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  • Moving from NHibernate to FluentNHibernate: assembly error (related to versions)?

    - by goober
    Not sure where to start, but I had gotten the most recent version of NHibernate, successfully mapped the most simple of business objects, etc. When trying to move to FluentNHibernate and do the same thing, I got this error message on build: "System.IO.FileLoadException: Could not load file or assembly 'NHibernate, Version=2.1.0.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4' or one of its dependencies. The located assembly's manifest definition does not match the assembly reference." Background: I'm new to Hibernate, NHibernate, and FluentNHibernate -- but not to .NET, C#, etc. Database I have a database table called Category: (PK) CategoryID (type: int), unique, auto-incrementing UserID (type: uniqueidentifier) -- given the value of the user Guid in ASP.NET database Title (type: varchar(50) -- the title of the category Components involved: I have a SessionProviderClass which creates the mapping to the database I have a Category class which has all the virtual methods for FluentNHibernate to override I have a CategoryMap : ClassMap class, which does the fluent mappings for the entity I have a CategoryRepository class that contains the method to add & save the category I have the TestCatAdd.aspx file which uses the CategoryRepository class. Would be happy to post code for any of those, but I'm not sure that it's necessary, as I think the issue is that somewhere there's a version conflict between what FluentNHibernate references and the NHibernate I have installed from before. Thanks in advance for any help you can give!

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  • Tree deletion with NHibernate

    - by Tigraine
    Hi, I'm struggling with a little problem and starting to arrive at the conclusion it's simply not possible. I have a Table called Group. As with most of these systems Group has a ParentGroup and a Children collection. So the Table Group looks like this: Group -ID (PK) -Name -ParentId (FK) I did my mappings using FNH AutoMappings, but I had to override the defaults for this: p.References(x => x.Parent) .Column("ParentId") .Cascade.All(); p.HasMany(x => x.Children) .KeyColumn("ParentId") .ForeignKeyCascadeOnDelete() .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .Inverse(); Now, the general idea was to be able to delete a node and all of it's children to be deleted too by NH. So deleting the only root node should basically clear the whole table. I tried first with Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan but that works only for deletion of items from the Children collection, not deletion of the parent. Next I tried ForeignKeyCascadeOnDelete so the operation gets delegated to the Database through on delete cascade. But once I do that MSSql2008 does not allow me to create this constraint, failing with : Introducing FOREIGN KEY constraint 'FKBA21C18E87B9D9F7' on table 'Group' may cause cycles or multiple cascade paths. Specify ON DELETE NO ACTION or ON UPDATE NO ACTION, or modify other FOREIGN KEY constraints. Well, and that's it for me. I guess I'll just loop through the children and delete them one by one, thus doing a N+1. If anyone has a suggestion on how do that more elegantly I'd be eager to hear it.

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  • Linq to SQL - Failing to update

    - by Isaac
    Hello, I'm having some troubles with updating linq to sql entities. For some reason, I can update every single field of my item entity besides name. Here are two simple tests I wrote: [TestMethod] public void TestUpdateName( ) { using ( var context = new SimoneDataContext( ) ) { Item item = context.Items.First( ); if ( item != null ) { item.Name = "My New Name"; context.SubmitChanges( ); } } } [TestMethod] public void TestUpdateMPN( ) { using ( var context = new SimoneDataContext( ) ) { Item item = context.Items.First( ); if ( item != null ) { item.MPN = "My New MPN"; context.SubmitChanges( ); } } } Unfortunately, TestUpdateName() fails with the following error: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'WHERE'.. And here's the outputted SQL: UPDATE [dbo].[Items] SET WHERE ([Id] = @p0) AND ([CategoryId] = @p1) AND ([MPN] = @p2) AND ([Height] = @p3) AND ([Width] = @p4) AND ([Weight] = @p5) AND ([Length] = @p6) AND ([AdministrativeCost] = @p7) -- @p0: Input Int (Size = 0; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [1] -- @p1: Input Int (Size = 0; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [1] -- @p2: Input VarChar (Size = 10; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [My New MPN] -- @p3: Input Decimal (Size = 0; Prec = 5; Scale = 3) [30.000] -- @p4: Input Decimal (Size = 0; Prec = 5; Scale = 3) [10.000] -- @p5: Input Decimal (Size = 0; Prec = 5; Scale = 3) [40.000] -- @p6: Input Decimal (Size = 0; Prec = 5; Scale = 3) [30.000] -- @p7: Input Money (Size = 0; Prec = 19; Scale = 4) [350.0000] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2008) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 3.5.30729.4926 As you can see, no update is being generated (SET is empty ...) I have no clue why is this happening. And already in advance ... YES, the table Item has a PK (Id). Thank you in advance!

