Search Results

Search found 9271 results on 371 pages for 'drop handler'.

Page 25/371 | < Previous Page | 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32  | Next Page >

• How to deal with meta data with drop downs?

  - by Mangesh Jogade

  Please advise how to handle following scenario in web application. I have a drop-down which is populated using meta-data from table A. When form is submitted this drop down data is stored in table B. While displaying existing data, it is populated using data stored in table B. While copying existing data, it is copied using data stored in table B. I want to achieve following goals: While displaying existing data I must display data irrespective of current meta data (to explain, even if some options are removed from metadata I still display them). When I copy existing data only current data should be copied(that is if some options are removed from metadata I should not copy them). I understand that I can do this by scanning metadata every time I copy existing data, however if there are thousands of such drop down exist, it is definitely not desirable to scan complete metadata for every drop down. How can I handle such situation in web application?

  Read the article

• Http Hanlder must be reset with each deployment. How can I add this functionality to the web.config

  - by user42942

  My application is a dotnet 4 hybrid - MVC in some areas, web forms in others. This application was recently upgraded to dotnet 4 and includes a lot of older code and some mismatched parts. Unfortunately it includes a telerik component that requires me to run the Application pool in classic mode. In order to fix this (in IIS7) I have to add a handler mapping to the IIS configuration. This mapping is basically a wildcard mapping that points the wildcard path "*" to the %windir%\Microsoft.NET\Framework64\v4.0.30319\aspnet_isapi.dll. The problem I am running into is this: For some reason this mapping gets dropped when deploying the site. So, can I add the functionality of this mapping to the web config? If so, How? Or is there another solution to make this manually added mapping "sticky" so that it remains in place during and after a deployment? (I am also asking this on StackOverflow, as I'm not sure if this should be a coding question or a Server question)

  Read the article

• How do I make a Data Validation drop-down exclude blanks?

  - by Iszi

  Related: How can I use non-adjacent cells on another sheet for a Data Validation drop-down, and only show non-blank values? For now, I've worked around the above problem by re-arranging my sheet so all the Data Validation Source cells are in one range. I'm leaving the above question open though, because I think it still poses an interesting problem. However, the issue now is that the Data Validation drop-down isn't working in the way I expected it to (and how I believe others are telling me it should). Even though I've got everything into one named range, Excel still shows blanks in a drop-down that references that range. Setup: Sheet 1 A1= (blank) B1= Header A2= 1 B2= Value1 A3= 2 B3= Value2 A4= 3 B4= Value3 A5= 4 B5= (empty) A6= 5 B6= (empty) A7= 6 B7= (empty) Sheet1!B2:B7 is named Validation Sheet2!A1 is set to use Data Validation with a Source =Validation, and in-cell drop-down. The drop-down in Sheet2!A1 shows: Value1 Value2 Value3 . . . (Dots represent blank lines) How can I get rid of these blank lines in the in-cell drop-down, while still including Sheet1!B5:B7 in the Data Validation Source? Note: I nuked the sheet, and tried it again without column A from Sheet1 (putting values from column B in the above example into column A), and it worked fine. Adding Column A back though, brought the blanks back into the Data Validation drop-down. What do I need to do to keep column A as I want it and keep the in-cell drop-down clean?

  Read the article

• Trouble pre-populating drop down and textarea from MySQL Database

  - by Tony

  I am able to successfully pre-populate my questions using the following code: First Name: <input type="text" name="first_name" size="30" maxlength="20" value="' . $row[2] . '" /><br /> However, when I try to do the same for a drop down box and a textarea box, nothing is pre-populated from the database, even though there is actual content in the database. This is the code I'm using for the drop down and textarea, respectively: <?php echo ' <form action ="edit_contact.php" method="post"> <div class="contactfirstcolumn"> Prefix: <select name = "prefix" value="' . $row[0] . '" /> <option value="blank">--</option> <option value="Dr">Dr.</option> <option value="Mr">Mr.</option> <option value="Mrs">Mrs.</option> <option value="Ms">Ms.</option> </select><br />'; ?> AND Contact Description:<textarea id = "contactdesc" name="contactdesc" rows="3" cols="50" value="' . $row[20] . '" /></textarea><br /><br /> It's important to note that I am not receiving any errors. The form loads fine, however without the data for the drop down and textarea fields. Thanks! Tony

