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  • How can I tell whether a webpart that has been deployed to a site is a native webpart that ships wit

    - by program247365
    I have a SharePoint 2007 MOSS instance, and I'm on a fact-finding mission. There have been multiple developers, developing multiple webparts and deploying them (using VS2005/2008 SharePoint Extensions). I thought maybe I could look at the fields in the "Web Part Gallery" list in my site, and look by "Modified by", but it looks like a developer's name is on some of the out-of-the-box webparts somehow, and on ones I know are custom developed, they say "System Account" - so looking at that field in this list is a no go. I thought then maybe I could look at the "Group" to which each webpart was assigned but it looks like they were arbitrarily assigned to many different groups inconsistently - so using that piece of information is a no go. Here is my code I have for just looping through and getting the names of all the webparts. Is there any property I can access on the list items of webparts that would tell me whether it's a custom developed webpart? Any way to distinguish the custom webparts from the out-of-the-box ones? Is there another way to do this? #region Misc Site Collection Methods public static List<string> GetAllWebParts(string connectedSPInstanceUrl) { List<string> lstWebParts = new List<string>(); try { using (SPSite site = new SPSite(connectedSPInstanceUrl)) { using (SPWeb web = site.OpenWeb()) { SPList list = web.Lists["Web Part Gallery"]; foreach (SPListItem item in list.Items) { lstWebParts.Add(item.Name); } } } } catch (Exception ex) { lstWebParts.Add("Error"); lstWebParts.Add("Message: " + ex.Message); lstWebParts.Add("Inner Exception: " + ex.InnerException.ToString()); lstWebParts.Add("Stack Trace: " + ex.StackTrace); } return lstWebParts; } #endregion

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  • Erlang ODBC parameter query with null parameters

    - by Schlomer
    Is it possible to pass null values to parameter queries? For example Sql = "insert into TableX values (?,?)". Params = [{sql_integer, [Val1]}, {sql_float, [Val2]}]. % Val2 may be a float, or it may be the atom, undefined odbc:param_query(OdbcRef, Sql, Params). Now, of course odbc:param_query/3 is going to complain if Val2 is undefined when trying to match to a sql_float, but my question is... Is it possible to use a parameterized query, such as: Sql = "insert into TableY values (?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?)". with any null parameters? I have a use case where I am dumping a large number of real-time data into a database by either inserting or updating. Some of the tables I am updating have a dozen or so nullable fields, and I do not have a guarantee that all of the data will be there. Concatenating a SQL together for each query, checking for null values seems complex, and the wrong way to do it. Having a parameterized query for each permutation is simply not an option. Any thoughts or ideas would be fantastic! Thank you!

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  • IBOutlet instances are (null) after loading from NIB

    - by Zach
    I am working on an iPhone app and am getting (null) references to IBOutlet fields in my controller. I have a UIViewController subclass that is set as the File's Owner in my XIB. I have a set of UI elements that are wired into the controller. After loading from NIB and attempting to set properties on those UI elements, I find that they are (null). To clarify, some code: ExpandSearchPageController.h: @interface ExpandSearchPageController : UIViewController { IBOutlet UITextView * completeMessageView; } -(void)checkTextField; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UITextView * completeMessageView; ExpandSearchPageController.m: @implementation ExpandSearchPageController @synthesize completeMessageView; -(void)checkTextField { NSLog(@"text field: %@",completeMessageView); } ExpandSearchPageController is set as the File's Owner for ExpandSearchPage.xib. ExpandSearchPage.xib's UITextView is wired to the completeMessageView. When I call ExpandSearchPageController * searchExpanderPage = [[ExpandSearchPageController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ExpandSearchPage" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; [searchExpanderPage checkTextField]; the result is "text field: (null)" Sorry if this is a total newb question, but I guess I'm still a newb at iPhone programming! Thanks in advance!

