a method such as public List<User> getUserListByClient(Client c) { c = em.merge(c); return c.getUserList(); } The only purpose of this method is to load the users (and I'm not even positive this approach is good or works). If i was doing session management myself, I would like just leave the session open for the entire request and access the property directly, this would be fine as the session would be open anyway, there seems to be this one extra layer of indirection in EJBs which is making things difficult for me. I do like EJBs as I like the fact that they are controlled by the container, pooled, offer transaction management for free etc. However, I get the feeling that I am using them incorrectly, or I have set up my JSF app incorrectly. Any feedback would be greatly appreciated. thanks,

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• Where to put a glossary of important terms and patterns in documentation?

  - by Tetha

  Greetings. I want to document certain patterns in the code in order to build up a consistent terminology (in order to easen communication about the software). I am, however, unsure, where to define the terms given. In order to get on the same level, an example: I have a code generator. This code generator receives a certain InputStructure from the Parser (yes, the name InputStructure might be less than ideal). This InputStructure is then transformed into various subsequent datastructures (like an abstract description of the validation process). Each of these datastructures can be either transformed into another value of the same datastructure or it can be transformed into the next datastructure. This should sound like Pipes and Filters to some degree. Given this, I call an operation which takes a datastructures and constructs a value of the same datastructure a transformation, while I call an operation which takes a datastructure and produces a different follow-up datastructure a derivation. The final step of deriving a string containing code is called emitting. (So, overall, the codegenerator takes the input-structure and transforms, transforms, derives, transforms, derives and finally emits). I think emphasizing these terms will be benefitial in communications, because then it is easy to talk about things. If you hear "transformation", you know "Ok, I only need to think about these two datastructures", if you hear "emitting", you know "Ok, I only need to know this datastructure and the target language.". However, where do I document these patterns? The current code base uses visitors and offers classes called like ValidatorTransformationBase<ResultType> (or InputStructureTransformationBase<ResultType>, and so one and so on). I do not really want to add the definition of such terms to the interfaces, because in that case, I'd have to repeat myself on each and every interface, which clearly violates DRY. I am considering to emphasize the distinction between Transformations and Derivations by adding further interfaces (I would have to think about a better name for the TransformationBase-classes, but then I could do thinks like ValidatorTransformation extends ValidatorTransformationBase<Validator>, or ValidatorDerivationFromInputStructure extends InputStructureTransformation<Validator>). I also think I should add a custom page to the doxygen documentation already existing, as in "Glossary" or "Architecture Principles", which contains such principles. The only disadvantage of this would be that a contributor will need to find this page in order to actually learn about this. Am I missing possibilities or am I judging something wrong here in your opinion? -- Regards, Tetha

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• Updating a deallocated UIWebView from a background thread

  - by Dan Ray

  As you can see from the title, I've programmed myself into a corner and I've got several things working against me... In a UIViewController subclass that manages a large and complex view. One part of it is a UIWebView that contains output from a web request that I had to build and execute, and manually assemble HTML from. Since it takes a second or two to run, I dropped it into the background by calling self performSelectorInBackground:. Then from that method I call there, I use self performSelectorOnMainThread: to get back to the surface of the thread stack to update the UIWebView with what I just got. Like this (which I've cut down to show only the relevant issues): -(void)locationManager:(CLLocationManager *)manager didUpdateToLocation:(CLLocation *)newLocation fromLocation:(CLLocation *)oldLocation { //then get mapquest directions NSLog(@"Got called to handle new location!"); [manager stopUpdatingLocation]; [self performSelectorInBackground:@selector(getDirectionsFromHere:) withObject:newLocation]; } - (void)getDirectionsFromHere:(CLLocation *)newLocation { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; CLLocationCoordinate2D here = newLocation.coordinate; // assemble a call to the MapQuest directions API in NSString *dirURL // ...cut for brevity NSLog(@"Query is %@", dirURL); NSString *response = [NSString stringWithContentsOfURL:[NSURL URLWithString:dirURL] encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding error:NULL]; NSMutableString *directionsOutput = [[NSMutableString alloc] init]; // assemble response into an HTML table in NSString *directionsOutput // ...cut for brevity [self performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(updateDirectionsWithHtml:) withObject:directionsOutput waitUntilDone:NO]; [directionsOutput release]; [pool drain]; [pool release]; } - (void)updateDirectionsWithHtml:(NSString *)directionsOutput { [self.directionsWebView loadHTMLString:directionsOutput baseURL:nil]; } This all works totally great, UNLESS I've backed out of this view controller before CLLocationManager hits its delegate method. If this happens after I've already left this view, I get: 2010-06-07 16:38:08.508 EverWondr[180:760b] bool _WebTryThreadLock(bool), 0x1b6830: Tried to obtain the web lock from a thread other than the main thread or the web thread. This may be a result of calling to UIKit from a secondary thread. Crashing now... Despite what this says, I can repeatably cause this crash when I back out too early. I'm not at all convinced that attempting a UI update from a background thread is really the issue; I think it's that my UIWebView is deallocated. I suspect that the fact I was just IN a background thread makes the runtime suspect something's up about that, but I feel fairly sure that's not it. So how do I tell CLLocationManager not to worry about it, when I'm backing out of that view? I tried [self.locationManager stopUpdatingLocation] inside my viewWillDisappear method, but that didn't do it. (Incidentally, MapQuest's apis are FANTASTIC. Way WAY better than anything Google provides. I can't recommend them highly enough.)

