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• AppFabric caching's local cache isnt working for us... What are we doing wrong?

  - by Olly

  We are using appfabric as the 2ndlevel cache for an NHibernate asp.net application comprising a customer facing website and an admin website. They are both connected to the same cache so when admin updates something, the customer facing site is updated. It seems to be working OK - we have a CacheCLuster on a seperate server and all is well but we want to enable localcache to get better performance, however, it dosnt seem to be working. We have enabled it like this... bool UseLocalCache = int LocalCacheObjectCount = int.MaxValue; TimeSpan LocalCacheDefaultTimeout = TimeSpan.FromMinutes(3); DataCacheLocalCacheInvalidationPolicy LocalCacheInvalidationPolicy = DataCacheLocalCacheInvalidationPolicy.TimeoutBased; if (UseLocalCache) { configuration.LocalCacheProperties = new DataCacheLocalCacheProperties( LocalCacheObjectCount, LocalCacheDefaultTimeout, LocalCacheInvalidationPolicy ); // configuration.NotificationProperties = new DataCacheNotificationProperties(500, TimeSpan.FromSeconds(300)); } Initially we tried using a timeout invalidation policy (3mins) and our app felt like it was running faster. HOWEVER, we noticed that if we changed something in the admin site, it was immediatley updated in the live site. As we are using timeouts not notifications, this demonstrates that the local cache isnt being queried (or is, but is always missing). The cache.GetType().Name returns "LocalCache" - so the factory has made a local cache. Running "Get-Cache-Statistics MyCache" in PS on my dev environment (asp.net app running local from vs2008, cache cluster running on a seperate w2k8 machine) show a handful of Request Counts. However, on the Production environment, the Request Count increases dramaticaly. We tried following the method here to se the cache cliebt-server traffic... http://blogs.msdn.com/b/appfabriccat/archive/2010/09/20/appfabric-cache-peeking-into-client-amp-server-wcf-communication.aspx but the log file had nothing but the initial header in it - i.e no loggin either. I cant find anything in SO or Google. Have we done something wrong? Have we got a screwy install of AppFabric - we installed it via WebPlatform Installer - I think? (note: the IIS box running ASp.net isnt in yhe cluster - it is just the client). Any insights greatfully received!

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• Amazon Product API ResponseGroups and Default results

  - by aboxy

  A. In our application, most of the data we work with is stored as free text .i.e. there is no categorization done as of now. We are using openNLP libraries to make sense of the data(extract keywords/classify) and do a query to Amazon web services to pull the results of the query. We use searchindex=All and keywords=. Results are not always returned and we basically get 'AWS.ECommerceService.NoExactMatches' How to avoid that? 1) Is there a way to specify default results if no match found? e.g. Amazon carousel widget does that if the search query did not return results, it basically show some computer items. 2) Should I batch the request always and add another search criteria to every request? If my first criteria does not pull any results, we can be sure that our 2nd query will always pull results(possibly caching?) Here is one search criteria 'Open Circle Hoop Earrings Polished Stainless Steel Open Circle Hoop Earrings Polished Stainless Steel DiamondShark' This return no results via API. On Amazon site,I get alternative suggestions with some results which are pretty relevant. Is there a way to pull those results? B. We just need a thumbnail image and a title and description for our app. Which responseGroup is appropriate? We are using medium rt now but there is awful lot of information even with that responseGroup. Any help is appreciated. thanks

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• Loading a CSV file using jQuery GET returns the header but no data