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  • Access 2007 and Special/Unicode Characters in SQL

    - by blockcipher
    I have a small Access 2007 database that I need to be able to import data from an existing spreadsheet and put it into our new relational model. For the most part this seems to work pretty well. Part of the process is attempting to see if a record already exists in a target table using SQL. For example, if I extract book information out of the current row in the spreadsheet, it may contain a title and abstract. I use SQL to get the ID of a matching record, if it exists. This works fine except when I have data that's in a non-English language. In this case, it seems that there is some punctuation that is causing me problems. At least I think it's punctuation as I do have some fields that do not have punctuation and are non-English that do not give me any problems. Is there a built-in function that can escape these characters? Currently I have a small function that will escape the single quote character, but that isn't enough. Or, is there a list of Unicode characters that can interfere with how SQL wants data quoted? Thanks in advance.

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  • Is this a safe/valid hash method implementation?

    - by Sean
    I have a set of classes to represent some objects loaded from a database. There are a couple variations of these objects, so I have a common base class and two subclasses to represent the differences. One of the key fields they have in common is an id field. Unfortunately, the id of an object is not unique across all variations, but within a single variation. What I mean is, a single object of type A could have an id between, say, 0 and 1,000,000. An object of type B could have an id between, 25,000 and 1,025,000. This means there's some overlap of id numbers. The objects are just variations of the same kind of thing, though, so I want to think of them as such in my code. (They were assigned ids from different sets for legacy reasons.) So I have classes like this: @class BaseClass @class TypeAClass : BaseClass @class TypeBClass : BaseClass BaseClass has a method (NSNumber *)objectId. However instances of TypeA and TypeB could have overlapping ids as discussed above, so when it comes to equality and putting these into sets, I cannot just use the id alone to check it. The unique key of these instances is, essentially, (class + objectId). So I figured that I could do this by making the following hash function on the BaseClass: -(NSUInteger)hash { return (NSUInteger)[self class] ^ [self.objectId hash]; } I also implemented isEqual like so: - (BOOL)isEqual:(id)object { return (self == object) || ([object class] == [self class] && [self.objectId isEqual:[object objectId]]); } This seems to be working, but I guess I'm just asking here to make sure I'm not overlooking something - especially with the generation of the hash by using the class pointer in that way. Is this safe or is there a better way to do this?

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  • django: How to make one form from multiple models containing foreignkeys

    - by Tim
    I am trying to make a form on one page that uses multiple models. The models reference each other. I am having trouble getting the form to validate because I cant figure out how to get the id of two of the models used in the form into the form to validate it. I used a hidden key in the template but I cant figure out how to make it work in the views My code is below: views: def the_view(request, a_id,): if request.method == 'POST': b_form= BForm(request.POST) c_form =CForm(request.POST) print "post" if b_form.is_valid() and c_form.is_valid(): print "valid" b_form.save() c_form.save() return HttpResponseRedirect(reverse('myproj.pro.views.this_page')) else: b_form= BForm() c_form = CForm() b_ide = B.objects.get(pk=request.b_id) id_of_a = A.objects.get(pk=a_id) return render_to_response('myproj/a/c.html', {'b_form':b_form, 'c_form':c_form, 'id_of_a':id_of_a, 'b_id':b_ide }) models class A(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=256, null=True, blank=True) classe = models.CharField(max_length=256, null=True, blank=True) def __str__(self): return self.name class B(models.Model): aid = models.ForeignKey(A, null=True, blank=True) number = models.IntegerField(max_length=1000) other_number = models.IntegerField(max_length=1000) class C(models.Model): bid = models.ForeignKey(B, null=False, blank=False) field_name = models.CharField(max_length=15) field_value = models.CharField(max_length=256, null=True, blank=True) forms from mappamundi.mappa.models import A, B, C class BForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = B exclude = ('aid',) class CForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = C exclude = ('bid',) B has a foreign key reference to A, C has a foreign key reference to B. Since the models are related, I want to have the forms for them on one page, 1 submit button. Since I need to fill out fields for the forms for B and C & I dont want to select the id of B from a drop down list, I need to somehow get the id of the B form into the form so it will validate. I have a hidden field in the template, I just need to figure how to do it in the views