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• Calculate # of Rowspans and Colspans based on keys in a Multi-Array

  - by sologhost

  Ok, I have these 2 types of layouts, basically, it can be any layout really. I have decided to use tables for this, since using div tags cause undesirable results in some possible layout types. Here are 2 pics that describe the returned results of row and column: This would return the $layout array like so: $layout[0][0] $layout[0][1] $layout[1][1] In this layout type: $layout[1][0] is NOT SET, or doesn't exist. Row 1, Column 0 doesn't exist in here. So how can we use this to help us determine the rowspans...? Ok, this layout type would now return the following: $layout[0][0] $layout[0][1] $layout[1][0] $layout[2][0] $layout[2][1] $layout[3][1] Again, there are some that are NOT SET in here: $layout[1][1] $layout[3][0] Ok, I have an array called $layout that does a foreach on the row and column, but it doesn't grab the rows and columns that are NOT SET. So I created a for loop (with the correct counts of how many rows there are and how many columns there are). Here's what I got so far: // $not_set = array(); for($x = 0; $x < $cols; $x++) { $f = 0; for($p = 0; $p < $rows; $p++) { // $f = count($layout[$p]); if(!isset($layout[$p][$x])) { $f++; // It could be a rowspan or a Colspan... // We need to figure out which 1 it is! /* $not_set[] = array( 'row' => $p, 'column' => $x, ); */ } // if ($rows - count($layout[$p])) } } Ok, the $layout array has 2 keys. The first 1 is [ row ] and the 2nd key is [ column ]. Now looping through them all and determining whether it's NOT SET, tells me that either a rowspan or a colspan needs to be put into something somewhere. I'm completely lost here. Basically, I would like to have an array returned here, something like this: $spans['row'][ row # ][ column # ] = Number of rowspans for that <td> element. $spans['column'][ row # ][ column # ] = Number of colspans for that <td> element. It's either going to need a colspan or a rowspan, it will definitely never need both for the same element. Am I going about this whole thing the wrong way? Any help at all would be greatly appreciated!! I've been driving myself crazy with this for days! Pllleaase...

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• Sysadmin 101: How can I figure out why my server crashes and monitor performance?

  - by bflora

  I have a Drupal-powered site that seems to have neverending performance problems. It was butt-slow about 5 months ago. I brought in some guys who installed nginx for anonymous visitors, ajaxified a few queries so they wouldn't fire during page load, and helped me find a few bottlenecks in the code. For about a month, the site was significantly faster, though not "fast" by any stretch of the word. Meanwhile, I'm now shelling out $400/month to Slicehost to host a site that gets less than 5,000/uniques a day. Yes, you read that right. Go Drupal. Recently the site started crashing again and is slow again. I can't afford to hire people to come in, study my code from top to bottom, and make changes that may or may not help anymore. And I can't afford to throw more hardware at the problem. So I need to figure out what the problem is myself. Questions: When apache crashes, is it possible to find out what caused it to crash? There has to be a way, right? If so, how can I do this? Is there software I can use that will tell me which process caused my server to die? (e.g. "Apache crashed because someone visited page X." or "Apache crashed because you were importing too many RSS items from feed X.") There's got to be a way to learn this, right? What's a good, noob-friendly way to monitor my current apache performance? My developer friends tell me to "just use Top, dude," but Top shows me a bunch of numbers without any context. I have no clue what qualifies as a bad number or a good number in Top, or which processes are relevant and which aren't. Are there any noob-friendly server monitoring tools out there? Ideally, I could have a page that would give me a color-coded indicator about how apache is performing and then show me a list of processes or pages that are sucking right now. This way, I could know when performance is bad and then what's causing it to be so bad. Why does PHP memory matter? My apparently has a 30MB memory foot print. Will it run faster if I bring that number down? Thanks for any advice. I spent a year or so trying to boost my advertising income so I could hire a contractor to solve my performance woes. I didn't want to have to learn all this sysadmin voodoo. I'm now resigned to the fact that might not have a choice.

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• PHP-based LaTeX parser -- where to begin?

