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  • how to align multiple div's next to each other?

    - by Ashok Kumar
    I am new to Html,I'm trying to align multiple div's next to each other horizontally. i tried float property and display inline property also, but nothing works correctly.can anyone suggest any methods for it? my code: #display2letter { width:150px; height:50px; background-color:grey; box: 10px 10px 5px #888888; } #display3letter { width:150px; height:50px; background-color:blue; box: 10px 10px 5px #888888; } #display4letter { width:150px; height:50px; background-color:grey; box: 10px 10px 5px #888888; } #one { position:fixed; left:23%; } #two { position:fixed; left:23%; } #three { position:fixed; left:23%; } here is the fiddle http://jsfiddle.net/pGHS9/1/

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  • Is it possible to anti alias using Copy swap effect?

    - by Nor
    I'm developing an application in VB.Net using Managed DirectX that runs in windowed mode and renders onto a picture box that is smaller than the form. Whenever I resize the form, the back buffer is streched to fit the picture box. This is not what I would like. The backbuffer size is the same as screen size, however, I only want to render a part of the back buffer, whose size is controlled by the size of the picture box into which I'm rendering. Resetting the device with new presentation parameters is something I would like to avoid. I'm aware that I can use an overload of Device.Present if I set the swap effect to copy, but this doesn't allow me to use Multi Sample Anti Alias (which requires the Discard swap effect). It seems to me that the overload Device.Present is not usable with any other swap effect than copy, and throws an exception. An other alternative I considered is the PresentFlags.DeviceClip, however it seems that it works only for Windows XP. I'm using Windows 7 and it doesn't seem to be doing anything. So, is it even possible that I use anti-aliasing in this situation?

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  • Have a clickable button on top of a combobox in WPF

    - by Travyguy9
    I can get a button to appear and be clickable in the drop down list of a combo box, but I cannot get the selected combo box item (the drop list is closed) to have the button be clickable. It always skips the button click and just opens the drop down list. I basically want the Button_Click event handler that I setup to be called once it is clicked. Here is my sample combo box that shows the button but is not clickable once it is in the selected item: <ComboBox x:Name="MyCombo" Width="200" Height="30" ItemsSource="{Binding ListCombo}"> <ComboBox.Resources> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type local:ComboItemClass}"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=SampleText}" Width="120" /> <Button Width="20" Content="..." Click="Button_Click"/> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ComboBox.Resources> </ComboBox>

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  • How to find unmapped properties in a NHibernate mapped class?

    - by haarrrgh
    I just had a NHibernate related problem where I forgot to map one property of a class. A very simplified example: public class MyClass { public virtual int ID { get; set; } public virtual string SomeText { get; set; } public virtual int SomeNumber { get; set; } } ...and the mapping file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="MyAssembly" namespace="MyAssembly.MyNamespace"> <class name="MyClass" table="SomeTable"> <property name="ID" /> <property name="SomeText" /> </class> </hibernate-mapping> In this simple example, you can see the problem at once: there is a property named "SomeNumber" in the class, but not in the mapping file. So NHibernate will not map it and it will always be zero. The real class had a lot more properties, so the problem was not as easy to see and it took me quite some time to figure out why SomeNumber always returned zero even though I was 100% sure that the value in the database was != zero. So, here is my question: Is there some simple way to find this out via NHibernate? Like a compiler warning when a class is mapped, but some of its properties are not. Or some query that I can run that shows me unmapped properties in mapped classes...you get the idea. (Plus, it would be nice if I could exclude some legacy columns that I really don't want mapped.)

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  • simplemodal click events stopped working in IE7

    - by prettynerd
    Here's my code: $('#alertInfo').modal({ close :false, overlayId :'confirmModalOverlay', containerId :'confirmModalContainer', onShow : function(dialog) { dialog.data.find('.message').append(message); dialog.data.find('.yes').click(function(){ if ($.isFunction(callback)) callback.apply(); $.modal.close(); }); dialog.data.find('.close').click(function(){ $.modal.close(); }); } }); Basically, this is a dialogue box which I call to show a warning message that has a "X" button (with class 'close') and an "OK" button (with class 'yes'). The problem occurs in IE7. When I call this dialogue box and use my "X" button to close it everytime, my "X" button does not work anymore on the third time I call it (YES ON THE THIRD TIME!). However, if I use my "OK" button to close the dialogue box, it works fine no matter how many times I call it. I thought I found a workaround by unbinding and binding my click event of the '.close' class, as below: dialog.data.find('.close').unbind('click'); dialog.data.find('.close').bind('click',function(){$.modal.close();}); and it worked!!! unfortunately, however, the problem now occurs in my "OK" button. so, i did the same unbinding and binding the click event of the '.yes' class, as below: dialog.data.find('.yes').unbind('click'); dialog.data.find('.yes').bind('click', function() { if ($.isFunction(callback)) callback.apply(); $.modal.close(); }); BUT NOPE, IT DOES NOT WORK.. please help me.. @ericmmartin, i hope you're online now.. huhu..