  - by Cees Meijer

  When reading a CSV file from a server using the jQuery 'GET' function I do not get any data. When I look at the code using FireBug I can see the GET request is sent and the return value is '200 OK'. Also I see that the header is returned correctly so the request is definitely made, and data is returned. This is also what I see in Wireshark. Here I see the complete contents of the CSV file is returned as a standard HTTP response. But the actual data is not there in my script. Firebug shows an empty response and the 'success' function is never called. What could be wrong ? <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>New Web Project</title> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <script src="jquery.js" type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var csvData; $(document).ready(function() { $("#btnGET").click(function() { csvData = $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "http://www.mywebsite.com/data/sample_file.csv", dataType: "text/csv", success: function () { alert("done!"+ csvData.getAllResponseHeaders()) } }); }); }) </script> </head> <body> <h1>New Web Project Page</h1> <button id="btnGET">GET Data</button> </body> </html>

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• Dynamic editor upload into web page. Need advice

  - by Andrew Florko

  Hello everybody, I am writing intranet site for tracking employees science activities in organization. There lots of editable information on each personal page (science degree, publications & so on) so I upload editor per request (user clicks "edit" and modal dialog with html editor: set of textboxes/comboboxes/autocomplete features & validation logic appears). Editor is html layout that is wrapped with jquery dialog plugin + some logic, written as javascript functions that should be invoked from the callee page (onsubmit, validate, afterLoad editor events). There are also attributes (editor preferrable with and height) that are passed to callee page also. Currently I send these functions & attribute as ... function onsubmit() { }; function validate() { } var width = 640; var height = 800 ... code that is embedded into the request page. Function calls and editor markup wrap with jquery plugin completed in the callee page. It works, but I have some try { call editor event handler } catch { } stuff in callee page (because not every editor provides these functions) and some attributes (editor width & height for instance) that are loaded as variables declared in javascript. Please, suggest, is there a better approach to build & use custom editors for my situation. Thank you in advance!

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• How do I use HTML5's localStorage in a Google Chrome extension?

  - by davidkennedy85

  I am trying to develop an extension that will work with Awesome New Tab Page. I've followed the author's advice to the letter, but it doesn't seem like any of the script I add to my background page is being executed at all. Here's my background page: <script> var info = { poke: 1, width: 1, height: 1, path: "widget.html" } chrome.extension.onRequestExternal.addListener(function(request, sender, sendResponse) { if (request === "mgmiemnjjchgkmgbeljfocdjjnpjnmcg-poke") { chrome.extension.sendRequest( sender.id, { head: "mgmiemnjjchgkmgbeljfocdjjnpjnmcg-pokeback", body: info, } ); } }); function initSelectedTab() { localStorage.setItem("selectedTab", "Something"); } initSelectedTab(); </script> Here is manifest.json: { "update_url": "http://clients2.google.com/service/update2/crx", "background_page": "background.html", "name": "Test Widget", "description": "Test widget for mgmiemnjjchgkmgbeljfocdjjnpjnmcg.", "icons": { "128": "icon.png" }, "version": "0.0.1" } Here is the relevant part of widget.html: <script> var selectedTab = localStorage.getItem("selectedTab"); document.write(selectedTab); </script> Every time, the browser just displays null. The local storage isn't being set at all, which makes me think the background page is completely disconnected. Do I have something wired up incorrectly?

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• DNS protocol message example

  - by virtual-lab

  hello there, I am trying to figure out how to send out DNS messages from an application socket adapter to a DNSBL. I spent the last two days understanding the basics, including experimenting with WireShark to catch an example of message exchanged. Now I would like to query the DNS without using dig or host command (I'm using Ubuntu); how can I perform this action at low level, without the help of these tools in wrapping the request in a proper DNS message format? How the message should be post it? Hex or String? Thanks in advance for any help. Regards Alessandro Ilardo Comment added I am investigating on JDev and Oracle SOA. The platform provides a Socket Adapter which simply apply a transformation (XSLT) and send the message straight to the socket. How the payload parameters (ex. the host I'm looking up) are wrapped within the message is left to the developer. So basically I have an idea on how the all DNS message is structured, but rather than put everything on JDev stright away I'd like to make some tests on my own just to make sure I got a valid message format. So, I am not using any specific language (I don't even understand why they moved my question from serverfault) and I don't want to use any tools which would hide part of the message, such as the header. I know they work well btw. I guess this stuff has something to do with packet injection. Someone suggested me to use telnet, but I've only used for SMTP or HTTP, I haven't got a clue on how it works for DNS request. Does it make more sense now?