  - by Alex Basson

  The project: I want to build a LaTeX-to-MathML translator in PHP. Why? Because I'm a mathematician, and I want to publish math on my Drupal site. It doesn't have to translate all of LaTeX, since the basic document-level stuff is ably handled by the CMS and wouldn't be written in LaTeX to begin with; it just has to translate math written in LaTeX into math written in MathML. Although I feel as though I've done my due diligence, this doesn't seem to exist already. Maybe I'm wrong---if you know of something that would serve this purpose, by all means let me know, and thank you in advance. But assuming it doesn't exist, I guess I have to go write it myself. Here's the thing, though: I've never done anything this ambitious. I don't really know where to begin. I've used PHP for years, but just to do the standard "build a CMS with PHP and MySQL"-type of stuff. I've never attempted anything as seemingly sophisticated as translation from one language to another. I'm just dumb enough to consider doing it with regex---after all, LaTeX is a much more formal language, and it doesn't allow for nearly the kinds of pathological edge-cases, as say, HTML. But on the other hand, I'm just smart enough to realize this is probably a terrible idea: now I have two problems, and I sure don't want to end up like this guy. So if that's not the way to go (right?), what is? How should I start thinking about this problem? Am I essentially writing a LaTeX compiler in PHP, and if so, what do I need to know to do that (like, should I just go read the Purple Dragon book first?)? I'm both really excited and pretty intimidated by the prospect of this project, but hey, this is how we all learn to be programmers, right? If something we need doesn't exist, we go and build it, necessity is the mother of... you get the point. Tremendous thanks to everyone in advance for any and all guidance you can offer.

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• IE and Content-disposition inline vs. extension-token

  - by pinkgothic

  Preamble So IE does Mime-Type sniffing. That part's old news. Suggestions of how to combat it tend to be along the lines of 'supply a content-type IE trusts' (i.e. anything that isn't text/plain or application/octet-stream) or 'add extraneous data at the start of the file that is definitely of the type you're serving'. Now, I'm working on an application that has to allow message attachments (like in e-mails), and we want to close up XSS vectors. IE's mime sniffing is one of those vectors - a text/plain file with html content will trigger as html. Recoding isn't an option at this point, changing the attachments the user has provided can only happen if there is absolutely no doubt about the maliciousness of the file - and someone might want to send HTML as text. Now, Microsoft's MSDN article implies the situation might be easier to fix than advertised: If Internet Explorer knows the Content-Type specified and there is no Content-Disposition data, Internet Explorer performs a "MIME sniff," [...] Great! Except I don't have IE nor current means to reliably install it (I realise this is a fairly sad state for a webdeveloper to be in, I hope to fix this soon) and this is grey theory that I can't quite seem to get confirmed one way or the other. Local sources say that line is hogwash - IE will mime sniff anything that is Content-Disposition: inline / <default> and not specific enough for its tastes in -Type. But what about x-* ('extension-token' in the RFC)? Trying to google for how browsers handle Content-Disposition: <extension-token> hasn't yielded anything (though I may just be doing it wrong, my understanding of Google is seriously slipping lately). I found one question that looked promising, but turned out to be a misunderstanding on side of the thread author, meaning that the train of thought was never actually addressed there. Question(s) Does IE really Mime sniff if you expressly pass Content-Disposition: inline? If so: Does anyone here know how browsers handle Content-Disposition: <extension-token>? If they do this in a way that is for my purposes benign, by presuming it to be synonymous with the default (effectively 'inline', though I hear it's not defined anywhere?), is it specific enough for IE not to Mime sniff? Or am I actually shooting myself in the foot by thinking of pursuing this avenue?

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• Hidden Features of PHP?

  - by George Mauer

  EDIT: This didn't really start as a hidden features of PHP topic, but thats what it ended up as, so go nuts. I know this sounds like a point-whoring question but let me explain where I'm coming from. Out of college I got a job at a PHP shop. I worked there for a year and a half and thought that I had learned all there was to learn about programming. Then I got a job as a one-man internal development shop at a sizable corporation where all the work was in C#. In my commitment to the position I started reading a ton of blogs and books and quickly realized how wrong I was to think I knew everything. I learned about unit testing, dependency injection and decorator patterns, the design principle of loose coupling, the composition over inheritance debate, and so on and on and on - I am still very much absorbing it all. Needless to say my programming style has changed entirely in the last year. Now I find myself picking up a php project doing some coding for a friend's start-up and I feel completely constrained as opposed to programming in C#. It really bothers me that all variables at a class scope have to be referred to by appending '$this-' . It annoys me that none of the IDEs that I've tried have very good intellisense and that my SimpleTest unit tests methods have to start with the word 'test'. It drives me crazy that dynamic typing keeps me from specifying implicitly which parameter type a method expects, and that you have to write a switch statement to do method overloads. I can't stand that you can't have nested namespaces and have to use the :: operator to call the base class's constructor. Now I have no intention of starting a PHP vs C# debate, rather what I mean to say is that I'm sure there are some PHP features that I either don't know about or know about yet fail to use properly. I am set in my C# universe and having trouble seeing outside the glass bowl. So I'm asking, what are your favorite features of PHP? What are things you can do in it that you can't or are more difficult in the .Net languages?

