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  • Why to build own CMS?

    - by ile
    On my first job interview, I was asked why did I build my own CMS? Why not to use one of existing CMS, Wordpress, Joomla, Drupal...? At first, I was stunned. I couldn't immediately recall all of my reasons for building my own CMS, but this was definitely one of the main reasons: It's my code and if I want to change something in that CMS (which I often have to do, because each website I build needs CMS with different functions) it's not a big problem. For some time I've been using Wordpress and one of the main things that distracted me from using it was discovering bugs in code that wasn't written by me and this bugs were often, especially if I made some changes to CMS or added a plugin... Here, I can find these 8 reasons why NOT to build own CMS: It won’t meet users’ needs It’s too much work It won’t be a standard solution It won’t be extendible fast enough It won’t be tested well enough It won’t be easily changeable It won’t add any value Create content, not functionality Quote from the same page: So the main question to ask yourself is: ‘Why am I really trying to re-solve a problem that has already been solved before?’ Well, I definitely agree that it's hard to invent CMS that hasn't been already invented, but on other hand, I think every CMS is (or should be) individual... it maybe won't have a million of functions, it will have 3 functions but their usage will be clear (to a user) and do all that one site needs to have. I think also that it is not good to give to a client a CMS with a lot of functions that are never used and it looks probably more professional when website and CMS together look like one product. I would also like to comment some quote parts: "It’s too much work" - I agree, but when using existing CMS and customizing it to website needs and can sometimes be very hard job or mission impossible. "It won’t be easily changeable" - I disagree with this one. What is your opinion on this one, why did you develop or didn't develop your own CMS? Ile

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  • Is HttpContextWrapper all that....useful?

    - by bakasan
    I've been going through the process of cleaning up our controller code to make each action as testable. Generally speaking, this hasn't been too difficult--where we have opportunity to use a fixed object, like say FormsAuthentication, we generally introduce some form of wrapper as appropriate and be on our merry way. For reasons not particularly germaine to this conversation, when it came to dealing with usage of HttpContext, we decided to use the newly created HttpContextWrapper class rather than inventing something homegrown. One thing we did introduce was the ability to swap in a HttpContextWrapper (like say, for unit testing). This was wholly inspired by the way Oren Eini handles unit testing with DateTimes (see article, a pattern we also use) public static class FooHttpContext { public static Func<HttpContextWrapper> Current = () => new HttpContextWrapper(HttpContext.Current); public static void Reset() { Current = () => new HttpContextWrapper(HttpContext.Current); } } Nothing particularly fancy. And it works just fine in our controller code. The kicker came when we go to write unit tests. We're using Moq as our mocking framework, but alas var context = new Mock<HttpContextWrapper>() breaks since HttpContextWrapper doesn't have a parameterless ctor. And what does it take as a ctor parameter? A HttpContext object. So I find myself in a catch 22. I'm using the prescribed way to decouple HttpContext--but I can't mock a value in because the original HttpContext object was sealed and therefore difficult to test. I can map HttpContextBase, which both derive from--but that doesn't really get me what I'm after. Am I just missing the point somewhere with regard to HttpContextWrapper? I can find ways to work around the issue, but we are kind of fond of remaining consistent in decoupling using the Function delegate pattern--but it seems like we're not fully grokking intent of the wrapper.

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  • Deserializing a complex JSON result (array of dictionaries) with TouchJSON

    - by jpm
    I did a few tests with TouchJSON last night and it worked pretty well in general for simple cases. I'm using the following code to read some JSON content from a file, and deserialize it: NSString *jsonString = [[NSString alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:@"data.json"]; NSData *jsonData = [jsonString dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF32BigEndianStringEncoding]; NSError *error = nil; NSDictionary *items = [[CJSONDeserializer deserializer] deserializeAsDictionary:jsonData error:&error]; NSLog(@"total items: %d", [items count]); NSLog(@"error: %@", [error localizedDescription]); That works fine if I have a very simple JSON object in the file (i.e. a dictionary): {"id": "54354", "name": "boohoo"} This way I was able to get access to the array of values, as I wanted to get the item based on its index within the list: NSArray *items_list = [items allValues]; NSString *name = [items_list objectAtIndex:1]; (I understand that I could have fetched the name with the dictionary API) Now I would like to deserialize a semi-complex JSON string, which represents an array of dictionaries. An example of such a JSON string is below: [{"id": "123456", "name": "touchjson"}, {"id": "3456", "name": "bleh"}] When I try to run the same code above against this new content in the data.json file, I don't get any results back. My NSLog() call says "total items: 0", and no error is coming back in the NSError object. Any clues on what is going on? I'm completely lost on what to do, as there isn't much documentation available for TouchJSON, and much less usage examples.