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• NLB and Web Deploy

  - by asgerhallas

  I have two webservers in a cluster serving a web application. Using MS Web Deploy to push a new version of the application to one server, and then again to synchronize the files to the other server in the cluster. It seems to be the most ordinary thing to do. But wouldn't there be a problemm, when one server is deployed with the new version, and the other is not yet finished. Will it not cause troubles, when a page loaded with the new version makes a webservice request and the balancer sends the request to the server with the old version? What's the best way to avoid this? I thought about scripting a drainstop of the server, that we deploy to, and make sure only one server is running at a time. But I can't find anyone else, who seems to have written about such a solution. And guess that it doesn't scale very well too. Another solution could be to shut down all servers when updating. But that doesn't seems very clever. Any suggestions?

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• Efficient way to maintain a sorted list of access counts in Python

  - by David

  Let's say I have a list of objects. (All together now: "I have a list of objects.") In the web application I'm writing, each time a request comes in, I pick out up to one of these objects according to unspecified criteria and use it to handle the request. Basically like this: def handle_request(req): for h in handlers: if h.handles(req): return h return None Assuming the order of the objects in the list is unimportant, I can cut down on unnecessary iterations by keeping the list sorted such that the most frequently used (or perhaps most recently used) objects are at the front. I know this isn't something to be concerned about - it'll make only a miniscule, undetectable difference in the app's execution time - but debugging the rest of the code is driving me crazy and I need a distraction :) so I'm asking out of curiosity: what is the most efficient way to maintain the list in sorted order, descending, by the number of times each handler is chosen? The obvious solution is to make handlers a list of (count, handler) pairs, and each time a handler is chosen, increment the count and resort the list. def handle_request(req): for h in handlers[:]: if h[1].handles(req): h[0] += 1 handlers.sort(reverse=True) return h[1] return None But since there's only ever going to be at most one element out of order, and I know which one it is, it seems like some sort of optimization should be possible. Is there something in the standard library, perhaps, that is especially well-suited to this task? Or some other data structure? (Even if it's not implemented in Python) Or should/could I be doing something completely different?

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• Getting a UIImage from MySQL using PHP and jSON

  - by Daniel

  I'm developing a little news reader that retrieves the info from a website by doing a POST request to a URL. The response is a jSON object with the unread-news. E.g. the last news on the App has a timeStamp of "2013-03-01". When the user refreshes the table, it POSTS "domain.com/api/api.php?newer-than=2013-03-01". The api.php script goes to the MySQL database and fetches all the news posted after 2013-03-01 and prints them json_encoded. This is // do something to get the data in an array echo $array_of_fetched_data; for example the response would be [{"title": "new app is coming to the market", "text": "lorem ipsum dolor sit amet...", image: XXX}] the App then gets the response and parses it, obtaining an NSDictionary and adds it to a Core Data db. NSDictionary* obtainedNews = [NSJSONSerialization JSONObjectWithData:responseData options:kNilOptions error:&error]; My question is: How can I add an image to the MySQL database, store it, pass it using jSON trough a POST HTTP Request and then interpret it as an UIImage. It's clear that to store an UIImage in CoreData, they must be transform into/from NSData. How can I pass the NSData back and forth to a MySQL db using php and jSON? How should I upload the image to the db? (Serialized, as a BLOB, etc)

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• HTTPS post - what I'm doing wrong?