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• jQuery jScrollPane - it simply won't work! :'(

  - by Jack Webb-Heller

  Hey folks, OK - I'll admit, I'm quite a beginner in this jQuery-department. I've probably made some amateur mistake, but hey, you gotta learn somewhere! :) So I'm using jScrollPane: http://www.kelvinluck.com/assets/jquery/jScrollPane/jScrollPane.html I want to use it style the scrollable area in my second column. Specifically, I would like to apply and format the scrollbars on the div #ajaxresults My page is... rather jQuery heavy. I don't know if any variables are conflicting or something... in fact I really have no idea at all why this isn't working. Take a look at my problematic page: http://furnace.howcode.com In the header, I've set this to go: <!-- Includes for jScrollPane --> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://localhost:8888/js/jquery.mousewheel.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://localhost:8888/js/jScrollPane.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" media="all" href="http://localhost:8888/stylesheets/jScrollPane.css" /> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $('#ajaxresults').jScrollPane(); }); </script> (I've changed localhost on the server copy though) Nothing ever seems to work with the #ajaxresults div. I've set, as the jScrollPane docs say, overflow:auto on it but still no luck. I find that when jScrollPane DOES seem to 'run' it just moves the div down about 100 pixels. Try it for yourself. Perhaps someone could help? There's quite a few jQuery plugins there so I don't know if something's colliding/crashing etc... Please note the site is still in development between myself and a friend, which explains the personal messages we submit to each other ('Hi Donnie!' etc. :D ). Also, when you view the page nothing may appear in the second column for a few seconds - it's just fetching the data via Ajax. So give it a little time. Thanks very much! Jack

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• What does N years of experience with a language really mean?

  - by marcgg

  I've been looking at jobs descriptions since I'm graduating soon and looking for a job and what's always coming back - I'm not teaching you anything - is the "N years of experience in this language". It has been discussed in this question that if you work professionally with let's say Ruby for 2 years, but during these two years you also did some C# and PHP and were actually coding in Ruby 50% of the time. Do you say you have 1 year of experience in Ruby? 2 years? Another issue that hasn't been reviewed in the other post is for "non-professional experience". I'll give you a personal example: I've been working with Ruby on Rails since 2004 while at school. I did a lot of personal projects and school projects using this technology. I also used Rails in 2 6-month internships. Do I have 5 years of Rails experience (2004-now)? Do I have 1 year(2 internships)? Do I have nothing? I feel like I don't deserve the credit for 5 years, because the first years I wasn't working a lot with rails, but since last year I launched some websites and invested myself a lot in this technology and just saying 1 year doesn't really reflect how much I know the technology... Another example: I Learned C++ at school and did 1 big project with it (2-3 month of work and a semester of classes). I never used it in a company but I'd be able to be productive fairly quickly if I had to work on a C++ project and I have a good grasp of the concepts. Do I have no experience? 3 months? 6 months? ... something else? What I'm really trying to do is to find a way to present my skill set in a way that is compliant to what recruiters expect. I also don't want to end up at an interview that would go something like this... Recruiter (finding out the horrible truth): Oh but you said that you had 2 years of experience with this when you have none! / slaps me in the face / Me (in pain): Oh! The irony! Recruiter (yelling): Get out of my office / calls security, punches me in the throat /

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• ASP.Net JSON Web Service Post Form Data

  - by Will D

  I have a ASP.NET web service decorated with System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptService() so it can return json formatted data. This much is working for me, but ASP.Net has a requirement that parameters to the web service must be in json in order to get json out. I'm using jquery to run my ajax calls and there doesn't seem to be an easy way to create a nice javascript object from the form elements. I have looked at serialiseArray in the json2 library but it doesn't encode the field names as property name in the object. If you have 2 form elements like this <input type="text" name="namefirst" id="namefirst" value="John"/> <input type="text" name="namelast" id="namelast" value="Doe"/> calling $("form").serialize() will get you the standard query string namefirst=John&namelast=Doe calling JSON.stringify($("form").serializeArray()) will get you the (bulky) json representation [{"name":"namefirst","value":"John"},{"name":"namelast","value":"Doe"}] This will work when passing to the web service but its ugly as you have to have code like this to read it in: Public Class NameValuePair Public name As String Public value As String End Class <WebMethod()> _ Public Function GetQuote(ByVal nvp As NameValuePair()) As String End Function You would also have to wrap that json text inside another object nameed nvp to make the web service happy. Then its more work as all you have is an array of NameValuePair when you want an associative array. I might be kidding myself but i imagined something more elegant when i started this project - more like this Public Class Person Public namefirst As String Public namelast As String End Class which would require the json to look something like this: {"namefirst":"John","namelast":"Doe"} Is there an easy way to do this? Obviously it is simple for a form with two parameters but when you have a very large form concatenating strings gets ugly. Having nested objects would also complicate things The cludge I have settled on for the moment is to use the standard name value pair format stuffed inside a json object. This is compact and fast {"q":"namefirst=John&namelast=Doe"} then have a web method like this on the server that parses the query string into an associate array. <WebMethod()> _ Public Function AjaxForm(ByVal q As String) as string Dim params As NameValueCollection = HttpUtility.ParseQueryString(q) 'do stuff return "Hello" End Sub As far a cludges go this one seems reasonably elegant in terms of amount of code, but my question is: is there a better way? Is there a generally accepted way of passing form data to asp.net web/script services?