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  • C - check if string is a substring of another string

    - by user69514
    I need to write a program that takes two strings as arguments and check if the second one is a substring of the first one. I need to do it without using any special library functions. I created this implementation, but I think it's always returning true as long as there is one letter that's the same in both strings. Can you help me out here. I'm not sure what I am doing wrong: #include <stdio.h> #include <string.h> int my_strstr( char const *s, char const *sub ) { char const *ret = sub; int r = 0; while ( ret = strchr( ret, *sub ) ) { if ( strcmp( ++ret, sub+1 ) == 0 ){ r = 1; } else{ r = 0; } } return r; } int main(int argc, char **argv){ if (argc != 3) { printf ("Usage: check <string one> <string two>\n"); } int result = my_strstr(argv[1], argv[2]); if(result == 1){ printf("%s is a substring of %s\n", argv[2], argv[1]); } else{ printf("%s is not a substring of %s\n", argv[2], argv[1]); } return 0; }

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  • Sometimes Java web app hang

    - by zhongshu
    The web app occasionally get hang for about 30 seconds when user request a web page, the server's CPU and memory usage are ok, and the jstack shows: "http-9999-3" daemon prio=6 tid=0x552f3400 nid=0xf40 runnable [0x578fc000] java.lang.Thread.State: RUNNABLE at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.compiler.parser.Parser.getTypeReference(Parser.java:8354) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.compiler.parser.Parser.consumeClassHeaderExtends(Parser.java:2125) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.compiler.parser.Parser.consumeRule(Parser.java:5107) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.compiler.parser.Parser.parse(Parser.java:9020) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.compiler.parser.Parser.parse(Parser.java:9251) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.compiler.parser.Parser.parse(Parser.java:9208) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.compiler.parser.Parser.dietParse(Parser.java:7864) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.compiler.Compiler.internalBeginToCompile(Compiler.java:587) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.compiler.Compiler.beginToCompile(Compiler.java:357) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.compiler.Compiler.compile(Compiler.java:371) at org.apache.jasper.compiler.JDTCompiler.generateClass(JDTCompiler.java:413) at org.apache.jasper.compiler.Compiler.compile(Compiler.java:317) at org.apache.jasper.compiler.Compiler.compile(Compiler.java:295) at org.apache.jasper.compiler.Compiler.compile(Compiler.java:282) at org.apache.jasper.JspCompilationContext.compile(JspCompilationContext.java:586) at org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServletWrapper.service(JspServletWrapper.java:317) - locked <0x10a75fc0> (a org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServletWrapper) at org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.serviceJspFile(JspServlet.java:342) at org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.service(JspServlet.java:267) at javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:290) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationDispatcher.invoke(ApplicationDispatcher.java:630) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationDispatcher.doInclude(ApplicationDispatcher.java:535) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationDispatcher.include(ApplicationDispatcher.java:472) ...... seems it's related with some jsp files, how to find the root cause? thanks.

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  • Advice for last year college graduates

    - by Tomh
    Hey guys, I know there are many "advice" questions around this site. But I wanted to to narrow mine down to last year college students, in my case my last year as Master student in computer science. So far is a list of things I've done during my time in college (which I can recommend others to do aswell): Code a lot I've written several hobby projects, had part time jobs, entered the Imagine cup from Microsoft, took programming extensive courses and did freelance gigs. Read a lot I've bought most top books from the recommended book topics here, to be honest I have not read them all. learn different languages I've tried several languages including Haskell, Java, Python, Ruby, Lisp, Prolog, C#, PHP, JS, AS3 and possibly some more I forgot. Tried to start a blog Joel recommends to learn how to write, I tried starting a couple of blogs to improve upon this, I gave up on all instances after writing about three posts. It was just not my thing... Have a portfolio of launched projects/programs I'm busy with this, have a couple of finished, working projects I worked on to show to people. So this is my last year. Is there anything else you can recommend a last year college student to do before hitting the job market? Personally I'm tempted to spend my time on the following: Practice algorithm design Learn and memorize the usage of the low level API's of your favorite language Polish your portfolio Why? Because those first two will make sure you pass the majority of the interviews, here in Holland (I could be wrong). I rather not spend my time on those first two points, but I have to be realistic and thats just my experience on what kind of questions you'll get when you apply. The third point is my hope that I won't have to answer questions about the amount of standard types in c# for example if they can see I get projects done and launched. But I'm still graduating, so I don't know anything :), and many of you might be hiring grads on a recent base and could tell me and other interested people what you wish that the recent grads you interviewed would have done before they applied.