  - by evilone

  Hi, I'm making requests to the webaddress to get XML files throught the HTTPS connection. But this connection works like 50%. In most cases it fails. Usual error is "socket error #10060". Or "Error connecting with SSL. EOF was observed that violates the protocol". What I'm doing wrong? function SendRequest(parameters: string): IXMLDocument; var sPostData: TStringList; sHttpSocket: TIdHTTP; sshSocketHandler: TIdSSLIOHandlerSocketOpenSSL; resStream: TStringStream; xDoc: IXMLDocument; begin sPostData := TStringList.Create; try sPostData.Add('add some parameter to post' + '&'); sPostData.Add('add some parameter to post' + '&'); sPostData.Add('add some parameter to post' + '&'); sPostData.Add(parameters); sHttpSocket := TIdHTTP.Create; sshSocketHandler := TIdSSLIOHandlerSocketOpenSSL.Create; sHttpSocket.IOHandler := sshSocketHandler; sHttpSocket.Request.ContentType := 'application/x-www-form-urlencoded'; sHttpSocket.Request.Method := 'POST'; resStream := TStringStream.Create; sHttpSocket.Post(Self.sUrl, sPostData, resStream); xDoc := CreateXMLDoc; xDoc.LoadFromStream(resStream); Result := xDoc; resStream.Free; sHttpSocket.Free; sshSocketHandler.Free; sPostData.Free; except on E: Exception do begin TCommon.ErrorLog('errorLog.txt', DateTimeToStr(Now) + ' ' + E.Message); end end; end; Maybe I can do this in another way, that works like 100%, when internet connection is available? Regards, evilone

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• What is the difference between .get() and .fetch(1)

  - by AutomatedTester

  I have written an app and part of it is uses a URL parser to get certain data in a ReST type manner. So if you put /foo/bar as the path it will find all the bar items and if you put /foo it will return all items below foo So my app has a query like data = Paths.all().filter('path =', self.request.path).get() Which works brilliantly. Now I want to send this to the UI using templates {% for datum in data %} <div class="content"> <h2>{{ datum.title }}</h2> {{ datum.content }} </div> {% endfor %} When I do this I get data is not iterable error. So I updated the Django to {% for datum in data.all %} which now appears to pull more data than I was giving it somehow. It shows all data in the datastore which is not ideal. So I removed the .all from the Django and changed the datastore query to data = Paths.all().filter('path =', self.request.path).fetch(1) which now works as I intended. In the documentation it says The db.get() function fetches an entity from the datastore for a Key (or list of Keys). So my question is why can I iterate over a query when it returns with fetch() but can't with get(). Where has my understanding gone wrong?

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• Perl 500 internal server error. Something wrong with my code.

  - by Nitish

  I get a 500 internal server error when I try to run the code below in a web server which supports perl: #! /usr/bin/perl use LWP; my $ua = LWP::UserAgent->new; $ua->agent("TestApp/0.1 "); $ua->env_proxy(); my $req = HTTP::Request->new(POST => 'http://www.google.com/loc/json'); $req->content_type('application/jsonrequest'); $req->content('{ "cell_towers": [{"location_area_code": "55000", "mobile_network_code": "95", "cell_id": "20491", "mobile_country_code": "404"}], "version": "1.1.0", "request_address": "true"}'); my $res = $ua->request($req); if ($res->is_success) { print $res->content,"\n"; } else { print $res->status_line, "\n"; return undef; } But there is no error when I run the code below: #! /usr/bin/perl use CGI::Carp qw(fatalsToBrowser); print "Content-type: text/html\n\n"; print "<HTML>\n"; print "<HEAD><TITLE>Hello World!</TITLE></HEAD>\n"; print "<BODY>\n"; print "<H2>Hello World!</H2> <br /> \n"; foreach $key (sort keys(%ENV)) { print "$key = $ENV{$key}<p>" ; } print "</BODY>\n"; print "</HTML>\n"; So I think there is some problem with my code. When I run the first perl script in my local machine with the -wc command, it says that the syntax is OK. Help me please.