  Read the article

• Updating Multiple Drop-Down Lists in AjaxTags

  - by Berin

  I'm using AjaxTags as a defined set of JSP tags to facilitate AJAX programming, saving me from some heavy lifting. The project is in trial mode, so I may not adopt the technology and write my own solution. Here's what I'm running into (code abbreviated) I have a drop-down list that defines an item that populates numerous other drop-down lists. <form> ... <select id="item1" name="item1"> <c:forEach items="${list1}" var="item"> <option value="${item}">${item}</option> </c:forEach> </select> <select id="item2" name="items2"></select> <select id="item3" name="items3"></select> ... </form> <ajax:select source="item1" target="item2" baseUrl="${pageContext.request.contextPath}/doAction.view" parameters="action1 = {item}" /> <ajax:select source="item1" target="item3" baseUrl="${pageContext.request.contextPath}/doAction.view" parameters="action2 = {item}" /> The code above works with my back-end, initiating a call to a servlet class that is listening for calls, parses the parameter and takes action based upon the name of the parameter passed. The problem comes from adding the second ajax:select tag above. An action in drop-down "item 1" only causes "item 3" to be populated with new values. What I want is for an action in "item 1" to populate "item 2" and "item 3" (and 4, 5, 6...). Has anyone else used AjaxTags (ajaxtags.sourceforge.net) and solved a similar solution? Environment Details: Tomcat 5.5.27, Spring 2.0.8, Struts 1.2.9, Java 6

  Read the article

• ASP.net drop down dynamically styling and then remembering the styles on aborted submit

  - by peacedog

  So, I've got an ASP drop down list (this is .net 2.0). I'm binding it with data. Basically, when the page loads and it's not a post back we'll fetch record data, bind all the drop downs, and set them to their appropriate values (strictly speaking we: initialize page with basic set of data from DB, bind drop downs from DB, fetch actual record data from DB, set drown downs to appropriate settings at this time). What I want to do is selectively style the list options. So the database returns 3 items: ID, Text, and a flag indicating whether I the record is "active" (and I'll style appropriately). It's easy enough to do and I've done it. My problem is what happens when a form submission is halted. We have slightly extended the Page class and created an AddError() method, which will create a list of errors from failed business rule checks and then display them in a ValidationSummary. It works something like this, in the submit button's click event: CheckBizRules(); if(Page.IsValid) { SaveData(); } If any business rule check fails, the Page will not be valid. The problem is, when the page re-renders (viewsate is enabled, but no data is rebound) my beautiful conditional styling is now sadly gone, off to live in the land of the missing socks. I need to preserve it. I was hoping to avoid another DB call here (e.g. getting the list data back from the DB again if the page isn't valid, just for purposes of re-styling the list). But it's not the end of the world if that's my course of action. I was hoping someone might have an alternative suggestion. I couldn't think of how to phrase this question better, if anyone has any suggestions or needs clarification don't hesitate to get it, by force if need be. ;)

  Read the article

• problem with drag and drop for the winform using c#

  - by karthik

  I dont have the title bar in my winform, so i need to code drag and drop for the entire form. I am using the below code to do it, which works fine. I have two panels in my form, PanelA and PanelB. During the startup i show PanelA where the drag and drop works perfectly. Later when the user clicks the button in PannelA, i need to make PanelA visible false and show the PanelB My drag and drop is not working when the PanelB is loaded in form. Whats the problem here ? private void SerialPortScanner_MouseUp(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { this.drag = false; } private void SerialPortScanner_MouseDown(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { this.drag = true; this.start_point = new Point(e.X, e.Y); } private void SerialPortScanner_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if (this.drag) { Point p1 = new Point(e.X, e.Y); Point p2 = this.PointToScreen(p1); Point p3 = new Point(p2.X - this.start_point.X, p2.Y - this.start_point.Y); this.Location = p3; } }

  Read the article

• What should I do with an over-bloated select-box/drop-down

  - by Tristan Havelick

  All web developers run into this problem when the amount of data in their project grows, and I have yet to see a definitive, intuitive best practice for solving it. When you start a project, you often create forms with tags to help pick related objects for one-to-many relationships. For instance, I might have a system with Neighbors and each Neighbor belongs to a Neighborhood. In version 1 of the application I create an edit user form that has a drop down for selecting users, that simply lists the 5 possible neighborhoods in my geographically limited application. In the beginning, this works great. So long as I have maybe 100 records or less, my select box will load quickly, and be fairly easy to use. However, lets say my application takes off and goes national. Instead of 5 neighborhoods I have 10,000. Suddenly my little drop-down takes forever to load, and once it loads, its hard to find your neighborhood in the massive alphabetically sorted list. Now, in this particular situation, having hierarchical data, and letting users drill down using several dynamically generated drop downs would probably work okay. However, what is the best solution when the objects/records being selected are not hierarchical in nature? In the past, of done this with a popup with a search box, and a list, but this seems clunky and dated. In today's web 2.0 world, what is a good way to find one object amongst many for ones forms? I've considered using an Ajaxifed search box, but this seems to work best for free text, and falls apart a little when the data to be saved is just a reference to another object or record. Feel free to cite specific libraries with generic solutions to this problem, or simply share what you have done in your projects in a more general way