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  • How to break WinDbg in an anonymous method?

    - by Richard Berg
    Title kinda says it all. The usual SOS command !bpmd doesn't do a lot of good without a name. Some ideas I had: dump every method, then use !bpmd -md when you find the corresponding MethodDesc not practical in real world usage, from what I can tell. Even if I wrote a macro to limit the dump to anonymous types/methods, there's no obvious way to tell them apart. use Reflector to dump the MSIL name doesn't help when dealing with dynamic assemblies and/or Reflection.Emit. Visual Studio's inability to read local vars inside such scenarios is the whole reason I turned to Windbg in the first place... set the breakpoint in VS, wait for it to hit, then change to Windbg using the noninvasive trick attempting to detach from VS causes it to hang (along with the app). I think this is due to the fact that the managed debugger is a "soft" debugger via thread injection instead of a standard "hard" debugger. Or maybe it's just a VS bug specific to Silverlight (would hardly be the first I've encountered). set a breakpoint on some other location known to call into the anonymous method, then single-step your way in my backup plan, though I'd rather not resort to it if this Q&A reveals a better way

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  • Why is this simple jQuery hover event misbehaving in Internet Explorer 8?

    - by Siracuse
    I asked for help earlier on Stackoverflow involving highlighting spans with the same Class when a mouse hovers over any Span with that same Class. It is working great: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2709686/how-can-i-add-a-border-to-all-the-elements-that-share-a-class-when-the-mouse-has $('span[class]').hover( function() { $('.' + $(this).attr('class')).css('background-color','green'); }, function() { $('.' + $(this).attr('class')).css('background-color','yellow'); } ) Here is an example of it in usage: http://dl.dropbox.com/u/638285/0utput.html However, it doesn't appear to work properly in IE8, while it DOES work in Chrome/Firefox. Here is a screenshot of it in IE8, with my mouse hovered over the " min) { min" section in the middle. As you can see, it highlighted the span that the mouse is hovering over perfectly fine. However, it has also highlighted some random spans above and below it that don't have the same class! Only the span's with the same Class as the one where the mouse is over should be highlighted green. In this screenshot, only that middle green section should be green. Here is a screenshot of it working properly in Firefox/Chrome with my mouse in the exact same position: This screenshot is correct as the span that the mouse is over (the green section) is the only one in this section that shares that class. Why is IE8 randomly green-highlighting spans when it shouldn't be (they don't share the same class) using my little jQuery snippet? Again, if you want to see it live I have it here: http://dl.dropbox.com/u/638285/0utput.html

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  • Extending Zend View Helper Placeholder

    - by Sonny
    I was reading the manual about basic placeholder usage, and it has this example: class Bootstrap extends Zend_Application_Bootstrap_Bootstrap { // ... protected function _initSidebar() { $this->bootstrap('View'); $view = $this->getResource('View'); $view->placeholder('sidebar') // "prefix" -> markup to emit once before all items in collection ->setPrefix("<div class=\"sidebar\">\n <div class=\"block\">\n") // "separator" -> markup to emit between items in a collection ->setSeparator("</div>\n <div class=\"block\">\n") // "postfix" -> markup to emit once after all items in a collection ->setPostfix("</div>\n</div>"); } // ... } I want to acommplish almost exactly that, but I'd like to conditionally add more class values to the repeating divs, at time of rendering if possible, when all the content is in the placeholder. One thing I specifically want to do is add the class of "first" to the first element and "last" to the last element. I assume that I'll have to extend the Zend_View_Helper_Placeholder class to accomplish this.