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• Rails ActiveResource Associations

  - by brad

  I have some ARes models (see below) that I'm trying to use associations with (which seems to be wholly undocumented and maybe not possible but I thought I'd give it a try) So on my service side, my ActiveRecord object will render something like render :xml => @group.to_xml(:include => :customers) (see generated xml below) The models Group and Customers are HABTM On my ARes side, I'm hoping that it can see the <customers> xml attribute and automatically populate the .customers attribute of that Group object , but the has_many etc methods aren't supported (at least as far as I can tell) So I'm wondering how ARes does it's reflection on the XML to set the attributes of an object. In AR for instance I could create a def customers=(customer_array) and set it myself, but this doesn't seem to work in ARes. One suggestion I found for an "association" is the just have a method def customers Customer.find(:all, :conditions => {:group_id => self.id}) end But this has the disadvantage that it makes a second service call to look up those customers... not cool I'd like my ActiveResource model to see that the customers attribute in the XML and automatically populate my model. Anyone have any experience with this?? # My Services class Customer < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :groups end class Group < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :customer end # My ActiveResource accessors class Customer < ActiveResource::Base; end class Group < ActiveResource::Base; end # XML from /groups/:id?customers=true <group> <domain>some.domain.com</domain> <id type="integer">266</id> <name>Some Name</name> <customers type="array"> <customer> <active type="boolean">true</active> <id type="integer">1</id> <name>Some Name</name> </customer> <customer> <active type="boolean" nil="true"></active> <id type="integer">306</id> <name>Some Other Name</name> </customer> </customers> </group>

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• Referencing both an old version and new version of the same DLL (VB.Net)

  - by ckittel

  Consider the following situation: WidgetCompany produced a .NET DLL in 2006 called Widget.dll, version 1.0. I consumed this Widget.dll file throughout my VB.Net application. Over time, WidgetCompany has been updating Widget.dll, I never bothered to keep up, continuing to ship version 1.0 of Widget.dll with my software. It's now 2010, my project is now a VB.Net 3.5 application and WidgetCompany has come out with Widget.dll version 3.0. It looks and functions almost identical to Widget.dll version 1.0, using all the same namespaces and type names from before. However, Widget.dll version 3.0 has many run-time breaking changes since 1.0 and I cannot simply cut over to the new version; however, I don't want to continue developing against the 1.0 version and therefore keep digging myself deeper in the hole. What I want to do is do all new development in my project with Widget.dll version 3.0, whilst keeping Widget.dll version 1.0 around until I find time to convert all of my 1.0 consumption to the newer 3.0 code. Now, for starters, I obviously cannot simply reference both Widget.dll (Ver 1.0) and Widget.dll (Ver 3.0) in Visual Studio. Doing so gives me the following message: "A reference to 'Widget.dll' could not be added. A reference to the component 'Widget' already exists in the project." To work around that, I can simply rename version 3.0 Widget.dll to Widget.3.dll. But this is where I'm stuck. Any attempts to reference types found in "the dll" leads to ambiguity and the compiler obviously doesn't have any clue as to what I really want in this or that case. Is there something I can do that gives a DLL a new "root" Namespace or something? For example, if I could say "Widget.dll has a new root namespace of Legacy" then I could update existing code to reference the types found in Legacy.<RootNamespace> namespace while all new code could simply reference types from the <RootNamespace> namespace. Pipe dream or reality? Are there other solutions to situations this (besides "don't get in this situation in the first place")?

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• Problems using FluentNHibernate + SQLite with .NET4?