  Read the article

• document.getElementById returns null for my drop-down select menu

  - by tucson

  I am trying to create a drop-down select menu with custom css (similar to the drop-down selection of language at http://translate.google.com/#). I have current html code: <ul id="Select"> <li> <select id="myId" onmouseover="mopen('options')" onmouseout="mclosetime()"> <div id="options" onmouseover="mcancelclosetime()" onmouseout="mclosetime()"> <option value="1" selected="selected">One</option> <option value="2">Two</option> <option value="3">Three</option> </div> </select> </li> </ul> and the Javascript: function mopen(id) { // cancel close timer mcancelclosetime(); // close old layer if(ddmenuitem) ddmenuitem.style.visibility = 'hidden'; // get new layer and show it ddmenuitem = document.getElementById(id); ddmenuitem.style.visibility = 'visible'; } But document.getElementById returns null. Though if I use the code with a div element that does not contain a select list the document.getElementById(id) returns proper div value. How do I fix this? or is there a better way to create drop-down select menu like http://translate.google.com ?

  Read the article

• HTML5 Drag and Drop styles not displaying on Windows Server 2003

  - by NoR

  I'm working on a file upload utility based on Valum's Ajax-Uploader. The idea is similar to the Gmail attachment process. The user should be able to drag a file from the desktop into the browser window and onto the file upload area to get it to upload. This works fine in the browsers that support this functionality (Firefox 3.6+, Chrome 7+). The problem I'm running into are the styles that should be re-drawn when the user: Drags the file anywhere in the browser Drags the file into the upload area I have tested in the exact same browser versions on WinXP, Vista, and Win7. The appropriate styles are redrawn. However, in Windows Server 2003, they do not. In Win2003, when I inspect the div that should be redrawn via Firebug, the "drop-area" and "drop-area-active" classes are applied correctly. Firebug even shows the correct style declarations, but the changes are never visible. The only difference between FF and Chrome that I'm able to spot is that in Chrome, the "drop-area-active" style is displayed for a split second when the user drops the file. I'm not positive that it is a Windows2003 issue, but that's the only OS in which I'm able to recreate the bug.

  Read the article

• Why did Intel drop the Itanium?

  - by Cole Johnson

  I was reading up on the history of the computer and I came along the IA-64 (Itanium) processors. They sounded really interesting and I was confused as to why Intel would decide to drop them. The ability to choose explicitly what 2 instructions you wanted to run in that cycle is a great idea, especially when writing your program in assembly, for example, a faster bootloader. The hundreds of registers should be convincing for any assembly programmer. You could essentially store all the functions variables in the registers if it doesn't call any other ones. The ability to do instructions like this: (qp) xor r1 = r2, r3 ; r1 = r2 XOR r3 (qp) xor r1 = (imm8), r3 ; r1 = (imm8) XOR r3 versus having to do: ; eax = r1 ; ebx = r2 ; ecx = r3 mov eax, ebx ; first put r2 into r1 xor eax, ecx ; then set r1 equivalent to r2 XOR r3 or ; SAME mov eax, (imm32) ; first put (imm32) into r1 xor eax, ecx ; then set r1 equivalent to (imm32) XOR r3 I heard it was because of no backwards x86 comparability, but couldn't thy be fixed by just adding the Pentium circuitry to it and just add a processor flag that would switch it to Itanium mode (like switching to Protected or Long mode) All the great things about it would have surly put them a giant leap ahead of AMD. Any ideas? Sadly this means you will need a very advanced compiler to do this. Or even one per specific model of the CPU. (E.g. a newer version of the Itanium with an extra feature would require different compiler). When I was working on a WinForms (target only had .NET 2.0) project in Visual Studio 2010, I had a compile target of IA-64. That means that there is a .NET runtime that was able to be compiled for IA-64 and a .NET runtime means Windows. Plus, Hamilton's answer mentions Windows NT. Having a full blown OS like Windows NT means that there is a compiler capable of generating IA-64 machine code.

  Read the article

• NServiceBus specify order of Handlers execution

  - by John Simons

  Just wondering if this is the way to specify the order to run a handler (AuthorizationHandler) before all others? public void SpecifyOrder(Order order) { order.Specify(First<AuthorizationHandler>.Then<IHandleMessages<IMessage>>()); } It just feels odd to add Then<IHandleMessages<IMessage>>(). Is there a nicer way of saying to the Bus execute x handler before all others?