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  • How to detect column conflicts with Hibernate?

    - by Slim
    So let's say I have an ArrayList full of Products that need to be committed to the database via Hibernate. There are already a large number of Products in the database. Each product has an ID. Note this is NOT the PK that is autogenerated by Hibernate. My questions is: what is the best way to detect conflicts with this ID? I am looking for a relatively efficient method of obtaining, from the the database, a List of Products that share an ID with any of the Products in my ArrayList. This is all in a single table called Products and the ID attribute is in column ProductID. The way I've done it is grabbing a list of all Products in the database, and compared each one with each entry in my ArrayList - but that is seriously inefficient and I don't think it would work well with a larger database. How should it be done? Thanks. I say "relatively" efficient because efficiency is not the primary concern, but it shouldn't take noticeably long to test against a table of ~1000-5000 rows. Help? EDIT* I'm very new to hibernate and below is the best I've come up with. How does this look? for(long id : idList){ //idList just holds the IDs of each Product in my ArrayList Query query = session.createQuery("select product from Product product where product.id = :id"); query.setLong("id", id); for(int i = 0; i < query.list().size(); i++){ listOfConflictingProducts.add((Product) query.list().get(i)); } }

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  • CakePHP: Need help using saveField to update a fields in a belongsTo model

    - by afrisch
    I am trying to update a password into two different models/tables in CakePHP. I can update it fine in the parent model, but not the second model. Models: Users (hasOne GameProfile) PK=id Gameprofiles (belongsTo User) FK=user_id Here is a stripped down version of my function in the Users_controller.php: function updatepass() { if (!empty($this->data)) { $this->User->id = $this->Auth->user('id'); $this->User->saveField('sha1password', $this->Auth->password($this->data['User']['newpass'])); $this->User->Gameprofile->saveField('plainpassword', $this->data['User']['newpass']); } } When I execute the function, the users table is updated fine. But the gameprofile table is not updated, rather Cake does an insert. SQL Query Log: 1195 Query UPDATE `users` SET `sha1password` = 'e9443e9f5e1a07832aad1b2f84de1a666daf89b5' WHERE `users`.`id` = 30 1195 Query INSERT INTO `gameprofiles` (`plainpassword`) VALUES ('abc') Is there a way to get CakePHP to do an update using saveField on a model with a belongsTo attribute? I've tried various ways to refer to user_id before executing the second saveField, but just can't seem to find the winning combination. Any help is greatly appreciated!

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  • Missing tables on Scaffold Dynamic Data page

    - by Ben Amada
    I created a Linq-to-SQL DBML for the first time. I dragged and dropped all my tables over to the designer. The tables all appear in the designer.cs file. In Global.asax, I also have model.RegisterContext() with the ScaffoldAllTables = true option. The routes are also setup. I can pull up the Scaffolding page, but there's at least one table that is missing that I'm trying to get to show up. This missing table has a relationship with a child table that references it. The child table appears. When viewing data for the child table, the column that references the missing/parent table shows the numeric PK int value, rather than showing the "name". So instead of showing "Cars" it shows 1, and instead of showing "Planes" it shows 2, etc. There's another table in the DB that has the same type of structure as the missing table, and it is correctly appearing in the scaffolded tables. For this missing table, I've tried explicitly adding the ScaffoldTable attribute to no avail. Does anyone know what would cause a table like this to not appear in the list Scaffolded tables? Thanks very much.

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  • Button inside of anchor link works in Firefox but not in Internet Explorer?