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  • submitting the form even if the form is in invalid state

    - by Abu Hamzah
    i am using asp.net web forms and i am using bassistance.de jquery validation.. i have bunch of fields in the form and its validatating how it suppose to but its still executing my code behind code, why is it doing that? here is my code: form: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#aspnetForm").validate({ rules: { <%=txtVisitName.UniqueID %>: { maxlength:1, //minlength: 12, required: true } ................. }, messages: { <%=txtVisitName.UniqueID %>: { required: "Enter visit name", minlength: jQuery.format("Enter at least {0} characters.") } ............ }, success: function(label) { label.html("&nbsp;").addClass("checked"); } }); $("#aspnetForm").validate(); }); </script> <div > <h1> Page</h1> <asp:Label runat="server" ID='Label1'>Visit Name:</asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="txtVisitName" runat='server'></asp:TextBox> ............ ............... <button id="btnSubmit" name="btnSubmit" type="submit"> Submit</button> </div> and i have a external .js file referencing to my web form page. $(document).ready(function() { $("#btnSubmit").click(function() { SavePage(); }); }); i have a WebMethod .cs and i have bookmark and it does hitting that line of code even thoug my page is in invalid state. how would i fix this? thanks.

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  • jQuery - select onchange to slide in / slide out div or form

    - by slayaz
    Hi, I am trying to enhance a form, by showing only relevant fields depending on initial selection via a form select field. It is an order form for 3 products and all 3 products have unique properties. My idea was to hide all the content in divs, then reveal the relevant div when the product is selected. I have found some solutions that show / hide a div, but none with any animation. It doesn't have to be a slide but just something nice! The alternative is instead of revealing a div, would be to load a seperate form, but this seems unnecessary. I am not sure whether i need a plug in, as I am pretty new to jquery. What i have in the html is: <style type="text/css"> .hide { display:none; } <select> <option value="" >Please select product below</option> <option value="pro1">Product 1</option> <option value="pro2">Product 2</option> </select> <div id="pro1" class="hide" >Product 1</div> <div id="pro2" class="hide" >Product 2</div> Many thanks in advance

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  • Intercepting Xstream conversion while parsing XML

    - by Shane Bell
    Suppose I have a simple Java class like this: public class User { String firstName; String lastName; public String getFirstName() { return firstName; } public void setFirstName(String firstName) { this.firstName = firstName; } public String getLastName() { return lastName; } public void setLastName(String lastName) { this.lastName = lastName; } } Now, suppose I want to parse the following XML: <user> <firstName>Homer</firstName> <lastName>Simpson</lastName> </user> I can do this with no problems in XStream like so: User homer = (User) xstream.fromXML(xml); Ok, all good so far, but here's my problem. Suppose I have the following XML that I want to parse: <user> <fullName>Homer Simpson</fullName> </user> How can I convert this XML into the same User object using XStream? I'd like a way to implement some kind of callback so that when XStream parses the fullName field, I can split the string in two and manually set the first name and last name fields on the user object. Is this possible? Note that I'm not asking how to split the string in two (that's the easy part), I want to know how to intercept the XML parsing so XStream doesn't try to reflectively set the fullName field on the User object (which obviously doesn't exist). I looked at the converters that XStream provides but couldn't figure out how to use it for this purpose. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • How do I write this MySQL query?