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  • ICollectionView.SortDescriptions sort does not work if underlying DataTable has zero rows

    - by BigBlondeViking
    We have a WPF app that has a DataGrid inside a ListView. private DataTable table_; We do a bunch or dynamic column generation ( depending on the report we are showing ) We then do the a query and fill the DataTable row by row, this query may or may not have data.( not the problem, an empty grid is expected ) We set the ListView's ItemsSource to the DefaultView of the DataTable. lv.ItemsSource = table_.DefaultView; We then (looking at the user's pass usage of the app, set the sort on the column) Sort Method below: private void Sort(string sortBy, ListSortDirection direction) { ICollectionView dataView = CollectionViewSource.GetDefaultView(lv.ItemsSource); dataView.SortDescriptions.Clear(); var sd = new SortDescription(sortBy, direction); dataView.SortDescriptions.Add(sd); dataView.Refresh(); } In the Zero DataTable rows scenario, the sort does not "hold"? and if we dynamically add rows they will not be in sorted order. If the DataTable has at-least 1 row when the sort is applied, and we dynamically add rows to the DataTable, the rows com in sorted correctly. I have built a standalone app that replicate this... It is an annoyance and I can add a check to see if the DataTable was empty, and re-apply the sort... Anyone know whats going on here, and am I doing something wrong? FYI: What we based this off if comes from the MSDN as well: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms745786.aspx

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  • Tab bar controller inside a navigation controller, or sharing a navigation root view

    - by Daniel Dickison
    I'm trying to implement a UI structured like in the Tweetie app, which behaves as so: the top-level view controller seems to be a navigation controller, whose root view is an "Accounts" table view. If you click on any account, it goes to the second level, which has a tab bar across the bottom. Each tab item shows a different list and lets you drill down further (the subsequent levels don't show the tab bar). So, this seems like the implementation hierarchy is: UINavigationController Accounts: UITableViewController UITabBarController Tweets: UITableViewController Detail view of a tweet/user/etc Replies: UITableViewController ... This seems to work[^1], but appears to be unsupported according to the SDK documentation for -pushViewController:animated: (emphasis added): viewController: The view controller that is pushed onto the stack. It cannot be an instance of tab bar controller. I would like to avoid private APIs and the like, but I'm not sure why this usage is explicitly prohibited even when it seems to work fine. Anyone know the reason? I've thought about putting the tab bar controller as the main controller, with each of the tabs containing separate navigation controllers. The problem with this is that each nav controller needs to share a single root view controller (namely the "Accounts" table in Tweetie) -- this doesn't seem to work: pushing the table controller to a second nav controller seems to remove it from the first. Not to mention all the book-keeping when selecting a different account would probably be a pain. How should I implement this the Right Way? [^1]: The tab bar controller needs to be subclassed so that the tab bar controller's navigation item at that level stays in sync with the selected tab's navigation item, and the individual tab's table controller's need to push their respective detail views to self.tabBarController.navigationController instead of self.navigationController.

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  • WPF Memory Leak on XP (CMilChannel, HWND)

    - by vanja.
    My WPF application leaks memory at about 4kb/s. The memory usage in Task Manager climbs constantly until the application crashes with an "Out of Memory" exception. By doing my own research I have found that the problem is discussed here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/801589/track-down-memory-leak-in-wpf and #8 here: http://blogs.msdn.com/jgoldb/archive/2008/02/04/finding-memory-leaks-in-wpf-based-applications.aspx The problem described is: This is a leak in WPF present in versions of the framework up to and including .NET 3.5 SP1. This occurs because of the way WPF selects which HWND to use to send messages from the render thread to the UI thread. This sample destroys the first HWND created and starts an animation in a new Window. This causes messages sent from the render thread to pile up without being processed, effectively leaking memory. The solution offered is: The workaround is to create a new HwndSource first thing in your App class constructor. This MUST be created before any other HWND is created by WPF. Simply by creating this HwndSource, WPF will use this to send messages from the render thread to the UI thread. This assures all messages will be processed, and that none will leak. But I don't understand the solution! I have a subclass of Application that I am using and I have tried creating a window in that constructor but that has not solved the problem. Following the instructions given literally, it looks like I just need to add this to my Application constructor: new HwndSource(new HwndSourceParameters("MyApplication"));

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  • Can Sql Server BULK INSERT read from a named pipe/fifo?