    - by Jason
    Everything else in my site seems to be compatible with all browsers except for my links. They appear on the page, but they do not work. My code for the links are as follows- <td bgcolor="#ffffff" height="370" valign="top" width="165"> <p><a href="sc3.html"><button style="width:120;height:25">Super Chem #3</button></a> <a href="91hollywood.html"><button style="width:120;height:25">91 Hollywood</button></a> <a href="sbubba.html"><button style="width:120;height:25">Super Bubba</button></a> <a href="afgoohash.html"><button style="width:120;height:25">Afgoo Hash</button></a> <a href="superjack.html"><button style="width:120;height:25">Super Jack</button></a> <a href="sog.html"><button style="width:120;height:25">Sugar OG</button></a> <a href="91pk91.html"><button style="width:120;height:25">91 x PK</button></a> <a href="jedi1.html"><button style="width:120;height:25">Jedi</button></a></p> <p>&nbsp;</p> <a href="http://indynile99.blogspot.com"><button style="width:120;height:25">Blog</button></a> <p>&nbsp;</p> </td> THANKS for the help!

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  • SQL Server race condition issue with range lock

    - by Freek
    I'm implementing a queue in SQL Server (please no discussions about this) and am running into a race condition issue. The T-SQL of interest is the following: set transaction isolation level serializable begin tran declare @RecordId int declare @CurrentTS datetime2 set @CurrentTS=CURRENT_TIMESTAMP select top 1 @RecordId=Id from QueuedImportJobs with (updlock) where Status=@Status and (LeaseTimeout is null or @CurrentTS>LeaseTimeout) order by Id asc if @@ROWCOUNT> 0 begin update QueuedImportJobs set LeaseTimeout = DATEADD(mi,5,@CurrentTS), LeaseTicket=newid() where Id=@RecordId select * from QueuedImportJobs where Id = @RecordId end commit tran RecordId is the PK and there is also an index on Status,LeaseTimeout. What I'm basically doing is select a record of which the lease happens to be expired, while simultaneously updating the lease time with 5 minutes and setting a new lease ticket. So the problem is that I'm getting deadlocks when I run this code in parallel using a couple of threads. I've debugged it up to the point where I found out that the update statement sometimes gets executing twice for the same record. Now, I was under the impression that the with (updlock) should prevent this (it also happens with xlock btw, not with tablockx). So it actually look like there is a RangeS-U and a RangeX-X lock on the same range of records, which ought to be impossible. So what am I missing? I'm thinking it might have something to do with the top 1 clause or that SQL Server does not know that where Id=@RecordId is actually in the locked range? Deadlock graph: Table schema (simplified):

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  • GWT + JDO + ArrayList

    - by dvieira
    Hi, I'm getting a Null ArrayList in a program i'm developing. For testing purposes I created this really small example that still has the same problem. I already tried diferent Primary Keys, but the problem persists. Any ideas or suggestions? 1-Employee class @PersistenceCapable(identityType = IdentityType.APPLICATION) public class Employee { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) @Extension(vendorName="datanucleus", key="gae.encoded-pk", value="true") private String key; @Persistent private ArrayList<String> nicks; public Employee(ArrayList<String> nicks) { this.setNicks(nicks); } public String getKey() { return key; } public void setNicks(ArrayList<String> nicks) { this.nicks = nicks; } public ArrayList<String> getNicks() { return nicks; } } 2-EmployeeService public class BookServiceImpl extends RemoteServiceServlet implements EmployeeService { public void addEmployee(){ ArrayList<String> nicks = new ArrayList<String>(); nicks.add("name1"); nicks.add("name2"); Employee employee = new Employee(nicks); PersistenceManager pm = PMF.get().getPersistenceManager(); try { pm.makePersistent(employee); } finally { pm.close(); } } /** * @return * @throws NotLoggedInException * @gwt.typeArgs <Employee> */ public Collection<Employee> getEmployees() { PersistenceManager pm = getPersistenceManager(); try { Query q = pm.newQuery("SELECT FROM " + Employee.class.getName()); Collection<Employee> list = pm.detachCopyAll((Collection<Employee>)q.execute()); return list; } finally { pm.close(); } } }

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  • Select rows from table1 and all the children from table2 into an object