    - by CT
    I am working on an Asset DB using a lamp stack. In this example consider the following 5 tables: asset, server, laptop, desktop, software All tables have a primary key of id, which is a unique asset id. Every object has all asset attributes and then depending on type of asset has additional attributes in the corresponding table. If the type is a server, desktop or laptop it also has items in the software table. Here are the table create statements: // connect to mysql server and database "asset_db" mysql_connect("localhost", "asset_db", "asset_db") or die(mysql_error()); mysql_select_db("asset_db") or die(mysql_error()); // create asset table mysql_query("CREATE TABLE asset( id VARCHAR(50) PRIMARY KEY, company VARCHAR(50), location VARCHAR(50), purchase_date VARCHAR(50), purchase_order VARCHAR(50), value VARCHAR(50), type VARCHAR(50), notes VARCHAR(200))") or die(mysql_error()); echo "Asset Table Created.</br />"; // create software table mysql_query("CREATE TABLE software( id VARCHAR(50) PRIMARY KEY, software VARCHAR(50), license VARCHAR(50))") or die(mysql_error()); echo "Software Table Created.</br />"; // create laptop table mysql_query("CREATE TABLE laptop( id VARCHAR(50) PRIMARY KEY, manufacturer VARCHAR(50), model VARCHAR(50), serial_number VARCHAR(50), esc VARCHAR(50), user VARCHAR(50), prev_user VARCHAR(50), warranty VARCHAR(50))") or die(mysql_error()); echo "Laptop Table Created.</br />"; // create desktop table mysql_query("CREATE TABLE desktop( id VARCHAR(50) PRIMARY KEY, manufacturer VARCHAR(50), model VARCHAR(50), serial_number VARCHAR(50), esc VARCHAR(50), user VARCHAR(50), prev_user VARCHAR(50), warranty VARCHAR(50))") or die(mysql_error()); echo "Desktop Table Created.</br />"; // create server table mysql_query("CREATE TABLE server( id VARCHAR(50) PRIMARY KEY, manufacturer VARCHAR(50), model VARCHAR(50), warranty VARCHAR(50))") or die(mysql_error()); echo "Server Table Created.</br />"; ?> How do I query the database so that if I search by id, I receive all related fields to that asset id? Thank you.

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  • Dangling pointers and double free

    - by user151410
    After some painful experiences, I understand the problem of dangling pointers and double free. I am seeking proper solutions. aStruct has a number of fields including other arrays. aStruct *A=NULL, *B = NULL; A = (aStruct*) calloc(1, sizeof(sStruct)); B = A; free_aStruct(A); ... //bunch of other code in various places. ... free_aStruct(B); Is there any way to write free_aStruct(X) so that free_aStruct(B) exists gracefully?? void free_aStruct(aStruct *X){ if (X ! = NULL){ if (X->a != NULL){free(X->a); x->a = NULL;} free(X); X = NULL; } } Doing above only sets A = NULL when free_aStruct(A); is called. B is now dangling. How can this situation be avoided / remedied? Is reference counting the only viable solution? or, are there other "defensive" free approaches, to prevent free_aStruct(B); from exploding? Thanks, Russ

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  • Problem with Active Record

    - by kshchepelin
    Hello everyone. Lets assume we have a User model. And user can plan some activities. The number of types of activities is about 50. All activities have common properties, such as start_time, end_time, user_id, etc. But each of them has some unique properties. Now we have each activity living in its own table in DB. And thats why we have such terrible sql queries like SELECT * FROM `first_activities_table` WHERE (`first_activity`.`id` IN (17,18)) SELECT * FROM `second_activities_table` WHERE (`second_activity`.`id` = 17) ..... SELECT * FROM `n_activities_table` WHERE (`n_activity`.`id` = 44) About 50 queries. That's terrible. There are different ways to solve this. Choose the activity type with the biggest number of properties, create the table 'Activities' and have STI model. But this way we must name our columns in uncomfortable way and often the record in that table would have some NULL fields. Also STI model, but having columns, common for all of activity types and some blob column with serialized properties. But we have to do some search on activities - there can be a problem. And serialization is quite slow. Please help me dealing with this. Maybe my problem has quite different solution that will fit my needs. Thanks for help.