  - by stiank81

  I have a WPF application running with VS2010 .Net3.5 using Nhibernate with FluentNHibernate + SQLite, and all works fine. Now I want to change to use .Net4, but this has turned into a more painful experience then I expected.. When setting up the connection a FluentConfigurationException is thrown from FluentConfiguration.BuildConfiguration saying: An invalid or incomplete configuration was used while creating a SessionFactory. Check PotentialReasons collection, and InnerException for more details. The inner exception gives us more information: Could not create the driver from NHibernate.Driver.SQLite20Driver, NHibernate, Version=2.1.2.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4. It has an InnerException again: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation. Which again has an InnerException: The IDbCommand and IDbConnection implementation in the assembly System.Data.SQLite could not be found. Ensure that the assembly System.Data.SQLite is located in the application directory or in the Global Assembly Cache. If the assembly is in the GAC, use element in the application configuration file to specify the full name of the assembly. Now - to me it sounds like it doesn't find System.Data.SQLite.dll, but I can't understand this. Everywhere this is referenced I have "Copy Local", and I have verified that it is in every build folder for projects using SQLite. I have also copied it manually to every Debug folder of the solution - without luck. Notes: This is exactly the same code that worked just fine before I upgraded to .Net4. I did see some x64 x86 mismatch problems earlier, but I have switched to use x86 as the target platform and for all referenced dlls. I have verified that all files in the Debug-folder are x86. I have tried the precompiled Fluent dlls, I have tried compiling myself, and I have compiled my own version of Fluent using .Net4. I see that there are also others that have seen this problem, but I haven't really seen any solution yet. After @devio's answer I tried adding a reference to the SQLite dll. This didn't change anything, but I hope I made it right though.. This is what I added to the root node of the app.config file: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <qualifyAssembly partialName="System.Data.SQLite" fullName="System.Data.SQLite, Version=1.0.60.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=db937bc2d44ff139" /> </assemblyBinding> </runtime> Anyone out there using Fluent with .Net4 and SQLite successfully? Help! I'm lost...

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• design for a wrapper around command-line utilities

  - by hatchetman82

  im trying to come up with a design for a wrapper for use when invoking command line utilities in java. the trouble with runtime.exec() is that you need to keep reading from the process' out and err streams or it hangs when it fills its buffers. this has led me to the following design: public class CommandLineInterface { private final Thread stdOutThread; private final Thread stdErrThread; private final OutputStreamWriter stdin; private final History history; public CommandLineInterface(String command) throws IOException { this.history = new History(); this.history.addEntry(new HistoryEntry(EntryTypeEnum.INPUT, command)); Process process = Runtime.getRuntime().exec(command); stdin = new OutputStreamWriter(process.getOutputStream()); stdOutThread = new Thread(new Leech(process.getInputStream(), history, EntryTypeEnum.OUTPUT)); stdOutThread.setDaemon(true); stdOutThread.start(); stdErrThread = new Thread(new Leech(process.getErrorStream(), history, EntryTypeEnum.ERROR)); stdErrThread.setDaemon(true); stdErrThread.start(); } public void write(String input) throws IOException { this.history.addEntry(new HistoryEntry(EntryTypeEnum.INPUT, input)); stdin.write(input); stdin.write("\n"); stdin.flush(); } } public class Leech implements Runnable{ private final InputStream stream; private final History history; private final EntryTypeEnum type; private volatile boolean alive = true; public Leech(InputStream stream, History history, EntryTypeEnum type) { this.stream = stream; this.history = history; this.type = type; } public void run() { BufferedReader reader = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(stream)); String line; try { while(alive) { line = reader.readLine(); if (line==null) break; history.addEntry(new HistoryEntry(type, line)); } } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } } my issue is with the Leech class (used to "leech" the process' out and err streams and feed them into history - which acts like a log file) - on the one hand reading whole lines is nice and easy (and what im currently doing), but it means i miss the last line (usually the prompt line). i only see the prompt line when executing the next command (because there's no line break until that point). on the other hand, if i read characters myself, how can i tell when the process is "done" ? (either complete or waiting for input) has anyone tried something like waiting 100 millis since the last output from the process and declaring it "done" ? any better ideas on how i can implement a nice wrapper around things like runtime.exec("cmd.exe") ?

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• NSMutableArray can't be added to

  - by Dan Ray

  I've had this sort of problem before, and it didn't get a satisfactory answer. I have a viewcontroller with a property called "counties" that is an NSMutableArray. I'm going to drill down a navigation screen to a view that is about selecting the counties for a geographical search. So the search page drills down to the "select counties" page. I pass NSMutableArray *counties to the second controller as I push the second one on the navigation stack. I actually set that second controller's "selectedCounties" property (also an NSMutableArray) with a pointer to my first controller's "counties", as you'll see below. When I go to addObject to that, though, I get this: *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: '*** -[NSCFArray insertObject:atIndex:]: mutating method sent to immutable object' Here's my code: in SearchViewController.h: @interface SearchViewController : UIViewController { .... NSMutableArray *counties; } .... @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray *counties; in SearchViewController.m: - (void)getLocationsView { [keywordField resignFirstResponder]; SearchLocationsViewController *locationsController = [[SearchLocationsViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"SearchLocationsView" bundle:nil]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:locationsController animated:YES]; [locationsController setSelectedCounties:self.counties]; [locationsController release]; } in SearchLocationsViewController.h: @interface EventsSearchLocationsViewController : UIViewController <UITableViewDelegate, UITableViewDataSource> { ... NSMutableArray *selectedCounties; } ... @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray *selectedCounties; in SearchLocationsViewController.m (the point here is, we're toggling each element of a table being active or not in the list of selected counties): -(void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath]; if ([self.selectedCounties containsObject:[self.counties objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]]) { //we're deselcting! [self.selectedCounties removeObject:[self.counties objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]]; cell.accessoryView = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"red_check_inactive.png"]]; } else { [self.selectedCounties addObject:[self.counties objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]]; cell.accessoryView = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"red_check_active.png"]]; } [tableView deselectRowAtIndexPath:indexPath animated:YES]; } We die at [self.selectedCounties addObject.... there. Now, when I NSLog myself [self.selectedCounties class], it tells me it's an NSCFArray. How does this happen? I understand about class bundles (or I THINK I do anyway), but this is explicitly a specific type, and it's losing it subclassing at some point in a way that kills the whole thing. I just completely don't understand why that would happen.