    - by Peter
    Is it possible for BULK INSERT/bcp to read from a named pipe, fifo-style? That is, rather than reading from a real text file, can BULK INSERT/bcp be made to read from a named pipe which is on the write end of another process? For example: create named pipe unzip file to named pipe read from named pipe with bcp or BULK INSERT or: create 4 named pipes split 1 file into 4 streams, writing each stream to a separate named pipe read from 4 named pipes into 4 tables w/ bcp or BULK INSERT The closest I've found was this fellow (site now unreachable), who managed to write to a named pipe w/ bcp, with a his own utility and usage like so: start /MIN ZipPipe authors_pipe authors.txt.gz 9 bcp pubs..authors out \\.\pipe\authors_pipe -T -n But he couldn't get the reverse to work. So before I head off on a fool's errand, I'm wondering whether it's fundamentally possible to read from a named pipe w/ BULK INSERT or bcp. And if it is possible, how would one set it up? Would NamedPipeServerStream or something else in the .NET System.IO.Pipes namespace be adequate? eg, an example using Powershell: [reflection.Assembly]::LoadWithPartialName("system.core") $pipe = New-Object system.IO.Pipes.NamedPipeServerStream("Bob") And then....what?

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  • Why isn't jQuery automatically appending the JSONP callback?

    - by Aseem Kishore
    The $.getJSON() documentation states: If the specified URL is on a remote server, the request is treated as JSONP instead. See the discussion of the jsonp data type in $.ajax() for more details. The $.ajax() documentation for the jsonp data type states (emphasis mine): Loads in a JSON block using JSONP. Will add an extra "?callback=?" to the end of your URL to specify the callback. So it seems that if I call $.getJSON() with a cross-domain URL, the extra "callback=?" parameter should automatically get added. (Other parts of the documentation support this interpretation.) However, I'm not seeing that behavior. If I don't add the "callback=?" explicitly, jQuery incorrectly makes an XMLHttpRequest (which returns null data since I can't read the response cross-domain). If I do add it explicitly, jQuery correctly makes a <script> request. Here's an example: var URL = "http://www.geonames.org/postalCodeLookupJSON" + "?postalcode=10504&country=US"; function alertResponse(data, status) { alert("data: " + data + ", status: " + status); } $.getJSON(URL, alertResponse); // alerts "data: null, status: success" $.getJSON(URL + "&callback=?", alertResponse); // alerts "data: [object Object], status: undefined" So what's going on? Am I misunderstanding the documentation or forgetting something? It goes without saying that this isn't a huge deal, but I'm creating a web API and I purposely set the callback parameter to "callback" in the hopes of tailoring it nicely to jQuery usage. Thanks!

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  • Examples of localization in Perl using gettext and Locale::TextDomain, with fallback if Locale::Text

    - by Jakub Narebski
    The "On the state of i18n in Perl" blog post from 26 April 2009 recommends using Locale::TextDomain module from libintl-perl distribution for l10n / i18n in Perl. Besides I have to use gettext anyway, and gettext support in Locale::Messages / Locale::TextDomain is more natural than in gettext emulation in Locale::Maketext. The subsection "15.5.18 Perl" in chapter "15 Other Programming Languages" in GNU gettext manual says: Portability The libintl-perl package is platform independent but is not part of the Perl core. The programmer is responsible for providing a dummy implementation of the required functions if the package is not installed on the target system. However neither of two examples in examples/hello-perl in gettext sources (one using lower level Locale::Messages, one using higher level Locale::TextDomain) includes detecting if the package is installed on the target system, and providing dummy implementation if it is not. What is complicating matter (with respect to detecting if package is installed or not) is the following fragment of Locale::TextDomain manpage: SYNOPSIS use Locale::TextDomain ('my-package', @locale_dirs); use Locale::TextDomain qw (my-package); USAGE It is crucial to remember that you use Locale::TextDomain(3) as specified in the section "SYNOPSIS", that means you have to use it, not require it. The module behaves quite differently compared to other modules. Could you please tell me how one should detect if libintl-perl is present on target system, and how to provide dummy fallthrough implementation if it is not installed? Or give examples of programs / modules which do this?