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  • use awk to identify multi-line record and filtering

    - by nanshi
    I need to process a big data file that contains multi-line records, example input: 1 Name Dan 1 Title Professor 1 Address aaa street 1 City xxx city 1 State yyy 1 Phone 123-456-7890 2 Name Luke 2 Title Professor 2 Address bbb street 2 City xxx city 3 Name Tom 3 Title Associate Professor 3 Like Golf 4 Name 4 Title Trainer 4 Likes Running Note that the first integer field is unique and really identifies a whole record. So in the above input I really have 4 records although I dont know how many lines of attributes each records may have. I need to: - identify valid record (must have "Name" and "Title" field) - output the available attributes for each valid record, say "Name", "Title", "Address" are needed fields. Example output: 1 Name Dan 1 Title Professor 1 Address aaa street 2 Name Luke 2 Title Professor 2 Address bbb street 3 Name Tom 3 Title Associate Professor So in the output file, record 4 is removed since it doen't have the "Name" field. Record 3 doesn't have Address field but still being print to the output since it is a valid record that has "Name" and "Title". Can I do this with awk? But how do i identify a whole record using the first "id" field on each line? Thanks a lot to the unix shell script expert for helping me out! :)

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  • Populating a foreign key table with variable user input

    - by Vincent
    I'm working on a website that will be based on user contributed data, submitted using a regular HTML form. To simplify my question, let's say that there will be two fields in the form: "User Name" and "Country" (this is just an example, not the actual site). There will be two tables in the database : "countries" and "users," with "users.country_id" being a foreign key to the "countries" table (one-to-many). The initial database will be empty. Users from all over the world will submit their names and the countries they live in and eventually the "countries" table will get filled out with all of the country names in the world. Since one country can have several alternative names, input like Chile, Chili, Chilli will generate 3 different records in the countries table, but in fact there is only one country. When I search for records from Chile, Chili and Chilli will not be included. So my question is - what would be the best way to deal with a situation like this, with conditions such that the initial database is empty, no other resources are available and everything is based on user input? How can I organize it in such way that Chile, Chili and Chilli would be treated as one country, with minimum manual interference. What are the best practices when it comes to normalizing user submitted data and is there a scientific term for this? I'm sure this is a common problem. Again, I used country names just to simplify my question, it can be anything that has possible different spellings.

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  • Validating Age field javascript beginner

    - by Marcelo
    Hi people, I'm trying to validate an age field in a form but I'm having some problem. First I tried to make sure that the field will not be send empty. I don't know javascript so I searched some scripts and adapted them to this: function isInteger (s) { var i; if (isEmpty(s)) if (isInteger.arguments.length == 1) return 0; else return (isInteger.arguments[1] == true); for (i = 0; i < s.length; i++) { var c = s.charAt(i); if (!isDigit(c)) return false; } return true; } function isEmpty(s) { return ((s == null) || (s.length == 0)) } function validate_required(field,alerttxt) { with (field) { if (value==null||value=="") { alert(alerttxt);return false; } else { return true; } } } function validate_form(thisform) { with (thisform) { if ((validate_required(age,"Age must be filled out!")==false) || isInteger(age,"Age must be and int number")==false)) {email.focus();return false;} } } //html part <form action="doador.php" onsubmit="return validate_form(this)" method="post"> It's working fine for empty fields, but if I type any letters or characters in age field, it'll be sent and saved a 0 in my database. Can any one help me ? Sorry for any mistake in English, and thanks in andvance for your help.