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• Correct way of using/testing event service in Eclipse E4 RCP

  - by Thorsten Beck

  Allow me to pose two coupled questions that might boil down to one about good application design ;-) What is the best practice for using event based communication in an e4 RCP application? How can I write simple unit tests (using JUnit) for classes that send/receive events using dependency injection and IEventBroker ? Let’s be more concrete: say I am developing an Eclipse e4 RCP application consisting of several plugins that need to communicate. For communication I want to use the event service provided by org.eclipse.e4.core.services.events.IEventBroker so my plugins stay loosely coupled. I use dependency injection to inject the event broker to a class that dispatches events: @Inject static IEventBroker broker; private void sendEvent() { broker.post(MyEventConstants.SOME_EVENT, payload) } On the receiver side, I have a method like: @Inject @Optional private void receiveEvent(@UIEventTopic(MyEventConstants.SOME_EVENT) Object payload) Now the questions: In order for IEventBroker to be successfully injected, my class needs access to the current IEclipseContext. Most of my classes using the event service are not referenced by the e4 application model, so I have to manually inject the context on instantiation using e.g. ContextInjectionFactory.inject(myEventSendingObject, context); This approach works but I find myself passing around a lot of context to wherever I use the event service. Is this really the correct approach to event based communication across an E4 application? how can I easily write JUnit tests for a class that uses the event service (either as a sender or receiver)? Obviously, none of the above annotations work in isolation since there is no context available. I understand everyone’s convinced that dependency injection simplifies testability. But does this also apply to injecting services like the IEventBroker? This article describes creation of your own IEclipseContext to include the process of DI in tests. Not sure if this could resolve my 2nd issue but I also hesitate running all my tests as JUnit Plug-in tests as it appears impractible to fire up the PDE for each unit test. Maybe I just misunderstand the approach. This article speaks about “simply mocking IEventBroker”. Yes, that would be great! Unfortunately, I couldn’t find any information on how this can be achieved. All this makes me wonder whether I am still on a "good path" or if this is already a case of bad design? And if so, how would you go about redesigning? Move all event related actions to dedicated event sender/receiver classes or a dedicated plugin?

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• Classifying captured data in unknown format?

  - by monch1962

  I've got a large set of captured data (potentially hundreds of thousands of records), and I need to be able to break it down so I can both classify it and also produce "typical" data myself. Let me explain further... If I have the following strings of data: 132T339G1P112S 164T897F5A498S 144T989B9B223T 155T928X9Z554T ... you might start to infer the following: possibly all strings are 14 characters long the 4th, 8th, 10th and 14th characters may always be alphas, while the rest are numeric the first character may always be a '1' the 4th character may always be the letter 'T' the 14th character may be limited to only being 'S' or 'T' and so on... As you get more and more samples of real data, some of these "rules" might disappear; if you see a 15 character long string, then you have evidence that the 1st "rule" is incorrect. However, given a sufficiently large sample of strings that are exactly 14 characters long, you can start to assume that "all strings are 14 characters long" and assign a numeric figure to your degree of confidence (with an appropriate set of assumptions around the fact that you're seeing a suitably random set of all possible captured data). As you can probably tell, a human can do a lot of this classification by eye, but I'm not aware of libraries or algorithms that would allow a computer to do it. Given a set of captured data (significantly more complex than the above...), are there libraries that I can apply in my code to do this sort of classification for me, that will identify "rules" with a given degree of confidence? As a next step, I need to be able to take those rules, and use them to create my own data that conforms to these rules. I assume this is a significantly easier step than the classification, but I've never had to perform a task like this before so I'm really not sure how complex it is. At a guess, Python or Java (or possibly Perl or R) are possibly the "common" languages most likely to have these sorts of libraries, and maybe some of the bioinformatic libraries do this sort of thing. I really don't care which language I have to use; I need to solve the problem in whatever way I can. Any sort of pointer to information would be very useful. As you can probably tell, I'm struggling to describe this problem clearly, and there may be a set of appropriate keywords I can plug into Google that will point me towards the solution. Thanks in advance

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• Annoying Captcha >> How to programm a form that can SMELL difference between human and robot?