  Read the article

• Update View at runtime in Android

  - by seretur

  The example is pretty straightforward: i want to let the user know about what the app is doing by just showing a text (canvas.drawText()). Then, my first message appears, but not the other ones. I mean, i have a "setText" method but it doesn't updates. onCreate(Bundle bundle) { super.onCreate(bundle); setContentView(splash); // splash is the view class loadResources(); splash.setText("this"); boundWebService(); splash.setText("that"): etc(); splash.setText("so on"); } The view's text drawing works by doing just a drawText in onDraw();, so setText changes the text but doesn't show it. Someone recommended me replacing the view with a SurfaceView, but it would be alot of trouble for just a couple of updates, SO... how the heck can i update the view dinamically at runtime? It should be quite simple, just showing a text for say 2 seconds and then the main thread doing his stuff and then updating the text... Thanks! Update: I tried implementing handler.onPost(), but is the same story all over again. Let me put you the code: package coda.tvt; import android.app.Activity; import android.graphics.Canvas; import android.graphics.Paint; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.View; import android.widget.TextView; import android.widget.Toast; public class ThreadViewTestActivity extends Activity { Thread t; Splash splash; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); splash = new Splash(this); t = new Thread(splash); t.start(); splash.setTextow("OA"); try { Thread.sleep(4000); } catch (InterruptedException e) { } splash.setTextow("LALA"); } } And: public class Splash implements Runnable { Activity activity; final Handler myHandler = new Handler(); public Splash(Activity activity) { this.activity=activity; } @Override public void run() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } public synchronized void setTextow(final String textow) { // Wrap DownloadTask into another Runnable to track the statistics myHandler.post(new Runnable() { @Override public void run() { TextView t = (TextView)activity.findViewById(R.id.testo); t.setText(textow); t.invalidate(); } }); } } Although splash is in other thread, i put a sleep on the main thread, i use the handler to manage UI and everything, it doesn't changes a thing, it only shows the last update.

  Read the article

• Windows 7 Machine Makes Router Drop -All- Wireless Connections

  - by Hammer Bro.

  Some background: My home network consists of my Desktop, a two-month old Windows 7 (x64) machine which is online most frequently (N-spec), as well as three other Windows XP laptops (all G) that only connect every now and then (one for work, one for Netflix, and the other for infrequent regular laptop uses). I used to have a Belkin F5D8236-4 wireless router, and everything worked great. A week ago, however, I found out that the Belkin absolutely in no way would establish a VPN connection, something that has become important for work. So I bought a Netgear WNR3500v2/U/L. The wireless was acting a little sketchy at first for just the Windows 7 machine, but I thought it had something to do with 802.11N and I was in a hurry so I just fished up an ethernet cable and disabled the computer's wireless. It has now become apparent, though, that whenever the Windows 7 machine is connected to the router, all wireless connections become unstable. I was using my work laptop for a solid six hours today with no trouble, having multiple SSH connections open over VPN and streaming internet radio in the background. Then, within two minutes of turning on this Windows 7 box, I had lost all connectivity over the wireless. And I was two feet away from the router. The same sort of thing happens on all of the other laptops -- Netflix can be playing stuff all weekend, but if I come up here and do things on this (W7) computer, the streaming will be dead within ten minutes. So here are my basic observations: If the Windows 7 machine is off, then all connections will have a Signal Strength of Very Good or Excellent and a Speed of 48-54 Mbps for an indefinite amount of time. Shortly after the Windows 7 machine is turned on, all wireless connections will experience a consistent decline in Speed down to 1.0 Mbps, eventually losing their connection entirely. These machines will continue to maintain 70% signal strength, as observed by themselves and router. Once dropped, a wireless connection will have difficulty reconnecting. And, if a connection manages to become established, it will quickly drop off again. The Windows 7 machine itself will continue to function just fine if it's using a wired connection, although it will experience these same issues over the wireless. All of the drivers and firmwares are up to date, and this happened both with the stock Netgear firmware as well as the (current) DD-WRT. What I've tried: Making sure each computer is being assigned a distinct IP. (They are.) Disabling UPnP and Stateful Packet Inspection on the router. Disabling Network Sharing, SSDP Discovery, TCP/IP NetBios Helper and Computer Browser services on the Windows 7 machine. Disabling QoS Packet Scheduler, IPv6, and Link Layer Topology Discovery options on my ethernet controller (leaving only Client for Microsoft Networks, File and Printer Sharing, and IPv4 enabled). What I think: It seems awfully similar to the problems discussed in detail at http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en/wsk/thread/1064e397-9d9b-4ae2-bc8e-c8798e591915 (which was both the most relevant and concrete information I could dig up on the internet). I still think that something the Windows 7 IP stack (or just Operating System itself) is doing is giving the router fits. However, I could be wrong, because I have two key differences. One is that most instances of this problem are reported as the entire router dying or restarting, and mine still works just fine over the wired connection. The other is that it's a new router, tested with both the factory firmware and the (I assume) well-maintained DD-WRT project. Even if Windows 7 is still secretly sending IPv6 packets or the TCP Window Scaling implementation that I hear Vista caused some trouble with (even though I've tried my best to disable anything fancy), this router should support those functions. I don't want to get a new or a replacement router unless someone can convince me that this is a defective unit. But the problem seems too specific and predictable by my instincts to be a hardware hiccup. And I don't want to deal with the inevitable problems that always seem to take half a day to resolve when getting a new router, since I'm frantically working (including tomorrow) to complete a project by next week's deadline. Plus, I think in the worst case scenario, I could keep this router connected directly to the modem, disable its wireless entirely, and connect the old Belkin to it directly. That should allow me to still use VPN (although I'll have to plug my work laptop directly into that router), and then maintain wireless connections for all of the other computers. But that feels so wrong to me. Anyone have any ideas what the cause and possible solution could be? Clarifications: The Windows 7 machine is directly connected via an ethernet cable to the router for everything above. But while it is online, all other computers' wireless connections become unusable. It is not an issue of signal strength or interference -- no other devices within scanning range are using Channel 1, and the problem will affect computers that are literally feet away from the router with 95% signal strength.