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  • cakephp read and display from more than one related table

    - by z22
    I have 2 tables Users and Artists. User: id name password city_id state_id country_id Artist: id user_id description I wish to create add and edit form(single form acts as add and edit). But on click of edit link, I wish to fill in the form fields from user as well as artist table. How do i do that? Below is my controller code: public function artist_register() { $this->country_list(); if ($this->request->is('post')) { $this->request->data['User']['group_id'] = 2; if ($this->{$this->modelClass}->saveAll($this->request->data)) { $this->redirect(array('controller' => 'Users', 'action' => 'login')); } } $this->render('artist_update'); } public function artist_update($id) { $artist = $this->{$this->modelClass}->findByuser_id($id); $artist_id = $artist[$this->modelClass]['id']; if($this->request->is('get')) { $this->request->data = $this->{$this->modelClass}->read(null, $artist_id); $this->request->data = $this->{$this->modelClass}->User->read(null, $id); } else { if($this->{$this->modelClass}->save($this->request->data)) { $this->Session->setFlash('Your Profile has been updated'); $this->redirect(array('action' => 'index')); } } } The code doesnt work. how do i solve it?

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  • jquery how to make insertBefore work only once, on first click?

    - by user313271
    jquery $(function(){ $('#4').click(function() { $('<input name="if4" type="text" value="other price>"').insertBefore('form textarea'); }); }); html <form> < input name="name" type="text" value="Enter your name" /><br /> < input name="contacts" type="text" value="Contact info" /><br /> < select name="services"> < option value="1">1</option> < option value="2">2</option> < option value="3">3</option> < option id="4" value="Other">4</option> < /select><br /> < textarea name="description">Description</textarea><br /> < /form> And one more question about it, when i press on option number 4 two time,there appears 2 new fields, is there any way how to fix it, that new field appear only 1 time, after first click ?

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  • Execute function without sending 'self' to it

    - by Sergey
    Is that possible to define a function without referencing to self this way? def myfunc(var_a,var_b) But so that it could also get sender data, like if I defined it like this: def myfunc(self, var_a,var_b) That self is always the same so it looks a little redundant here always to run a function this way: myfunc(self,'data_a','data_b'). Then I would like to get its data in the function like this sender.fields. UPDATE: Here is some code to understand better what I mean. The class below is used to show a page based on Jinja2 templates engine for users to sign up. class SignupHandler(webapp.RequestHandler): def get(self, *args, **kwargs): utils.render_template(self, 'signup.html') And this code below is a render_template that I created as wrapper to Jinja2 functions to use it more conveniently in my project: def render_template(response, template_name, vars=dict(), is_string=False): template_dirs = [os.path.join(root(), 'templates')] logging.info(template_dirs[0]) env = Environment(loader=FileSystemLoader(template_dirs)) try: template = env.get_template(template_name) except TemplateNotFound: raise TemplateNotFound(template_name) content = template.render(vars) if is_string: return content else: response.response.out.write(content) As I use this function render_template very often in my project and usually the same way, just with different template files, I wondered if there was a way to get rid of having to call it like I do it now, with self as the first argument but still having access to that object.

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  • How to convert model into url properly in asp.net MVC?

    - by 4eburek
    From the SEO standpoint it is nice to see urls in format which explains what is located on a page Let's have a look on such situation (it is just example) We need to display page about some user and decided to have such url template for that page: /user/{UserId}/{UserCountry}/{UserLogin}. And create for this purpose such model public class UserUrlInfo{ public int UserId{get;set;} public string UserCountry{get;set;} public string UserLogin{get;set;} } I want to create controller method where I pass UserUrlInfo object but not all required fields. Classic controller method for url template shown above is following public ActionResult Index(int UserId, string UserCountry, string UserLogin){ return View(); } and we need to call it like that Html.ActionLink<UserController>(x=>Index(user.UserId, user.UserCountry, user.UserLogin), "See user page") I want to create such controller method public ActionResult Index(UserUrlInfo userInfo){ return View(); } and call it like that: Html.ActionLink<UserController>(x=>Index(user), "See user page") Actually I works when we add one more route and point it to the same controller method, so routing will be: /user/{userInfo} /user/{UserId}/{UserCountry}/{UserLogin} In this situation routing engine gets string method of our model (need to override it) and it works ALMOST always. But sometimes it fails and show url like /page/?userInfo=/US/John So my workaround does not always work properly. Does anybody know how to work with urls in such way?