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• Saving tags into a database table in CakePHP

  - by Cameron

  I have the following setup for my CakePHP app: Posts id title content Topics id title Topic_Posts id topic_id post_id So basically I have a table of Topics (tags) that are all unique and have an id. And then they can be attached to post using the Topic_Posts join table. When a user creates a new post they will fill in the topics by typing them in to a textarea separated by a comma which will then save these into the Topics table if they do not already exist and then save the references into the Topic_posts table. I have the models set up like so: Post model: class Post extends AppModel { public $name = 'Post'; public $hasAndBelongsToMany = array( 'Topic' => array('with' => 'TopicPost') ); } Topic model: class Topic extends AppModel { public $hasMany = array( 'TopicPost' ); } TopicPost model: class TopicPost extends AppModel { public $belongsTo = array( 'Topic', 'Post' ); } And for the New post method I have this so far: public function add() { if ($this->request->is('post')) { //$this->Post->create(); if ($this->Post->saveAll($this->request->data)) { // Redirect the user to the newly created post (pass the slug for performance) $this->redirect(array('controller'=>'posts','action'=>'view','id'=>$this->Post->id)); } else { $this->Session->setFlash('Server broke!'); } } } As you can see I have used saveAll but how do I go about dealing with the Topic data?

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• .NET HttpModule does not send form variables to PHP file on RewritePath()

  - by jammus

  Hello friends. We have an application running on IIS 6 which uses a custom HttpModule to rewrite urls. This works great (well done us) except in the case where the Context.RewritePath destination is a .php file. The php file is executed as expected, however the $_POST collection is empty meaning it cannot access any forms which are submitted to rewritten urls. The problem does not exist when rewriting to .aspx files as the Request.Form collection is fine. My question therefore has two parts: Why is the $_POST collection not being populated? Is there a way to ensure that the .php $_POST collection is correctly populated after a rewrite? I don't have much to show in the way of code. There's just a simple: context.RewritePath(newPath); once the HttpModule has figured out where to send the request. Edit: Interestingly, if I do var_dump(file_get_contents('php://input')); in the PHP file (method described here) the contents of the form is displayed. So the data is reaching the PHP script but not the $_POST array.

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• Java: Tracking a user login session - Session EJBs vs HTTPSession

  - by bguiz

  If I want to keep track of a conversational state with each client using my web application, which is the better alternative - a Session Bean or a HTTP Session - to use? Using HTTP Session: //request is a variable of the class javax.servlet.http.HttpServletRequest //UserState is a POJO HttpSession session = request.getSession(true); UserState state = (UserState)(session.getAttribute("UserState")); if (state == null) { //create default value .. } String uid = state.getUID(); //now do things with the user id Using Session EJB: In the implementation of ServletContextListener registered as a Web Application Listener in WEB-INF/web.xml: //UserState NOT a POJO this this time, it is //the interface of the UserStateBean Stateful Session EJB @EJB private UserState userStateBean; public void contextInitialized(ServletContextEvent sce) { ServletContext servletContext = sce.getServletContext(); servletContext.setAttribute("UserState", userStateBean); ... In a JSP: public void jspInit() { UserState state = (UserState)(getServletContext().getAttribute("UserState")); ... } Elsewhere in the body of the same JSP: String uid = state.getUID(); //now do things with the user id It seems to me that the they are almost the same, with the main difference being that the UserState instance is being transported in the HttpRequest.HttpSession in the former, and in a ServletContext in the case of the latter. Which of the two methods is more robust, and why?