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  • Sending variable data from one of two text boxes to javascript

    - by Enyalius
    Greetings, all! I am fairly new to JS (my background is in C++, enterprise languages like assembly and COBOL, and some light .NET), so I was wondering if I could get some advice regarding how to send variable information from one of two text boxes to some javascript and then have the JS do some basic checks and such. Here's the pseudocode for what I am trying to do: <form = webForm> <p> _____________ textboxPeople| searchIcon //a text box to search an online phonebook at my company. ------------- //It has a little "magnifying glass" icon to search //(onClick), but I would also like them to be able to //search by hitting the "enter" key on their keyboards. </p> <p> _____________ texboxIntranet| searchIcon //Same as above search textbox, but this one is used if ------------- //the user wishes to search my corporate intranet site. </form> So ends the front-facing basic form that I would like to use. Now, onClick or onEnter, I would like the form to pass the contents of the text box used as well as an identifier such as "People" or "Intranet," depending on which box is used, to some basic JS on the back end: begin JavaScript: if(identifier = 'People') fire peopleSearch(); else if(identifier = 'Intranet') fire intranetSearch(); function peopleSearch() { http://phonebook.corporate.com/query=submittedValue //This will take the person //that the user submitted in the form and //place it at the end of a URL, after which //it will open said complete URL in the //same window. } function intranetSearch() { http://intranet.corporate.com/query=submittedValue //This will function in the //same way as the people search function. } end JavaScript Any thoughts/suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Thank you all in advance!

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  • Base class Undefined WEIRD problem . Need help

    - by nXqd
    My CGameStateLogo which inherit from CGameState: CGameStateLogo.h #pragma once #include "GameState.h" class CGameMain; class CGameState; class CGameStateLogo: public CGameState { public: void MessageEnter (); void MessageUpdate( int iKey ); void MessagePaint( HDC* pDC ); public: CGameStateLogo(CGameMain* pGameMain); CGameStateLogo(void); ~CGameStateLogo(void); }; CGameState.h #pragma once #include "GameMain.h" #include "MyBitmap.h" class CGameMain; class CMyBitmap; class CGameState { public: CMyBitmap* pbmCurrent; CGameMain* pGM; int GameStateID; virtual void MessageEnter () = 0; virtual void MessageUpdate( int iKey ) = 0; virtual void MessagePaint( HDC* pDC ) = 0; void StateHandler ( int msg, HDC* pDC, int key ); public: CGameState(void); ~CGameState(void); }; Thanks for reading this :)

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  • Context path routing in Tomcat ( service swapping )

    - by jojovilco
    Here is what I would like to achieve: I have a web service A which I want to be able to deploy side by side with other web services of type A - different version(s). For now I assume 2 instances side by side. I need it because the service has a warm up stage, which takes some time to build up stuff from DB and only after it is ready it can start serving requests ... I was thinking to deploy to Tomcat context paths like: "/ServiceA-1.0", "/ServiceA-2.0" and then have a "virtual" context like "/ServiceA" which will point to the desired physical service e.g. "/ServiceA-1.0". So external world will know about ServiceA, but internally, my ServiceA related stack would know about versioned ServiceA url ( there are more components involved but only ServiceA is serving outer world ). When new service is ready, I would just reconfigure the "virtual" context to point to a new service. So far, I was not able to find out how to do this with Tomcat and starting to tkink it is not possible. I found suggestions to place Apache Server in front of Tomcat and do the routing there, but I do not want to enroll another piece of software unless necessary. My questions are: - is this kind of a "virtual" context and routing possible to do with Tomcat? - any other options, wisdom and lessons learned how to achieve this kind of service swapping scenario? Best, Jozef

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  • Get & set drop down value using jQuery.