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  • How to configure properly IntelliJ IDEA for deployment of JBoss Seam project?

    - by Piotr Kochanski
    I would like to use IntelliJ IDEA for development of JBoss Seam project. seam-gen is creating the project stub, however the stub is not complete. In particular it is not clear how to deploy such project. First of all I had to define manually web project facelet and add libraries to its deployment definition. The other problem was persistence.xml file. In the Seam generated project it does not exists, since Ant is using one of the persistence-dev.xml, persistence-prod.xml, persistence-test.xml files, changing its name, depending on deployment type (which is ok). Obviously I can create persistence.xml by hand, but it goes againts Seam way of development. Finally I decided to use directly ant, which is not partucularly comfortable. All these tweaks made me think that I am doing something wrong from the IntelliJ IDEA point of view. What is the efficient way of configuring IntelliJ for usage with JBoss Seam (deployment, in particular)? I am using JBoss Seam 2.1.1, Intellij 8.1.4, JBoss 4.3.3

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  • Implementing a 2 Legged OAuth Provider

    - by Rob Wilkerson
    I'm trying to find my way around the OAuth spec, its requirements and any implementations I can find and, so far, it really seems like more trouble than its worth because I'm having trouble finding a single resource that pulls it all together. Or maybe it's just that I'm looking for something more specialized than most tutorials. I have a set of existing APIs--some in Java, some in PHP--that I now need to secure and, for a number of reasons, OAuth seems like the right way to go. Unfortunately, my inability to track down the right resources to help me get a provider up and running is challenging that theory. Since most of this will be system-to-system API usage, I'll need to implement a 2-legged provider. With that in mind... Does anyone know of any good tutorials for implementing a 2-legged OAuth provider with PHP? Given that I have securable APIs in 2 languages, do I need to implement a provider in both or is there a way to create the provider as a "front controller" that I can funnel all requests through? When securing PHP services, for example, do I have to secure each API individually by including the requisite provider resources on each? Thanks for your help.

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  • New to MVVM - Best practices for seperating Data processing thread and UI Thread?

    - by OffApps Cory
    Good day. I have started messing around with the MVVP pattern, and I am having some problems with UI responsiveness versus data processing. I have a program that tracks packages. Shipment and package entities are persisted in SQL database, and are displayed in a WPF view. Upon initial retrieval of the records, there is a noticeable pause before displaying the new shipments view, and I have not even implemented the code that counts shipments that are overdue/active yet (which will necessitate a tracking check via web service, and a lot of time). I have built this with the Ocean framework, and all appears to be doing well, except when I first started my foray into multi-threading. It broke, and it appeared to break something in Ocean... Here is what I did: Private QueryThread As New System.Threading.Thread(AddressOf GetShipments) Public Sub New() ' Insert code required on object creation below this point. Me.New(ViewManagerService.CreateInstance, ViewModelUIService.CreateInstance) 'Perform initial query of shipments 'QueryThread.Start() GetShipments() Console.WriteLine(Me.Shipments.Count) End Sub Public Sub New(ByVal objIViewManagerService As IViewManagerService, ByVal objIViewModelUIService As IViewModelUIService) MyBase.New(objIViewModelUIService) End Sub Public Sub GetShipments() Dim InitialResults = From shipment In db.Shipment.Include("Packages") _ Select shipment Me.Shipments = New ShipmentsCollection(InitialResults, db) End Sub So I declared a new Thread, assigned it the GetShipments method and instanced it in the default constructor. Ocean freaks out at this, so there must be a better way of doing it. I have not had the chance to figure out the usage of the SQL ORM thing in Ocean so I am using Entity Framework (perhaps one of these days i will look at NHibernate or something too). Any information would be greatly appreciated. I have looked at a number of articles and they all have examples of simple uses. Some have mentioned the Dispatcher, but none really go very far into how it is used. Anyone know any good tutorials? Cory

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  • Inheriting from ViewPage forces explicit casting of model in view