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• Calling web service from seems to hang

  - by anothershrubery

  I am trying to call an asmx web service from an Android app. Just literally started some Android development today. I've been following various solutions I have found on the net and on here and it seems it is more difficult than anticipated. I have tried various solutions and using KSoap2 seems to be the easiest way to implement this, well it would be if I could get it working. I have the following code which works up until a point: private class CallWebService extends AsyncTask<Void, Void, Void> { private static final String SOAP_ACTION = "http://tempuri.org/GetUser"; private static final String METHOD_NAME = "GetUser"; private static final String NAMESPACE = "http://tempuri.org/"; private static final String URL = "http://160.10.1.79:59315/Service1.asmx"; TextView tv; @Override protected Void doInBackground(Void... params) { tv=(TextView)findViewById(R.id.txtMessage); try { SoapObject request = new SoapObject(NAMESPACE, METHOD_NAME); SoapSerializationEnvelope envelope = new SoapSerializationEnvelope(SoapEnvelope.VER11); envelope.dotNet=true; envelope.setOutputSoapObject(request); HttpTransportSE androidHttpTransport = new HttpTransportSE(URL); androidHttpTransport.call(SOAP_ACTION, envelope); Object result = (Object)envelope.getResponse(); tv.setText(result.toString()); } catch (Exception e) { tv.setText(e.getMessage()); } return null; } } It seems to hang at the line androidHttpTransport.call(SOAP_ACTION, envelope); Any ideas why? Is this the correct approach? Should I be looking in another direction?

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• How would a user stay logged in to a REST-based website?

  - by unforgiven3

  A year or so ago I asked this question: Can you help me understand this? “Common REST Mistakes: Sessions are irrelevant”. My question was essentially this: Okay, I get that HTTP authentication is done automatically on every message - but how? Is the username/password sent with every request? Doesn't that just increase attack surface area? I feel like I'm missing part of the puzzle. The answers I received made perfect sense in the context of a mobile (iPhone, Android, WP7) app - when talking to a REST service, the app would just send user credentials along with each request. That worked great for me. But now, I would like to better understand how one would secure a REST-like website, like StackOverflow itself or something like Reddit. How would things work if it was a user logged in via a web browser instead of logged in via an iPhone app? What happens when a user logs in? Are the credentials saved in the browser somehow? How would the browser know what credentials to send with subsequent REST requests? What if it's a JavaScript call to a webservice? How would the JavaScript call include user credentials? I'll be quite frank: my understanding of security when it comes to websites is pretty limited. I enjoyed working with REST services from an app perspective, but now I want to try and build a website that is based on REST principles, and I'm finding myself to be pretty lost. If there is anything in the above question that is unclear that you'd like me to clarify, please leave a comment and I'll address it.

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• Apache mod_rewrite - forward domain root to subdirectory

  - by DuFace

  I have what I originally assumed to be a simple problem. I am using shared hosting for my website (so I don't have access to the Apache configuration) and have only been given a single folder to store all my content in. This is all well and good but it means that all my subdomains must have their virtual document root's inside public_html, meaning they effectively become a folder on my main domain. What I'd like to do is organise my public_html something like this: public_html/ www/ index.php ... sub1/ index.php ... some_library/ ... This way, all my web content is still in public_html but only a small fraction of it will be served to the client. I can easily achieve this for all the subdomains, but it's the primary domain that I'm having issues with. I created a .htaccess file in public_html with the following: Options +SymLinksIfOwnerMatch # I'm not allowed to use FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/www [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /www/$1 [L] This works fairly well, but for some strange reason www.example.com/stuff is translated into a request for www.example.com/www/stuff and hence a 404 error is given. It was my understanding that unless an 'R' flag was specified, mod_rewrite was purely internal so I can't understand why the request is generated as that implies (to me at least) redirection. I assumed this would be a trivial problem to solve as all I actually want to do is forward all requests for the root of www.example.com to a subdirectory, but I've spent hours searching for answers and none are quite correct. I find it difficult to believe I'm the only person to have this issue. I apologise if this question has been answered on here before, I did search and trawl but couldn't find an appropriate answer. Please could someone shed some light on this?