    - by Muhammad Sajid
    If user select an option from dropdown it will shown it a textbox but if he select option having value "Other" then a row will appear to type value for other. my code works fine except when option value is not equal to "Other" <script type="text/javascript"><!-- function setAndReset(box) { if(box.value == 'Other'){ $("#ShowHide").hide(); } document.FormName.hiddenInput.value = box.value; } //--> </script> <body bgcolor="#ffffff"> <form id="FormName" action="" method="get" name="FormName"> <select name="choice1" size="1" onchange="setAndReset(this);"> <option value="one">first</option> <option value="two">second</option> <option value="three">third</option> <option value="other">Other</option> </select> <input type="text" name="hiddenInput" value=""> <tablt><tr id="ShowHide"><td> <input type="text" name="otherInput"> </td></tr></table> <input type="submit" name="submitButtonName"> </form> </body> but it does not show/hide & does not set value in textbox. If it's solve using jquery then i will be thankful to you for you code. Thanks.

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  • EF Code First, how can I achieve two foreign keys from one table to other table?

    - by Yoo Matsuo
    I've recently downloaded Entity Framework Code First CTP5, and have a trouble with this scenario. I have two tables as follows: Members table ID Name Comments table ID Comment CommentedMemberID CommentMemberID And, the data should be like the following: Members ID Name 1 Mike 2 John 3 Tom Comments ID Comment CommentedMemberID CommentMemberID 1 Good 1 2 2 Good 1 3 3 Bad 2 1 Then, I coded as shown below: public class Member { public int ID {get; set; } public string Name { get; set;} public virtual ICollection Comments { get; set;} } public class Comment { public int ID { get; set; } public string Comment { get; set; } public int CommentedMemberID { get; set; } public int CommentMemberID{ get; set; } public virtual Member CommentedMember { get; set; } public virtual Member CommentMember { get; set; } } public class TestContext : DbContext { public DbSet Members { get; set; } public DbSet Comments { get; set; } } But when I run these models on my cshtml, it gives me errors saying "Cannot create CommentMember instance" or something like that (Sorry, I already changed my models to proceed the EF Code First evaluation, so can't reproduce the same error). I've also tried to use OnModelCreating on the TestContext, but can't find any good instructions and don't know what to do. I saw a blog post of the EF Code First CTP3, and it seems there was a RelatedTo attribute in that version, but now it has gone. Could anyone know how to get it work properly? Or is this a totally wrong way to go with this scenario? Thanks, Yoo

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  • table column accepting "0" as a member Id

    - by user682417
    I have two tables one is members table with columns member id , member first name, member last name. I have another table guest passes with columns guest pass id and member id and issue date . I have a list view that will displays guest passes details (I.e) like member name and issue date and I have two text boxes those are for entering member name and issue date . member name text box is auto complete text box that working fine.... but the problem is when I am entering the name that is not in member table at this time it will accept and displays a blank field in list view in member name column and member id is stored as "0" in guest pass table ...... I don't want to display the member name empty blank and I don t want to store "0" in guest pass table and this is the insert statement sql2 = @"INSERT INTO guestpasses(member_Id,guestPass_IssueDate)"; sql2 += " VALUES("; sql2 += "'" + tbCGuestPassesMemberId.Text + "'"; sql2 += ",'" + tbIssueDate.Text + "'"; guestpassmemberId = memberid is there any validation that need to be done can any one suggestions on this pls... and this is the auto complete text box statement sql = @"SELECT member_Id FROM members WHERE concat(member_Firstname,'',member_Lastname) ='" + tbMemberName.Text+"'"; if (dt != null) { if (dt.Rows.Count > 0) { tbCGuestPassesMemberId.Text = Convert.ToInt32(dt.Rows[0] ["member_Id"]).ToString(); } } can any one help me on this ... is there any type of validation with sql query pls help me .....

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  • Can you explain this generics behavior and if I have a workaround?

    - by insta
    Sample program below: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace GenericsTest { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { IRetrievable<int, User> repo = new FakeRepository(); Console.WriteLine(repo.Retrieve(35)); } } class User { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } class FakeRepository : BaseRepository<User>, ICreatable<User>, IDeletable<User>, IRetrievable<int, User> { // why do I have to implement this here, instead of letting the // TKey generics implementation in the baseclass handle it? //public User Retrieve(int input) //{ // throw new NotImplementedException(); //} } class BaseRepository<TPoco> where TPoco : class,new() { public virtual TPoco Create() { return new TPoco(); } public virtual bool Delete(TPoco item) { return true; } public virtual TPoco Retrieve<TKey>(TKey input) { return null; } } interface ICreatable<TPoco> { TPoco Create(); } interface IDeletable<TPoco> { bool Delete(TPoco item); } interface IRetrievable<TKey, TPoco> { TPoco Retrieve(TKey input); } } This sample program represents the interfaces my actual program uses, and demonstrates the problem I'm having (commented out in FakeRepository). I would like for this method call to be generically handled by the base class (which in my real example is able to handle 95% of the cases given to it), allowing for overrides in the child classes by specifying the type of TKey explicitly. It doesn't seem to matter what parameter constraints I use for the IRetrievable, I can never get the method call to fall through to the base class. Also, if anyone can see an alternate way to implement this kind of behavior and get the result I'm ultimately looking for, I would be very interested to see it. Thoughts?