  - by Sam

  Hi folks. On the comment of my old form needing a CAPTHA, I felt I share my problem, perhaps you recognize it and find its time we had better solutions: FACTUAL PROBLEM I know most of my clients (typical age= 40~60) hate CAPTCHA things. Now, I myself always feel like a robot, when I have to sueeze my eyes and fill in the strange letters from the Capcha... Sometimes I fail! Go back etc. Turnoff. I mean comon its 2011, shouldnt the forms have better A.I. by now? MY NEW IDEA (please dont laugh) Ive thought about it and this is my idea's to tell difference between human and robot: My idea is to give credibility points. 100 points = human 0% = robot. require real human mouse movements require mousemovements that dont follow any mathematical pattern require non-instantaneous reading delays, between load and first input in form when typing in form, delays are measured between letters and words approve as human when typical human behaviour measured (deleting, rephrasing etc) dont allow instant pasting or all fields give points for real keyboard pressures retract points for credibility when hyperlinks in form Test wether fake email field (invisible by human) is populated (suggested by Tomalak) when more than 75% human cretibility, allow to be sent without captcha when less than 25% human crecibility, force captcha puzzle to be sure Could we write a A.I. PHP that replaces the human-annoying capthas, meanwhile stopping most spamservers filing in the data? Not only for the fun of it, but also actually to provide a 99% better alternative than CAPTHCA's. Imagine the userfriendlyness of your forms! Your site distinguishing itself from others, showing your audience your sites KNOWS the difference between a robot and a human. Imagine the advangage. I am trying to capture the essense of that distinguishing edge. PROGRAMMING QUESTION: 1) Are such things possible to programm? 2) If so how would you start such programm? 3) Are there already very good working solutions available elsewhere? 4) If it isn't so hard, your are welcome to share your answer/solutions below. 5) upon completion of hints and new ideas, could this page be the start of a new AI captcha, OR should I forget about it and just go with the flow, forget about the whole AI dream, and use captcha like everyone else.

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• Logging in with WebFinger and OpenID

  - by Ryan

  I would like to apologize in advance for the ugly formatting. In order to talk about the problem, I need to be posting a bunch of URLs, but the excessive URLs and my lack of reputation makes StackOverflow think I could be a spammer. Any instance of 'ht~tp' is supposed to be 'http'. '{dot}' is supposed to be '.' and '{colon}' is supposed to be ':'. Also, my lack of reputation has prevented me from tagging my question with 'webfinger' and 'google-profiles'. Onto my question: I am messing around with WebFinger and trying to create a small rails app that enables a user to log in using nothing but their WebFinger account. I can succesfully finger myself, and I get back an XRD file with the following snippet: Link rel="ht~tp://specs{dot}openid{dot}net/auth/2.0/provider" href="ht~tp://www{dot}google{dot}com/profiles/{redacted}"/ Which, to me, reads, "I have an OpenID 2.0 login at the url: ht~tp://www{dot}google{dot}com/profiles/{redacted}". But when I try to use that URL to log in, I get the following error OpenID::DiscoveryFailure (Failed to fetch identity URL ht~tp://www{dot}google{dot}com/profiles/{redacted} : Error encountered in redirect from ht~tp://www{dot}google{dot}com/profiles/{redacted}: Error fetching /profiles/{Redacted}: Connection refused - connect(2)): When I replace the profile URL with 'ht~tps://www{dot}google{dot}com/accounts/o8/id', the login works perfectly. here is the code that I am using (I'm using RedFinger as a plugin, and JanRain's ruby-openid, installed without the gem) require "openid" require 'openid/store/filesystem.rb' class SessionsController < ApplicationController def new @session = Session.new #render a textbox requesting a webfinger address, and a submit button end def create ####################### # # Pay Attention to this section right here # ####################### #use given webfinger address to retrieve openid login finger = Redfinger.finger(params[:session][:webfinger_address]) openid_url = finger.open_id.first.to_s #openid_url is now: ht~tp://www{dot}google{dot}com/profiles/{redacted} #Get needed info about the acquired OpenID login file_store = OpenID::Store::Filesystem.new("./noncedir/") consumer = OpenID::Consumer.new(session,file_store) response = consumer.begin(openid_url) #ERROR HAPPENS HERE #send user to OpenID login for verification redirect_to response.redirect_url('ht~tp://localhost{colon}3000/','ht~tp://localhost{colon}3000/sessions/complete') end def complete #interpret return parameters file_store = OpenID::Store::Filesystem.new("./noncedir/") consumer = OpenID::Consumer.new(session,file_store) response = consumer.complete params case response.status when OpenID::SUCCESS session[:openid] = response.identity_url #redirect somehwere here end end end Is it possible for me to use the URL I received from my WebFinger to log in with OpenID?

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