    - by Martin Hansen
    I try to inhering from ViewPage as shown in this question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/370500/inheriting-from-viewpage But I get a Compiler Error Message: CS1061: 'object' does not contain a definition for 'Spot' and no extension method 'Spot' accepting a first argument of type 'object' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) My viewpage, normally I can do Model.ChildProperty(Spot) when I inherit from ViewPage directly, so I do that here too. But it fails. <%@ Page Language="C#" Inherits="Company.Site.ViewPageBase<WebSite.Models.SpotEntity>" %> <h1><%= Html.Encode(Model.Spot.Title) %></h1> To get it working correctly I have to do like this: <%@ Page Language="C#" Inherits="Company.Site.ViewPageBase<WebSite.Models.SpotEntity>" %> <h1><%= Html.Encode(((WebSite.Models.SpotEntity)Model).Spot.Title) %></h1> Here is my classes: namespace Company.Site { public class ViewPageBase<TModel> : Company.Site.ViewPageBase where TModel:class { private ViewDataDictionary<TModel> _viewData; [System.Diagnostics.CodeAnalysis.SuppressMessage("Microsoft.Usage", "CA2227:CollectionPropertiesShouldBeReadOnly")] public new ViewDataDictionary<TModel> ViewData { get { if (_viewData == null) { SetViewData(new ViewDataDictionary<TModel>()); } return _viewData; } set { SetViewData(value); } } protected override void SetViewData(ViewDataDictionary viewData) { _viewData = new ViewDataDictionary<TModel>(viewData); base.SetViewData(_viewData); } } public class ViewPageBase : System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage { } } So how do I get it to work without the explicit cast?

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  • Building Cross Platform app - recommendation

    - by Ben
    Hi, I need to build a fairly simple app but it needs to work on both PC and Mac. It also needs to be redistributable on a disc or usb drive as a standalone desktop app. Initially I thought AIR would be perfect for this (it ticks all the API requirements), but the difficulty is making it distributable, as the app would require the AIR runtime to be installed to run. I came across Shu Player as an option as it seems to be able to package the AIR runtime with the app and do a (silent?) install. However this seems to break the T&C from Adobe (as outlined here) so I'm not sure about the legality. Another option could be Zinc but I haven't tested it so I'm not sure how well it'll fit the bill. What would you recommend or suggest I check out? Any suggestion much appreciated EDIT: There's a few more discussions on mono usage (though no real conclusion): Here and Here EDIT2: Titanium could also fit the bill maybe, will check it out. Any more comments from anyone? Ben

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  • SharePoint 2010 HttpModule problem

    - by Chris W
    I'm trying to write an HttpModule to run on our SharePoint farm - essentially it will check whether the user is authenticated and if they are it will validate some info against another database and potentially redirect the user to sign a variety of usage agreements. Whenever I enable the module in the web.config I'm finding that SharePoint has issues rendering the page - it's almost like the CSS is not getting loaded as the page is devoid of any styling. As a test I've even tried an empty module - i.e. an empty init block so it's not even hooking up any code to any events and the same issue arises. At this point it's an empty class that just implements IHttpModule so it's not even my dodgy coding causing the issue! The module is in a class library that I've dropped in to the bin folder of the application it needs to run against. In the web.config of the app I've simply added an entry as below: <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="true"> ... (default stuff ommitted) <add name="SharePointAUP" type="SPModules.SharePointAUP" /> </modules> I must be missing something really obvious here as I've done exactly the same as every sample I've found and yet I'm getting this strange behaviour. Is there something extra I need to do to get SharePoint to play nice with a custom module?

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  • C++/CLI managed thread cleanup

    - by Guillermo Prandi
    Hi. I'm writing a managed C++/CLI library wrapper for the MySQL embedded server. The mysql C library requires me to call mysql_thread_init() for every thread that will be using it, and mysql_thread_end() for each thread that exits after using it. Debugging any given VB.Net project I can see at least seven threads; I suppose my library will see only one thread if VB doesn't explicitly create worker threads itself (any confirmations on that?). However, I need clients to my library to be able to create worker threads if they need to, so my library must be thread-aware to some degree. The first option I could think of is to expose some "EnterThread()" and "LeaveThread()" methods in my class, so the client code will explicitly call them at the beginning and before exiting their DoWork() method. This should work if (1) .Net doesn't "magically" create threads the user isn't aware of and (2) the user is careful enough to have the methods called in a try/finally structure of some sort. However, I don't like it very much to have the user handle things manually like that, and I wonder if I could give her a hand on that matter. In a pure Win32 C/C++ DLL I do have the DllMain DLL_THREAD_ATTACH and DLL_THREAD_DETACH pseudo-events, and I could use them for calling mysql_thread_init() and mysql_thread_end() as needed, but there seem to be no such thing in C++/CLI managed code. At the expense of some performance (not much, I think) I can use TLS for detecting the "usage from a new thread" case, but I can imagine no mechanism for the thread exiting case. So, my questions are: (1) could .net create application threads without the user being aware of them? and (2) is there any mechanism I could use similar to DLL_THREAD_ATTACH / DLL_THREAD_DETACH from managed C++/CLI? Thanks in advance.