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  • Django: How to dynamically add tag field to third party apps without touching app's source code

    - by Chris Lawlor
    Scenario: large project with many third party apps. Want to add tagging to those apps without having to modify the apps' source. My first thought was to first specify a list of models in settings.py (like ['appname.modelname',], and call django-tagging's register function on each of them. The register function adds a TagField and a custom manager to the specified model. The problem with that approach is that the function needs to run BEFORE the DB schema is generated. I tried running the register function directly in settings.py, but I need django.db.models.get_model to get the actual model reference from only a string, and I can't seem to import that from settings.py - no matter what I try I get an ImportError. The tagging.register function imports OK however. So I changed tactics and wrote a custom management command in an otherwise empty app. The problem there is that the only signal which hooks into syncdb is post_syncdb which is useless to me since it fires after the DB schema has been generated. The only other approach I can think of at the moment is to generate and run a 'south' like database schema migration. This seems more like a hack than a solution. This seems like it should be a pretty common need, but I haven't been able to find a clean solution. So my question is: Is it possible to dynamically add fields to a model BEFORE the schema is generated, but more specifically, is it possible to add tagging to a third party model without editing it's source. To clarify, I know it is possible to create and store Tags without having a TagField on the model, but there is a major flaw in that approach in that it is difficult to simultaneously create and tag a new model.

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  • IE8 claims my page has an error, firefox doesn't, and I can't find any error. Help!

    - by Bears will eat you
    This is something of a follow-up question to my question here. You can find the HTML source in a text file here. When I load that page in IE8, I get the "Done, but with errors on page." message in my status bar. The detail view shows Expected identifier sms Line: 147 Code: 0 Char: 67 and I see absolutely no problems anywhere near there. In IE8, the page is still behaving erratically w/r/t the randomly losing focus as mentioned in my other question. When I load the same exact page in Firefox (using Firebug) the console shows no errors and the page works perfectly. Any thoughts on what's going on here? This is driving me nuts and making me want to give up on even trying to write an IE friendly page. Edit: Thanks for all the comments! This page is written as a JSP, so I edit in Eclipse. I found an Eclipse warning about the onblur event for the username field. I switched it from onblur="alert(document.activeElement + ' class:' + document.activeElement.class)" to onblur="alert(document.activeElement)" and that made the bizarre IE page error vanish. I had been trying to give more info (namely, its CSS class) about specifically which element is stealing focus - to my own detriment, apparently, since Javascript was interpreting the '.class' part in the Java(script) sense. And, no, the page doesn't validate. But the errors were mostly/all ones that just didn't make sense, such as Line 14, Column 41: Attribute "LANGUAGE" is not a valid attribute. Did you mean "language"? to which I say, WTF?! But I'm still stuck trying to figure out why, as I enter text in the username & password fields, focus randomly switches to a div (working on figuring out which div currently). Edit 2: It's the div between the two "global nav" comments, at the very top of the body. Still no idea why it's happening, though.

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  • How to build a Django form which requires a delay to be re-submitted ?

    - by pierre-guillaume-degans
    Hey, In order to avoid spamming, I would like to add a waiting time to re-submit a form (i.e. the user should wait a few seconds to submit the form, except the first time that this form is submitted). To do that, I added a timestamp to my form (and a security_hash field containing the timestamp plus the settings.SECRET_KEY which ensures that the timestamp is not fiddled with). This look like: class MyForm(forms.Form): timestamp = forms.IntegerField(widget=forms.HiddenInput) security_hash = forms.CharField(min_length=40, max_length=40, widget=forms.HiddenInput) # + some other fields.. # + methods to build the hash and to clean the timestamp... # (it is based on django.contrib.comments.forms.CommentSecurityForm) def clean_timestamp(self): """Make sure the delay is over (5 seconds).""" ts = self.cleaned_data["timestamp"] if not time.time() - ts > 5: raise forms.ValidationError("Timestamp check failed") return ts # etc... This works fine. However there is still an issue: the timestamp is checked the first time the form is submitted by the user, and I need to avoid this. Any idea to fix it ? Thank you ! :-)