  Read the article

• Windows 7 Machine Makes Router Drop -All- Wireless Connections [closed]

  - by Hammer Bro.

  Note: I accidentally originally posted this question over at SuperUser, and I still think the issue is caused by some low-level networking practice of Windows 7, but I think the expertise here would be more apt to figuring it out. Apologies for the cross-post. Some background: My home network consists of my Desktop, a two-month old Windows 7 (x64) machine which is online most frequently (N-spec), as well as three other Windows XP laptops (all G) that only connect every now and then (one for work, one for Netflix, and the other for infrequent regular laptop uses). I used to have a Belkin F5D8236-4 wireless router, and everything worked great. A week ago, however, I found out that the Belkin absolutely in no way would establish a VPN connection, something that has become important for work. So I bought a Netgear WNR3500v2/U/L. The wireless was acting a little sketchy at first for just the Windows 7 machine, but I thought it had something to do with 802.11N and I was in a hurry so I just fished up an ethernet cable and disabled the computer's wireless. It has now become apparent, though, that whenever the Windows 7 machine is connected to the router, all wireless connections become unstable. I was using my work laptop for a solid six hours today with no trouble, having multiple SSH connections open over VPN and streaming internet radio in the background. Then, within two minutes of turning on this Windows 7 box, I had lost all connectivity over the wireless. And I was two feet away from the router. The same sort of thing happens on all of the other laptops -- Netflix can be playing stuff all weekend, but if I come up here and do things on this (W7) computer, the streaming will be dead within ten minutes. So here are my basic observations: If the Windows 7 machine is off, then all connections will have a Signal Strength of Very Good or Excellent and a Speed of 48-54 Mbps for an indefinite amount of time. Shortly after the Windows 7 machine is turned on, all wireless connections will experience a consistent decline in Speed down to 1.0 Mbps, eventually losing their connection entirely. These machines will continue to maintain 70% signal strength, as observed by themselves and router. Once dropped, a wireless connection will have difficulty reconnecting. And, if a connection manages to become established, it will quickly drop off again. The Windows 7 machine itself will continue to function just fine if it's using a wired connection, although it will experience these same issues over the wireless. All of the drivers and firmwares are up to date, and this happened both with the stock Netgear firmware as well as the (current) DD-WRT. What I've tried: Making sure each computer is being assigned a distinct IP. (They are.) Disabling UPnP and Stateful Packet Inspection on the router. Disabling Network Sharing, SSDP Discovery, TCP/IP NetBios Helper and Computer Browser services on the Windows 7 machine. Disabling QoS Packet Scheduler, IPv6, and Link Layer Topology Discovery options on my ethernet controller (leaving only Client for Microsoft Networks, File and Printer Sharing, and IPv4 enabled). What I think: It seems awfully similar to the problems discussed in detail at http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en/wsk/thread/1064e397-9d9b-4ae2-bc8e-c8798e591915 (which was both the most relevant and concrete information I could dig up on the internet). I still think that something the Windows 7 IP stack (or just Operating System itself) is doing is giving the router fits. However, I could be wrong, because I have two key differences. One is that most instances of this problem are reported as the entire router dying or restarting, and mine still works just fine over the wired connection. The other is that it's a new router, tested with both the factory firmware and the (I assume) well-maintained DD-WRT project. Even if Windows 7 is still secretly sending IPv6 packets or the TCP Window Scaling implementation that I hear Vista caused some trouble with (even though I've tried my best to disable anything fancy), this router should support those functions. I don't want to get a new or a replacement router unless someone can convince me that this is a defective unit. But the problem seems too specific and predictable by my instincts to be a hardware hiccup. And I don't want to deal with the inevitable problems that always seem to take half a day to resolve when getting a new router, since I'm frantically working (including tomorrow) to complete a project by next week's deadline. Plus, I think in the worst case scenario, I could keep this router connected directly to the modem, disable its wireless entirely, and connect the old Belkin to it directly. That should allow me to still use VPN (although I'll have to plug my work laptop directly into that router), and then maintain wireless connections for all of the other computers. But that feels so wrong to me. Anyone have any ideas what the cause and possible solution could be? Clarifications: The Windows 7 machine is directly connected via an ethernet cable to the router for everything above. But while it is online, all other computers' wireless connections become unusable. It is not an issue of signal strength or interference -- no other devices within scanning range are using Channel 1, and the problem will affect computers that are literally feet away from the router with 95% signal strength.