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  • Why is post() not updating the DOM after it returns? Wierd timing problem observed.

    - by Sephrial
    Hi all, I have the following code that is really bugging me, I'm thinking perhaps the post() function needs to be blocking. I am new to jQuery(latest version) and AJAX, but I'm using ColdFusion which returns some HTML in the data variable. var dataResult; var statusResult; $.post('fh_result.cfm',$('#myform').serialize(),function(data,status){ dataResult = data; statusResult = status; }); //alert(statusResult); if ('success' == statusResult) { alert(statusResult); $('#result').html(dataResult); } When I uncomment out the first alert, it returns 'undefined' but then it goes into the if block and the next alert box it says 'success'. If I comment out that line it doesn't make it into the if statement at all. My guess is that I want to make this a blocking call or something because I want to insert the data on the page after the post. I also have a problem when I re-write the top code as follows: var dataResult; var statusResult; $.post('fh_result.cfm',$('#myform').serialize(),function(data,status){ dataResult = data; statusResult = status; alert(statusResult); $('#result').html(dataResult); }); //alert(statusResult); Now in this case, the alert says 'success' when I comment out the second alert box. When I uncomment it out, I get one alert that says success and the other that says undefined, but this time it updates the DOM with the result of the postback as desired. How can I do this without the alert box?

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  • ASP.NET MVC3 ValueProvider drops string input to a double property

    - by Daniel Koverman
    I'm attempting to validate the input of a text box which corresponds to a property of type double in my model. If the user inputs "foo" I want to know about it so I can display an error. However, the ValueProvider is dropping the value silently (no errors are added to the ModelState). In a normal submission, I fill in "2" for the text box corresponding to myDouble and submit the form. Inspecting controllerContext.HttpContext.Request.Form shows that myDouble=2, among other correct inputs. bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue("myDouble") == 2, as expected. The bindingContext.ModelState.Count == 6 and bindingContext.ModelState["myDouble"].Errors.Count == 0. Everything is good and the model binds as expected. Then I fill in "foo" for the text box corresponding to myDouble and submitted the form. Inspecting controllerContext.HttpContext.Request.Form shows that myDouble=foo, which is what I expected. However, bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue("myDouble") == null and bindingContext.ModelState.Count == 5 (The exact number isn't important, but it's one less than before). Looking at the ValueProvider, is as if myDouble was never submitted and the model binding occurs as if it wasn't. This makes it difficult to differentiate between a bad input and no input. Is this the expected behavior of ValueProvider? Is there a way to get ValueProvider to report when conversion fails without implementing a custom ValueProvider? Thanks!

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  • Center <div> vertically within another <div>

    - by sab
    I am trying to setup something that looks like this with the arrow that is centered vertically: CSS: #arrowdiv { width:282px; height:61px; background-image:url('http://i.imgur.com/RV80I.png'); margin: 0 auto; } #optin { height:110px; width:960px; background-color:#FFFFBF; border:1px solid black; -moz-border-radius: 15px; border-radius: 15px; -moz-box-shadow: 3px 3px 4px #000; -webkit-box-shadow: 3px 3px 4px #000; box-shadow: 3px 3px 4px #000; /* For IE 8 */ -ms-filter: "progid:DXImageTransform.Microsoft.Shadow(Strength=4, Direction=135, Color='#000000')"; /* For IE 5.5 - 7 */ filter: progid:DXImageTransform.Microsoft.Shadow(Strength=4, Direction=135, Color='#000000'); margin: 0 auto; } #leftdiv { width:340px; height:108px; } ? HTML: <div id="optin"> <div id="leftdiv"> <div id="arrowdiv"></div> </div> </div>? http://jsfiddle.net/NzMLd/1/ Right now, it is only centered horizontally, as you can see in my jsFiddle.