    - by Patrick
    I want to pull data from table "Province_Notifiers" and also fetch all corresponding items from table "Province_Notifier_Datas". The table "Province_Notifier" has a guid to identify it (PK), table "Province_Notifier_Datas" has a column called BelongsToProvinceID witch is a foreign key to the "Province_Notifier" tables guid. I tried something like this: var records = from data in ctx.Province_Notifiers where DateTime.Now >= data.SendTime && data.Sent == false join data2 in ctx.Province_Notifier_Datas on data.Province_ID equals data2.BelongsToProvince_ID select new Province_Notifier { Email = data.Email, Province_ID = data.Province_ID, ProvinceName = data.ProvinceName, Sent = data.Sent, UserName = data.UserName, User_ID = data.User_ID, Province_Notifier_Datas = (new List<Province_Notifier_Data>().AddRange(data2)) }; This line is not working and i am trying to figure out how topull the data from table2 into that Province_Notifier_Datas variable. Province_Notifier_Datas = (new List<Province_Notifier_Data>().AddRange(data2)) I can add a record easily by adding the second table row into the Province_Notifier_Datas but i can't fetch it back. Province_Notifier dbNotifier = new Province_Notifier(); // set some values for dbNotifier dbNotifier.Province_Notifier_Datas.Add( new Province_Notifier_Data { BelongsToProvince_ID = userInput.Value.ProvinceId, EventText = GenerateNotificationDetail(notifierDetail) }); This works and inserts the data correctly into both tables. Edit: These error messages is thrown: Cannot convert from 'Province_Notifier_Data' to 'System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable' If i look in Visual Studio, the variable "Province_Notifier_Datas" is of type System.Data.Linq.EntitySet The best overloaded method match for 'System.Collections.Generic.List.AddRange(System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable)' has some invalid arguments Edit: var records = from data in ctx.Province_Notifiers where DateTime.Now >= data.SendTime && data.Sent == false join data2 in ctx.Province_Notifier_Datas on data.Province_ID equals data2.BelongsToProvince_ID into data2list select new Province_Notifier { Email = data.Email, Province_ID = data.Province_ID, ProvinceName = data.ProvinceName, Sent = data.Sent, UserName = data.UserName, User_ID = data.User_ID, Province_Notifier_Datas = new EntitySet<Province_Notifier_Data>().AddRange(data2List) }; Error 3 The name 'data2List' does not exist in the current context.

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  • Kohana 3, problem with m2m data adding

    - by Marek
    Hello I posted this on official forum but with no result. I am getting :Undefined index: enrollment error when trying to save data. My pivot model: class Model_Enrollment extends ORM { protected $_belongs_to = array('page' => array(), 'menugroup' => array()); } Model_Page protected $_has_many = array('templates' => array(), 'menugroups' => array('through' => 'enrollment')); Model_Menugroup protected $_has_many = array('menuitems' => array(), 'pages' => array('through' => 'enrollment')); //Overriden save() method in Model_Menugroup: public function save() { if (empty($this->created)) { $this->created = time(); } parent::save(); $this->reload(); if (! $this->is_global) { if (! empty($this->groupOwnerPagesId) { $page = ORM::factory('page'); foreach($this->groupOwnerPagesId as $id) { $this->add('enrollment', $page->find($id)); } } } } I did: I corrected table names in pivot model by changing them to singular I even now using the same name for pivot table / model = enrollment. The same as in tutorial. Just in case So the pivot table has name 'enrollment' and has 2 columns: page_id , menugroup_id I tried to add pk in pivot table, but it changed nothing I tried to add/remove db relation between pages/menugroups and pivot table (InnoDB) but with no luck I tried save all data in controller, but with the same bad result:( I am still getting the same error: Undefined index: enrollment in ORM line: $columns = array($this-_has_many[$alias]['foreign_key'], $this-_has_many[$alias]['far_key']); Could somebody tell me, what can be else wrong? I have no other ideas:( Kind regards

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  • Multi-client C# ODBC (Sybase/Oracle/MSSQL) table access question.