  Read the article

• How to programmatically disable onClick handler on Android AppWidget Button

  - by Gaks

  I have a Button on appwidget, that I need to 'enable'/'disable' programmatically from a Service. First idea was to call setBoolean(R.id.buttonid, "setClickable", false) to disable it, but apparently you can't call setClickable remotely. Another idea was was remove the text label from it with rv.setTextViewText(R.id.buttonid, "") and then remove the click handler by rv.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.buttonid, null). Unfortunately passing null to it causes NullPointerException in in android.app.ActivityThread.handleServiceArgs Is there some other way to programmatically disable/enable appwidget Button? I could just call rv.setViewVisibility(R.id.buttonid, View.GONE) to hide the button completely instead of disabling it. This would however completely break whole widget layout and I would like to avoid it. The solution I'm using now is hiding the button with setViewVisibility and showing other blank button instead to the keep appwidget layout as it was before.

  Read the article

• jquery click event handler is called twice for a checkbox

  - by Martin

  I have a problem with the following code in an ASPX page: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('.test').click(function() { alert("click") }) }); </script> <asp:CheckBox runat="server" Text="Checkbox XYZ" CssClass="test" ID="cb1" /> In the browser (FF3.5 / IE8) I have the following problem: if I click the checkbox (the small square), it works as expected if I click the checkbox's text ("Checkbox XYZ"), then the click event is fired twice, and the alert is shown twice I guess this has to do with the way the checkbox is rendered to HTML, which is like this: <span class="test"> <input id="ctl00_c1_cb1" type="checkbox" name="ctl00$c1$cb1" checked="checked" /> <label for="ctl00_c1_cb1">Checkbox XYZ</label> </span> How do I correctly setup the click event handler to prevent it from being called twice?

  Read the article

• Sharepoint Web Part OnPreRender PostBack Dynamic TextBoxes Not Accessible In Button Handler

  - by Matt

  I have a custom webpart which extends System.Web.UI.WebControls.WebPart and implements an EditorPart. I have all the static controls being added in the overridden CreateChildControls method as I know this makes them persistent across PostBacks. However, I have some TextBoxes being added in the overridden OnPreRender method because the actual TextBoxes that I add depend upon the data returned from a Web Service which I am calling in OnPreRender. The Web Service has to be called in OnPreRender because I need some of the Property values that are set in the EditorPart. If I build this logic into the CreateChildControls method, obviously the data is not available on first PostBack after an edit is applied because the PostBack events are restored after CreateChildControls. This means the page has to be posted twice before the data is refreshed and that is just cludgy. How can make these TextBoxes along with their entered text values persistent across PostBacks so that I can access them in the button handler? Thanks for any help, Matt