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• Lightweight HTTP application/server for static content

  - by PartlyCloudy

  Hi, I am in need of a scalable and performant HTTP application/server that will be used for static file serving/uploading. So I only need support for GET and PUT operations. However, there are a few extra features that I need: Custom authentication: I need to check credentials against a database for each request. Thus I must be able to integrate propietary database interaction. Support for signed access keys: The access to resources via PUT should be signed using a key like http://uri/?key=foo The key then contains information about the request like md5(user + path + secret) which allows me to block unwanted requests. The application/server should allow me to check for this. Performance: I'd like to avoid piping content as much as possible. Otherwise the whole application could be implemented in Perl/etc. in a few lines as CGI. Perlbal (in webserver mode) looks nice, however the single-threaded model does not fit with my database lookup and it does also not support query strings. Lighttp/Nginx/… have some modules for these tasks, however it is not feasible putting everything together without ending up writing own extensions/modules. So how would you solve this? Are there other leightweight webservers available for this? Should I implement an application inside of a webserver (i.e. CGI). How can I avoid/speed up piping content between the webserver and my application. Thanks in advance!

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• Strange behavior with ajax call complete in JavaScript modules

  - by user2598794

  I have 3 simple modules with JavaScript code and JQuery ajax call. First module lots.js: var Lots = (function ($) { var self = this; var processIsRunning; return { getLots: function (lotsUrl) { var items = []; self.processIsRunning = true; var request = $.ajax({ url: lotsUrl, type: 'POST', success: function (data) { //some code } }); $.when(request).done(function() { //some code self.processIsRunning = false; }); }, isComplete: function () { return !self.processIsRunning; } }; }(jQuery)); Module bids.js: var Bids = (function ($) { return { makeBids: function (bidUrl) { //some code } }; }(jQuery)); Module app.js which bundles all together: var App = (function () { var lots_url = null; var bid_url = null; var self = this; return { if (!self.lots_url) { self.lots_url = lotsUrl; } GetLots: function (lotsUrl) { Lots.getLots(self.lots_url); }, MakeBids: function makeBid(bidUrl) { //some code var isComp = Lots.isComplete(); while (!isComp) { isComp = Lots.isComplete(); } Bids.makeBids(self.bid_url); } }; }()); But in the 'while' loop I always get 'isComplete=false'. In debug I see that 'processIsRunning' in Lots module is always true. What's the problem?

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• Django - partially validating form

  - by aeter

  I'm new to Django, trying to process some forms. I have this form for entering information (creating a new ad) in one template: class Ad(models.Model): ... category = models.CharField("Category",max_length=30, choices=CATEGORIES) sub_category = models.CharField("Subcategory",max_length=4, choices=SUBCATEGORIES) location = models.CharField("Location",max_length=30, blank=True) title = models.CharField("Title",max_length=50) ... I validate it with "is_valid()" just fine. Basically for the second validation (another template) I want to validate only against "category" and "sub_category": In another template, I want to use 2 fields from the same form ("category" and "sub_category") for filtering information - and now the "is_valid()" method would not work correctly, cause it validates the entire form, and I need to validate only 2 fields. I have tried with the following: ... if request.method == 'POST': # If a filter for data has been submitted: form = AdForm(request.POST) try: form = form.clean() category = form.category sub_category = form.sub_category latest_ads_list = Ad.objects.filter(category=category) except ValidationError: latest_ads_list = Ad.objects.all().order_by('pub_date') else: latest_ads_list = Ad.objects.all().order_by('pub_date') form = AdForm() ... but it doesn't work. How can I validate only the 2 fields category and sub_category?

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• How can I prevent double file uploading with Amazon S3?

  - by Tony

  I decided to use Amazon S3 for document storage for an app I am creating. One issue I run into is while I need to upload the files to S3, I need to create a document object in my app so my users can perform CRUD actions. One solution is to allow for a double upload. A user uploads a document to the server my Rails app lives on. I validate and create the object, then pass it on to S3. One issue with this is progress indicators become more complicated. Using most out-of-the-box plugins would show the client that file has finished uploading because it is on my server, but then there would be a decent delay when the file was going from my server to S3. This also introduces unnecessary bandwidth (at least it does not seem necessary) The other solution I am thinking about is to upload the file directly to S3 with one AJAX request, and when that is successful, make a second AJAX request to store the object in my database. One issue here is that I would have to validate the file after it is uploaded which means I have to run some clean up code in S3 if the validation fails. Both seem equally messy. Does anyone have something more elegant working that they would not mind sharing? I would imagine this is a common situation with "cloud storage" being quite popular today. Maybe I am looking at this wrong.