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    I am working on a feature that would allow clients pick a unique identifier (ci_name). The code below is a generic version that gets expanded to the right sql depending on the vendor. Hopefully it makes sense. #include "sql.h" create table client_identification ( ci_id TYPE_ID IDENTITY, ci_name varchar(64) not null, constraint ci_pk primary key (ci_name) ); go CREATE_SEQUENCE(ci_id) There will be simple stored procedures for adding, retrieving, and deleting these user records. This will be used by several admins. This will not happen very frequently, but there is still a possibility that something will be added or deleted since the list was initially retrieved. I have not yet decided if I need to detect the case of a double delete, but the user name cannot be created twice - primary key constraint will object. I want to be able to detect this particular case and display something like: "you snooze - you loose." :) I would like to leverage the pk constraint instead of doing some extra sql gymnastics. So, how can I detect this case cleanly, so that it works in MS SQL 2008, Sybase, and Oracle? I hope to do better than catch a general ODBC exception and parse out the text and look for what Sybase, Oracle, and MSSQL would give me back. Oracle is a little different. We actually prepend these variables to the Oracle version of stored procedures because they are not available otherwise: Vret_val out number, Vtran_count in out number, Vmessage_count in out number, Thanks. General helpful tips and comments are welcome, except for naming convention ones ( I do not have a choice here, plus I mangled the actual names a bit).

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  • NHibernate class referencing discriminator based subclass

    - by Rich
    I have a generic class Lookup which contains code/value properties. The table PK is category/code. There are subclasses for each category of lookup, and I've set the discriminator column in the base class and its value in the subclass. See example below (only key pieces shown): public class Lookup { public string Category; public string Code; public string Description; } public class LookupClassMap { CompositeId() .KeyProperty(x = x.Category, "CATEGORY_ID") .KeyProperty(x = x.Code, "CODE_ID"); DiscriminateSubclassesBasedOnColumn("CATEGORY_ID"); } public class MaritalStatus: Lookup {} public class MartialStatusClassMap: SubclassMap { DiscriminatorValue(13); } This all works. Here's the problem. When a class has a property of type MaritalStatus, I create a reference based on the contained code ID column ("MARITAL_STATUS_CODE_ID"). NHibernate doesn't like it because I didn't map both primary key columns (Category ID & Code ID). But with the Reference being of type MaritalStatus, NHibernate should already know what the value of the category ID is going to be, because of the discriminator value. What am I missing?

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  • Test the sequentiality of a column with a single SQL query

    - by LauriE
    Hey, I have a table that contains sets of sequential datasets, like that: ID set_ID some_column n 1 'set-1' 'aaaaaaaaaa' 1 2 'set-1' 'bbbbbbbbbb' 2 3 'set-1' 'cccccccccc' 3 4 'set-2' 'dddddddddd' 1 5 'set-2' 'eeeeeeeeee' 2 6 'set-3' 'ffffffffff' 2 7 'set-3' 'gggggggggg' 1 At the end of a transaction that makes several types of modifications to those rows, I would like to ensure that within a single set, all the values of "n" are still sequential (rollback otherwise). They do not need to be in the same order according to the PK, just sequential, like 1-2-3 or 3-1-2, but not like 1-3-4. Due to the fact that there might be thousands of rows within a single set I would prefer to do it in the db to avoid the overhead of fetching the data just for verification after making some small changes. Also there is the issue of concurrency. The way locking in InnoDB (repeatable read) works (as I understand) is that if I have an index on "n" then InnoDB also locks the "gaps" between values. If I combine set_ID and n to a single index, would that eliminate the problem of phantom rows appearing? Looks to me like a common problem. Any brilliant ideas? Thanks! Note: using MySQL + InnoDB

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  • Persist data when the table was not mapped (JPA EclipseLink)

    - by enrique
    Hi everybody I need some help in persisting data into a table that has not been mapped... The issue is that the database we have has a table which all of its columns are foreign keys so by mapping the whole database all of the tables are correctly mapped. However that table called "category" is not mapped. The way in which we can browse the data is by passing for the table I mentioned using the @jointable annotation which was set by the system in the other tables with which "category" has a relation. So we can go ahead and using the collections and perform a query. But the issue comes when I want to persist data into that table because there´s no any entity. We tried to persist through the collections but no luck. Then I have just tried by creating the entity with its PK and Facade all by hand. However when I try to persist using the Merge method the system tries to perform an Insert when it is supposed to perform an Update. So obviously it returns an error. Does anybody have an idea on this situation? Thanks.-

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  • Databinding to the DataGridView (Enums + Collections)