  Read the article

• Problem calling linux C code from FIQ handler

  - by fastmonkeywheels

  I'm working on an armv6 core and have an FIQ hander that works great when I do all of my work in it. However I need to branch to some additional code that's too large for the FIQ memory area. The FIQ handler gets copied from fiq_start to fiq_end to 0xFFFF001C when registered static void test_fiq_handler(void) { asm volatile("\ .global fiq_start\n\ fiq_start:"); // clear gpio irq asm("ldr r10, GPIO_BASE_ISR"); asm("ldr r9, [r10]"); asm("orr r9, #0x04"); asm("str r9, [r10]"); // clear force register asm("ldr r10, AVIC_BASE_INTFRCH"); asm("ldr r9, [r10]"); asm("mov r9, #0"); asm("str r9, [r10]"); // prepare branch register asm(" ldr r11, fiq_handler"); // save all registers, build sp and branch to C asm(" adr r9, regpool"); asm(" stmia r9, {r0 - r8, r14}"); asm(" adr sp, fiq_sp"); asm(" ldr sp, [sp]"); asm(" add lr, pc,#4"); asm(" mov pc, r11"); #if 0 asm("ldr r10, IOMUX_ADDR12"); asm("ldr r9, [r10]"); asm("orr r9, #0x08 @ top/vertex LED"); asm("str r9,[r10] @turn on LED"); asm("bic r9, #0x08 @ top/vertex LED"); asm("str r9,[r10] @turn on LED"); #endif asm(" adr r9, regpool"); asm(" ldmia r9, {r0 - r8, r14}"); // return asm("subs pc, r14, #4"); asm("IOMUX_ADDR12: .word 0xFC2A4000"); asm("AVIC_BASE_INTCNTL: .word 0xFC400000"); asm("AVIC_BASE_INTENNUM: .word 0xFC400008"); asm("AVIC_BASE_INTDISNUM: .word 0xFC40000C"); asm("AVIC_BASE_FIVECSR: .word 0xFC400044"); asm("AVIC_BASE_INTFRCH: .word 0xFC400050"); asm("GPIO_BASE_ISR: .word 0xFC2CC018"); asm(".globl fiq_handler"); asm("fiq_sp: .long fiq_stack+120"); asm("fiq_handler: .long 0"); asm("regpool: .space 40"); asm(".pool"); asm(".align 5"); asm("fiq_stack: .space 124"); asm(".global fiq_end"); asm("fiq_end:"); } fiq_hander gets set to the following function: static void fiq_flip_pins(void) { asm("ldr r10, IOMUX_ADDR12_k"); asm("ldr r9, [r10]"); asm("orr r9, #0x08 @ top/vertex LED"); asm("str r9,[r10] @turn on LED"); asm("bic r9, #0x08 @ top/vertex LED"); asm("str r9,[r10] @turn on LED"); asm("IOMUX_ADDR12_k: .word 0xFC2A4000"); } EXPORT_SYMBOL(fiq_flip_pins); I know that since the FIQ handler operates outside of any normal kernel API's and that it is a rather high priority interrupt I must ensure that whatever I call is already swapped into memory. I do this by having the fiq_flip_pins function defined in the monolithic kernel and not as a module which gets vmalloc. If I don't branch to the fiq_flip_pins function, and instead do the work in the test_fiq_handler function everything works as expected. It's the branching that's causing me problems at the moment. Right after branching I get a kernel panic about a paging request. I don't understand why I'm getting the paging request. fiq_flip_pins is in the kernel at: c00307ec t fiq_flip_pins Unable to handle kernel paging request at virtual address 736e6f63 pgd = c3dd0000 [736e6f63] *pgd=00000000 Internal error: Oops: 5 [#1] PREEMPT Modules linked in: hello_1 CPU: 0 Not tainted (2.6.31-207-g7286c01-svn4 #122) PC is at strnlen+0x10/0x28 LR is at string+0x38/0xcc pc : [<c016b004>] lr : [<c016c754>] psr: a00001d3 sp : c3817ea0 ip : 736e6f63 fp : 00000400 r10: c03cab5c r9 : c0339ae0 r8 : 736e6f63 r7 : c03caf5c r6 : c03cab6b r5 : ffffffff r4 : 00000000 r3 : 00000004 r2 : 00000000 r1 : ffffffff r0 : 736e6f63 Flags: NzCv IRQs off FIQs off Mode SVC_32 ISA ARM Segment user Control: 00c5387d Table: 83dd0008 DAC: 00000015 Process sh (pid: 1663, stack limit = 0xc3816268) Stack: (0xc3817ea0 to 0xc3818000) Since there are no API calls in my code I have to assume that something is going wrong in the C call and back. Any help solving this is appreciated.

  Read the article

• async handler deleted by the wrong thread in django

  - by user3480706

  I'm run this algorithm in my django application.when i run several time from my GUI django local server will stopped and i got this error Exception RuntimeError: RuntimeError('main thread is not in main loop',) in ignored Tcl_AsyncDelete: async handler deleted by the wrong thread Aborted (core dumped) code print "Learning the sin function" network =MLP.MLP(2,10,1) samples = np.zeros(2000, dtype=[('x', float, 1), ('y', float, 1)]) samples['x'] = np.linspace(-5,5,2000) samples['y'] = np.sin(samples['x']) #samples['y'] = np.linspace(-4,4,2500) for i in range(100000): n = np.random.randint(samples.size) network.propagate_forward(samples['x'][n]) network.propagate_backward(samples['y'][n]) plt.figure(figsize=(10,5)) # Draw real function x = samples['x'] y = samples['y'] #x=np.linspace(-6.0,7.0,50) plt.plot(x,y,color='b',lw=1) samples1 = np.zeros(2000, dtype=[('x1', float, 1), ('y1', float, 1)]) samples1['x1'] = np.linspace(-4,4,2000) samples1['y1'] = np.sin(samples1['x1']) # Draw network approximated function for i in range(samples1.size): samples1['y1'][i] = network.propagate_forward(samples1['x1'][i]) plt.plot(samples1['x1'],samples1['y1'],color='r',lw=3) plt.axis([-2,2,-2,2]) plt.show() plt.close() return HttpResponseRedirect('/charts/charts') how can i fix this error ?need a quick help