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• XMLHttpRequest POST Data Size

  - by usurper

  Hi, Is there a size limit to a XHR POST request? I am using the POST method for saving textdata into MySQL using PHP script and the data is cut off. Firebug sends me the following message: ... Firebug request size limit has been reached by Firebug. ... This is my code for sending the data: function makeXHR(recordData) { xmlhttp = createXHR(); var body = "q=" + encodeURIComponent(recordData); xmlhttp.open("POST", "insertRowData.php", true); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-length", body.length); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = function() { if(xmlhttp.readyState == 4 && xmlhttp.status == 200) { //alert(xmlhttp.responseText); alert("Records were saved successfully!"); } } xmlhttp.send(body); } The only solution I can think of is splitting the data and making a queue of XHR requests but I don't like it. Is there another way?

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• Need Help with .NET OpenId HttpHandler

  - by Mark E

  I'm trying to use a single HTTPHandler to authenticate a user's open id and receive a claimresponse. The initial authentication works, but the claimresponse does not. The error I receive is "This webpage has a redirect loop." What am I doing wrong? public class OpenIdLogin : IHttpHandler { private HttpContext _context = null; public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { _context = context; var openid = new OpenIdRelyingParty(); var response = openid.GetResponse(); if (response == null) { // Stage 2: user submitting Identifier openid.CreateRequest(context.Request.Form["openid_identifier"]).RedirectToProvider(); } else { // Stage 3: OpenID Provider sending assertion response switch (response.Status) { case AuthenticationStatus.Authenticated: //FormsAuthentication.RedirectFromLoginPage(response.ClaimedIdentifier, false); string identifier = response.ClaimedIdentifier; //****** TODO only proceed if we don't have the user's extended info in the database ************** ClaimsResponse claim = response.GetExtension<ClaimsResponse>(); if (claim == null) { //IAuthenticationRequest req = openid.CreateRequest(identifier); IAuthenticationRequest req = openid.CreateRequest(Identifier.Parse(identifier)); var fields = new ClaimsRequest(); fields.Email = DemandLevel.Request; req.AddExtension(fields); req.RedirectingResponse.Send(); //Is this correct? } else { context.Response.ContentType = "text/plain"; context.Response.Write(claim.Email); //claim.FullName; } break; case AuthenticationStatus.Canceled: //TODO break; case AuthenticationStatus.Failed: //TODO break; } } }

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• How to get around LazyInitializationException in scheduled jobs?

  - by Shreerang

  I am working on a J2EE server application which is deployed on Tomcat. I use Spring source as MVC framework and Hibernate as ORM provider. My object model has lot of Lazy relationships (dependent objects are fetched on request). The high level design is like Service level methods call a few DAO methods to perform database operation. The service method is called either from the Flex UI or as a scheduled job. When it is called from Flex UI, the service method works fine i.e. it fetches some objects using DAO methods and even Lazy loading works. This is possible by the use of OpenSessionInViewFilter configured with the UI servlet. But when the same service method is called as scheduled Job, it gives LazyInitializationException. I can not configure OpenSessionInViewFilter because there is no servlet or UI request associated with that. I tried configuring Transaction around the scheduled job method so that service method starts a transaction and all the DAO methods participate in that same transaction, hoping that the transaction will remain active and hibernate session will be available. But it does not work. Please suggest if anyone has ever been able to get such a configuration working. If needed, I can post the Hibernate configuration and log messages. Thanks a lot for help! Shreerang

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