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  • JQuery Modal Boxes and Iframe

    - by Ólafur Waage
    I've been using Simple Modal and i feel it doesn't live up to what i need at the moment. Is there a Modal Box that supports loading external files and allows those external files to close the modal box and redirect the parent page to some url. An example of what i want to do. You have a list of users, you could click "Add user" and a Modal Box with the form pops up, you fill that in and submit it. That would close the box and reload the user list page so you would see the user in the list. Then you could click "Edit user" and a Modal Box with the user info filled in the form fields would pop up and you could edit, submit and it would close and refresh. I know this can be done if i have the user info form as a hidden div for each user but this will not scale well and it is a lot of overhead data. I found some code about this on Google Code but just can't get it to work (possibly different simple modal version I am willing to change to another modal box tool also. UPDATE: Do either Thickbox or Fancybox support being closed from a child IFrame element?

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  • x509 certificate verification in C

    - by sid
    Hi All, I do have certificates in DER and PEM format, My goal is to retrieve the fields of Issuer and Subject And verify the Certificate with the CA public key and simultaneously verify CA certificate with the Root public key. I am able to retrieve all the details of issuer and subject But unable to verify the certificate. Please help. The API's used, x509 = d2i_X509_fp (fp, &x509); //READING DER Format x509 = PEM_read_X509 (fp, &x509, NULL, NULL); //READING PEM Format X509_NAME_oneline(X509_get_subject_name(x509), subject, sizeof (subject)); //to retrive the Subject X509_NAME_oneline(X509_get_issuer_name(x509), issuer, sizeof (issuer)); //to retrive the Issuer // to store the CA public key (in unsigned char *key)that will be used to verify the certificate (My case Always sha1WithRSAEncryption) RSA *x = X509_get_pubkey(x509)->pkey.rsa; bn = x->n; //extracts the bytes from public key & convert into unsigned char buffer buf_len = (size_t) BN_num_bytes (bn); stored_CA_pubKey = (unsigned char *)malloc (buf_len); i_n = BN_bn2bin (bn, (unsigned char *)stored_CA_pubKey); if (i_n != buf_len) LOG(ERROR," : key error\n"); if (key[0] & 0x80) LOG(DEBUG, "00\n"); stored_CA_pubKeyLen = EVP_PKEY_size(X509_get_pubkey(x509)); For Verification I went through different approaches but unable to verify a) i_x509_verify = X509_verify(cert_x509, ca_pubkey); b) /* verify the signature */ int iRet1, iRet2, iReason; iRet1 = EVP_VerifyInit(&md_ctx, EVP_sha1()); iRet2 = EVP_VerifyUpdate(&md_ctx, cert_code, cert_code_len); rv = EVP_VerifyFinal(&md_ctx, (const unsigned char *)stored_CA_pubKey, stored_CA_pubKeyLen, cert_pubkey); NOTE : cert_code & stored_CA_pubKey is unsigned char buffer. Thanks in Advance

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  • using linq to sql

    - by mazhar
    Well I am new to this orm stuff. We have to create a large project . I read about linq to sql . will it be appropiate to use it in the project of high risk . i found no problem with it personally but the thing is that there will be no going back once started.So i need some feedback from the orm gurus here at the msdn.Will entity framework will be better?( I am in doubt about link to sql because I have read and heard negative feedback here and there) I will be using mvc2 as the framework. So please give the feedback about linq to sql in this regard. q2) Also I am a fan of stored procedure as they are precomputed and fasten up the thing and I have never worked without them.I know that linq to sql support stored procedures but will it be feasible to give up stored procedure seeing the beautiful data access layer generated with little effort as we are also in a need of rapid development. q3) If some changes to some fields required in the database in Link to Sql how will the changes be accommodated in the data access layer.

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