  Read the article

• Create Event Handler for TreeViewItem in WPF

  - by nihi_l_ist

  Im adding items to TreeView control via ItemsSource property and ItemTemplate property to set the template for TreeViewItem. How can i add an event handler to handle selection change event on TreeViewItems? For now my ItemTemplate looks like this: <Window.Resources><DataTemplate x:Key="PeerDetailTemplate"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding DESCRIPTION}" Tag="{Binding ID}" GotFocus="GetModules"/> </DataTemplate></Window.Resources> But it doesnt work (GetModules is not called). Im new to WPF, so show me the right direction to do such things, please.

  Read the article

• Handler invocation speed: Objective-C vs virtual functions

  - by Kerido

  I heard that calling a handler (delegate, etc.) in Objective-C can be even faster than calling a virtual function in C++. Is it really correct? If so, how can that be? AFAIK, virtual functions are not that slow to call. At least, this is my understanding of what happens when a virtual function is called: Compute the index of the function pointer location in vtbl. Obtain the pointer to vtbl. Dereference the pointer and obtain the beginning of the array of function pointers. Offset (in pointer scale) the beginning of the array with the index value obtained on step 1. Issue a call instruction. Unfortunately, I don't know Objective-C so it's hard for me to compare performance. But at least, the mechanism of a virtual function call doesn't look that slow, right? How can something other than static function call be faster?

  Read the article

• DataReceived Event handler not receiving messages

  - by karthik

  I'm using the below code to receive the messages using serial port event handler. But it dosent receives any.I am not getting errors. The code breaks in "string msg = comport.Readline()" Am i doing something wrong ? public partial class SerialPortScanner : Form { private SerialPort comPort = new SerialPort(); public SerialPortScanner() { InitializeComponent(); comPort.Open(); comPort.DataReceived += new SerialDataReceivedEventHandler(comPort_DataReceived); } void comPort_DataReceived(object sender, SerialDataReceivedEventArgs e) { if (comPort.IsOpen == true) { string msg = comPort.ReadLine(); MessageBox.Show(msg); } } }

  Read the article

• Cstom handler on IIS 7.5 doesn't work

  - by Amit

  Hi, I am new to IIS 7.5. I have an application in asp.net 2.0, which has its own custom URL rewriting mechanism. All the requests on the browser with .htm will be mapped to .aspx. It works fine on IIS 6, but somehow I could not get it working on IIS 7.5. On IIS 6, I go to Application PropertiesConfigurationMappings and add a new extension .htm with the executable as aspnet_isapi.dll On IIS 7.5 i added a handler mapping, with path as .htm and executable as aspnet_ispai.dll But the request does not even come to global.asax. If i try the URL with .aspx extension, pages load properly. Any idea how to set up custom mappings in iis 7.5?

  Read the article

• Add Event Handler To Dynamic Dropdownlist

  - by Andrea Girardi

  Hi all! I have a page that contains dynamically generated Dropdown List controls and I want thant the dynamic dropdown list perform an AutoPostback to fill some other field using the value selected. This is the code I'm using to create dynamically the control: If (Not IsPostBack) Then Dim newDDL As DropDownList = New DropDownList() AddHandler newDDL.SelectedIndexChanged, AddressOf ChangeValue newDDL.ID = "Level1" [fill the DropDownList] newDDL.Items.Insert(results.Count, New ListItem("", -1)) newDDL.Width = "300" newDDL.AutoPostBack = True newDDL.SelectedIndex = results.Count LevelDDLs.Controls.Add(newDDL) LevelDDLs.Controls.Add(New LiteralControl("<br /><br />")) End If Control is correctly filled and rendered on ASP page but, after selecting a value, the page is reloaded (AutoPostBack is called) but the control is not diplayed and the sub is not called. I put a breakpoint into the ChangeValue sub but anything happens. I read on some post that handler for the first DropDownList is not necessary but, how is it possible to tell DropDownList to call my sub after changevalue? Could you help me, please? many thanks, Andrea

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32  | Next Page >