    - by Ian
    I'm after a little help with the techniques to use for Databinding. It's been quite a while since I used any proper data binding and want to try and do something with the DataGridView. I'm trying to configure as much as possible so that I can simply designed the DatagridView through the form editor, and then use a custom class that exposes all my information. The sort of information I've got is as follows: public class Result { public String Name { get; set; } public Boolean PK { get; set; } public MyEnum EnumValue { get; set; } public IList<ResultInfos> { get; set; } } public class ResultInfos { get; set; } { public class Name { get; set; } public Int Value { get; set; } public override String ToString() { return Name + " : " Value.ToString(); } } I can bind to the simple information without any problem. I want to bind to the EnumValue with a DataGridViewComboBoxColumn, but when I set the DataPropertyName I get exceptions saying the enum values aren't valid. Then comes the ResultInfo collection. Currently I can't figure out how to bind to this and display my items, again really I want this to be a combobox, where the 1st Item is selected. Anyone any suggestions on what I'm doing wrong? Thanks

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  • Does this query fetch unnecessary information? Should I change the query?

    - by Camran
    I have this classifieds website, and I have about 7 tables in MySql where all data is stored. I have one main table, called "classifieds". In the classifieds table, there is a column called classified_id. This is not the PK, or a key whatsoever. It is just a number which is used for me to JOIN table records together. Ex: classifieds table: fordon table: id => 33 id => 12 classified_id => 10 classified_id => 10 ad_id => 'bmw_m3_92923' This above is linked together by the classified_id column. Now to the Q, I use this method to fetch all records WHERE the column ad_id matches any of the values inside an array, called in this case $ad_arr: SELECT mt.*, fordon.*, boende.*, elektronik.*, business.*, hem_inredning.*, hobby.* FROM classified mt LEFT JOIN fordon ON fordon.classified_id = mt.classified_id LEFT JOIN boende ON boende.classified_id = mt.classified_id LEFT JOIN elektronik ON elektronik.classified_id = mt.classified_id LEFT JOIN business ON business.classified_id = mt.classified_id LEFT JOIN hem_inredning ON hem_inredning.classified_id = mt.classified_id LEFT JOIN hobby ON hobby.classified_id = mt.classified_id WHERE mt.ad_id IN ('$ad_arr')"; Is this good or would this actually fetch unnecessary information? Check out this Q I posted couple of days ago. In the comments HLGEM is commenting that it is wrong etc etc. What do you think? http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2782275/another-rookie-question-how-to-implement-count-here Thanks

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  • Batch processing JDBC

    - by Wai Hein
    I am practicing JDBC batch processing and having errors: error 1: Unsupported feature error 2: Execute cannot be empty or null Property files include: itemsdao.updateBookName = Update Books set bookname = ? where books.id = ? itemsdao.updateAuthorName = Update books set authorname = ? where books.id = ? I know I can execute about DML statements in one update, but I am practicing batch processing in JDBC. Below is my method public void update(Item item) { String query = null; try { connection = DbConnector.getConnection(); property = SqlPropertiesLoader.getProperties("dml.properties"); connection.setAutoCommit(false); if ( property == null ) { Logging.log.debug("dml.properties does not exist. Check property loader or file name is spelled right"); return; } query = property.getProperty("itemsdao.updateBookName"); statement = connection.prepareStatement(query); statement.setString(1, item.getBookName()); statement.setInt(2, item.getId()); statement.addBatch(query); query = property.getProperty("itemsdao.updateAuthorName"); statement = connection.prepareStatement(query); statement.setString(1, item.getAuthorName()); statement.setInt(2, item.getId()); statement.addBatch(query); statement.executeBatch(); connection.commit(); }catch (ClassNotFoundException e) { Logging.log.error("Connection class does not exist", e); } catch (SQLException e) { Logging.log.error("Violating PK constraint",e); } //helper class th finally { DbUtil.close(connection); DbUtil.closePreparedStatement(statement); }

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  • Counting a cell up per Objects