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  • gcc: Do I need -D_REENTRANT with pthreads?

    - by stefanB
    On Linux (kernel 2.6.5) our build system calls gcc with -D_REENTRANT. Is this still required when using pthreads? How is it related to gcc -pthread option? I understand that I should use -pthread with pthreads, do I still need -D_REENTRANT? On a side note, is there any difference that you know off between the usage of REENTRANT between gcc 3.3.3 and gcc 4.x.x ? When I use -pthread gcc option I can see that _REENTRANT gets defined. Will omitting -D_REENTRANT from command line make any difference, for example could some objects be compiled without multithreaded support and then linked into binary that uses pthreads and will cause problems? I assume it should be ok just to use: g++ -pthread > echo | g++ -E -dM -c - > singlethreaded > echo | g++ -pthread -E -dM -c - > multithreaded > diff singlethreaded multithreaded 39a40 > #define _REENTRANT 1 We're compiling multiple static libraries and applications that link with the static libraries, both libraries and application use pthreads. I believe it was required at some stage in the past but want to know if it is still required. Googling hasn't returned any recent information mentioning -D_REENTRANT with pthreads. Could you point me to links or references discussing the use in recent version of kernel/gcc/pthread? Clarification: At the moment we're using -D_REENTRANT and -lpthread, I assume I can replace them with just g++ -pthread, looking at man gcc it sets the flags for both preprocessor and linker. Any thoughts?

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  • Do the ‘up to date’ guarantees for values of Java's final fields extend to indirect references?

    - by mattbh
    The Java language spec defines semantics of final fields in section 17.5: The usage model for final fields is a simple one. Set the final fields for an object in that object's constructor. Do not write a reference to the object being constructed in a place where another thread can see it before the object's constructor is finished. If this is followed, then when the object is seen by another thread, that thread will always see the correctly constructed version of that object's final fields. It will also see versions of any object or array referenced by those final fields that are at least as up-to-date as the final fields are. My question is - does the 'up-to-date' guarantee extend to the contents of nested arrays, and nested objects? An example scenario: Thread A constructs a HashMap of ArrayLists, then assigns the HashMap to final field 'myFinal' in an instance of class 'MyClass' Thread B sees a (non-synchronized) reference to the MyClass instance and reads 'myFinal', and accesses and reads the contents of one of the ArrayLists In this scenario, are the members of the ArrayList as seen by Thread B guaranteed to be at least as up to date as they were when MyClass's constructor completed? I'm looking for clarification of the semantics of the Java Memory Model and language spec, rather than alternative solutions like synchronization. My dream answer would be a yes or no, with a reference to the relevant text.

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  • Incoming connections from 2 different Internet connections

    - by RJClinton
    I am hosting a Gameserver on my Windows 2003 Server 32 Bit Server. Due to some limitations of my ISP, I have to take 2 Internet connections in order to satisfy my bandwidth requirement. I am facing serious problems here. The Internet is supplied using Wimax. I am given a POE and the RJ45 from both the POE (2 connections) are plugged into a Netgear 100mbps Switch and another RJ45 connects the server to the switch. I have tried to configure the IP addresses and gateway of both connections to the single NIC in the server. The IP series and the gateway of each Internet connection are very much different. I know that this is not the proper approach, because alternate gateways are meant to be only for backup in case of main gateway failure and the usage of the gateways depends upon the metric (correct me if I am wrong). I am planning to get a second PCI NIC so that I can connect each of the Internet connections into its respective NIC. If I use this approach, will I be able to accept connections on both NICs? Also, please suggest any other alternatives that I might use.

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