    - by Auro
    hey i got a problem once again :D a little info first: im trying to copy data from one table to an other table(structure is the same). now one cell needs to be incremented, beginns per group at 1 (just like a histroy). i have this table: create table My_Test/My_Test2 ( my_Id Number(8,0), my_Num Number(6,0), my_Data Varchar2(100)); (my_Id, my_Num is a nested PK) if i want to insert a new row, i need to check if the value in my_id already exists. if this is true then i need to use the next my_Num for this Id. i have this in my Table: My_Id My_Num My_Data 1 1 'test1' 1 2 'test2' 2 1 'test3' if i add now a row for my_Id 1, the row would look like this: i have this in my Table: My_Id My_Num My_Data 1 3 'test4' this sounds pretty easy ,now i need to make it in a SQL and on SQL Server i had the same problem and i used this: Insert Into My_Test (My_Id,My_Num,My_Data) SELECT my_Id, ( SELECT CASE ( CASE MAX(a.my_Num) WHEN NULL THEN 0 Else Max(A.My_Num) END) + b.My_Num WHEN NULL THEN 1 ELSE ( CASE MAX(a.My_Num) WHEN NULL THEN 0 Else Max(A.My_Num) END) + b.My_Num END From My_Test A where my_id = 1 ) ,My_Data From My_Test2 B where my_id = 1; this Select gives null back if no Rows are found in the subselect is there a way so i could use max in the case? and if it give null back it should use 0 or 1? greets Auro

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  • Performance of stored proc when updating columns selectively based on parameters?

    - by kprobst
    I'm trying to figure out if this is relatively well-performing T-SQL (this is SQL Server 2008). I need to create a stored procedure that updates a table. The proc accepts as many parameters as there are columns in the table, and with the exception of the PK column, they all default to NULL. The body of the procedure looks like this: CREATE PROCEDURE proc_repo_update @object_id bigint ,@object_name varchar(50) = NULL ,@object_type char(2) = NULL ,@object_weight int = NULL ,@owner_id int = NULL -- ...etc AS BEGIN update object_repo set object_name = ISNULL(@object_name, object_name) ,object_type = ISNULL(@object_type, object_type) ,object_weight = ISNULL(@object_weight, object_weight) ,owner_id = ISNULL(@owner_id, owner_id) -- ...etc where object_id = @object_id return @@ROWCOUNT END So basically: Update a column only if its corresponding parameter was provided, and leave the rest alone. This works well enough, but as the ISNULL call will return the value of the column if the received parameter was null, will SQL Server optimize this somehow? This might be a performance bottleneck on the application where the table might be updated heavily (insertion will be uncommon so the performance there is not a problem). So I'm trying to figure out what's the best way to do this. Is there a way to condition the column expressions with something like CASE WHEN or something? The table will be indexed up the wazoo as well for read performance. Is this the best approach? My alternative at this point is to create the UPDATE expression in code (e.g. inline SQL) and execute it against the server. This would solve my doubts about performance, but I'd rather leave this in a stored proc if possible.

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  • Unable to delete inherited entity class in EF4

    - by Coding Gorilla
    I have two entities in an EF4 model (using Model First), let's call them EntityA and EntityB. EntityA is marked as abstract, and EntityB inherits from EntityA. They are similar to the following: public class EntityA { public Guid Id; public string Name; public string Uri; } public class EntityB : EntityA { public string AnotherProperty; } The generated database tables look as I would expect them, with EntityA as on table, and then another table like: EntityA_EntityB Id (PK, FK, uniqueidentifier) AnotherProperty (varchar) There is a foreign key constraint on EntityA_EntityB that references EntityA's Id property, no cascades are configured (although I did try changing these myself). The problem is that when I attempt to do something like: Context.DeleteObject(EntityA_EntityB); EF attempts to delete the EntityA_EntityB table record before deleting the EntityA table record, which of course violates the foreign key constraint on EntityA_EntityB table. Using EFProfiler I see the following commands being sent to the database: delete [dbo].[EntityA_EntityB] where (([Id] = '5c02899f-09ea-2ed9-d44b-01aef80f6b64' /* @0 */) followed by delete [dbo].[EntityA] where ([Id] = '5c02899f-09ea-2ed9-d44b-01aef80f6b64' /* @0 */) I'm completely stumped as to how to get around this problem. I would think the EF should know that it needs to delete the base class first, before deleting the inherited class. I know I could do some triggers or other database type solutions, but I'd rather avoid doing that if I can. All my classes are POCO built using some customized T4 templates. I don't want to paste in a lot of extraneous code, but if you need more information I'll provide what I can.

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  • Handling primary key duplicates in a data warehouse load

    - by Meff
    I'm currently building an ETL system to load a data warehouse from a transactional system. The grain of my fact table is the transaction level. In order to ensure I don't load duplicate rows I've put a primary key on the fact table, which is the transaction ID. I've encountered a problem with transactions being reversed - In the transactional database this is done via a status, which I pick up and I can work out if the transaction is being done, or rolled back so I can load a reversal row in the warehouse. However, the reversal row will have the same transaction ID and so I get a primary key violation. I've solved this for now by negating the primary key, so transaction ID 1 would be a payment, and transaction ID -1 (In the warehouse only) would be the reversal. I have considered an alternative of generating a BIT column, where 0 is normal and 1 is reversal, then making the PK the transaction ID and the BIT column. My question is, is this a good practice, and has anyone else encountered anything like this? For reference, this is a payment processing system, so values will not be modified, so there will only ever be transactions and reversals.

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  • Too many columns to index - use mySQL Partitions?

    - by Christopher Padfield
    We have an application with a table with 20+ columns that are all searchable. Building indexes for all these columns would make write queries very slow; and any really useful index would often have to be across multiple columns increasing the number of indexes needed. However, for 95% of these searches, only a small subset of those rows need to be searched upon, and quite a small number - say 50,000 rows. So, we have considered using mySQL Partition tables - having a column that is basically isActive which is what we divide the two partitions by. Most search queries would be run with isActive=1. Most queries would then be run against the small 50,000 row partition and be quick without other indexes. Only issue is the rows where isActive=1 is not fixed; i.e. it's not based on the date of the row or anything fixed like that; we will need to update isActive based on use of the data in that row. As I understand it that is no problem though; the data would just be moved from one partition to another during the UPDATE query. We do have a PK on id for the row though; and I am not sure if this is a problem; the manual seemed to suggest the partition had to be based on any primary keys. This would be a huge problem for us because the primary key ID has no basis on whether the row isActive.

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  • MYSQL inserting records form table A into tables B and C (linked by foreign key) depending on column values in table A

    - by Chez
    Hi All, Have been searching high and low for a simple solution to a mysql insert problem. The problem is as follows: I am putting together an organisational database consisting of departments and desks. A department may or may not have n number of desks. Both departments and desks have their own table linked by a foreign key in desks to the relevant record in departments (i.e. the pk). I have a temporary table which I use to place all new department data (n records long)...In this table n number of desk records for a department follow the department record directly below. In the TEMP table, if a column department_name has a value,it is a department, if it doesn't it will have a value for the column desk and therefore will be a desk which is related to the above department. As I said there maybe several desk records until you get to the next department record. Ok, so what I want to do is the following: Insert the departments into the departments table and its desks into the desks table , generating a foreign key in the desk record to the relevant departments id. In pseudo-ish code: for each record in TEMP table if Department INSERT the record into Departments get the id of the newly created Department record and store it somewhere else if Desk INSERT the desk into the desks table with the relevant departments id as the foreignkey note once again that all departments desks directly follow the department in the TEMP Table Many Thanks

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  • Joining tables with composite keys in a legacy system in hibernate

    - by Steve N
    Hi, I'm currently trying to create a pair of Hibernate annotated classes to load (read only) from a pair of tables in a legacy system. The legacy system uses a consistent (if somewhat dated) approach to keying tables. The tables I'm attempting to map are as follows: Customer CustomerAddress -------------------------- ---------------------------- customerNumber:string (pk) customerNumber:string (pk_1) name:string sequenceNumber:int (pk_2) street:string postalCode:string I've approached this by creating a CustomerAddress class like this: @Entity @Table(name="CustomerAddress") @IdClass(CustomerAddressKey.class) public class CustomerAddress { @Id @AttributeOverrides({ @AttributeOverride(name = "customerNumber", column = @Column(name="customerNumber")), @AttributeOverride(name = "sequenceNumber", column = @Column(name="sequenceNumber")) }) private String customerNumber; private int sequenceNumber; private String name; private String postalCode; ... } Where the CustomerAddressKey class is a simple Serializable object with the two key fields. The Customer object is then defined as: @Entity @Table(name = "Customer") public class Customer { private String customerNumber; private List<CustomerAddress> addresses = new ArrayList<CustomerAddress>(); private String name; ... } So, my question is: how do I express the OneToMany relationship on the Customer table?

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