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  • Socket stops communicating

    - by user1392992
    I'm running python 2.7 code on a Raspberry Pi that receives serial data from an Arduino, processes it, and sends it to a Windows box over a wifi link. The Pi is wired to a Linksys router running in client bridge mode and that router connects over wifi to another Linksys router to which the Windows box is wired. The code in the Pi runs fine for some (apparently) random interval, and then the Pi becomes unreachable from the Windows box. I'm running PUTTY on the the Windows machine to connect to the Pi and when the fail occurs I get a message saying there's been a network error and the Pi is not reachable. Pinging the Pi from the Windows machine works fine until the error, at which time it produces "Reply from 192.168.0.129: Destination host unreachable." The client bridge router to which the Pi is connected remains reachable. I've got the networking code on the Pi wrapped in an exception handler, and when it fails it shows the following: Ethernet problem: Traceback (most recent call last): File "garage.py", line 108, in module s.connect((host, port)) File "/usr/lib/python2.7/socket.py", line 224, in meth return getattr(self._sock,name)(*args) error: [Errno 113] No route to host None The relevant python code looks like: import socket import traceback host = '192.168.0.129' port = 31415 in the setup, and after serial data has been processed: try: bline = strline.encode('utf-8') s = socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM) s.connect((host, port)) s.send(bline) s.close() except: print "Ethernet problem: " print traceback.print_exc() Where strline contains the processed data. As I said, this runs fine for a few hours more or less before failing. Any ideas? EDIT: When PUTTY fails its error message is :Network Error: Software caused connection abort."

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  • Why doesn't my <div> float around another floated <div> while other elements do?

    - by user1848605
    I have a container with background color green. Inside that green <div>, I have a <div> which is black and styled as a box (50px x 50px) - this <div> is floated to the left. Now if I add a <p> to my markup after the grey <div>, I'd expect it to float around the grey <div>. And it does. However, when I substitue with another <div> which is styled as box (set height and width), it doesn't float around anymore, but disappears behind the floating div. Even if I have first paragraphs which are floating around correctly and THEN I add the div (box), the paragraphs stop floating around and appear on another line. HTML: <div id="greencontainer"> <div id="blackbox"></div> <!--this one is float:left;--> <p>A paragraph that floats around the previous div</p> <div id="anotherbox"></div> <!-- if I add another div with set width and height, it disappears behind the floated one, and even prevents the paragraph from floating around.--> </div> CSS: #blackbox { width:50px; height:50px; background-color:black; float:left; } #p { margin:0px; padding:0px; } #anotherbox { width:50px; height:50px; background-color:grey; }

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  • How to store and synchronize a big list of strings

    - by Joel
    I have a large database table in SQLExpress on Windows, with a particular field of interest 'code'. I have an Apache web server with MySQL on Linux. The web application on the Linux box needs access to the list of all codes. The only thing it will use the list for is checking for the existence of a given code. Having the Linux server call out to the Windows server is impractical as the Windows server is behind a NAT'ed office internet connection, and it may not always be accessible. I have set it so the Windows server will push the list of codes to the web server by means of a simple HTTP POST request. However, at this point I have not implemented the storage of the codes on the Linux box. Should I store them in a MySQL table with a single field 'code'? Then I get fast indexed lookups O(1), however I think synchronization will be an issue - given an updated list of codes, pushed from the Windows box, how would I optimally synchronize the list with the database? TRUNCATE, followed by INSERT? Should I instead store them in a flat file? Then I have O(n) look up time rather than O(1). Additionally an extra constant-time overhead too, as I will be processing the file in Ruby. However, synchronization is easy - simply replace the file.

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  • Jquery .next() function not working

    - by Sundhar
    Guys i am trying to do something like this i have two href and a text box in the middle of those <- TEXT <+ So when i press the - and + the value in the txt must increase or decrease by one " value="<%=addProduct.getInteger("ATR_WebMinQuantity",1)/addProduct.getInteger(MCRConstants.DM_ATR_LEGACY_CASE_VENDOR_PACK_SIZE,1) %" name="ADD_CART_ITEM<quantity" class="text" maxlength="3" / --! and i am using a jquery to + and - the value in the text box. Whenever i press + its happening correctly but for - it takes the TEXT fields name instead of its value . Any solution for this to make it to take the value of the TEXT box Jquery used follows : $(".quantity .subtract").click(function () { var qtyInput = $(this).next('input'); var qty = parseInt(qtyInput.val()); if (qty 1) qtyInput.val(qty - 1); qtyInput.focus(); return false; }); $(".quantity .add").click(function () { var qtyInput = $(this).prev('input'); var qty = parseInt(qtyInput.val()); if (qty >= 0 && (qty + 1 <= 999)) qtyInput.val(qty + 1); qtyInput.focus(); return false; });

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  • how do I resolve "user isn't assigned to any management roles" error in Exchange 2010 EMC?

    - by TheoJones
    Newly installed Exchange 2010 box (technically, a partially installed box, as this error is preventing me from completing the install). When I launch EMC or the Management Powershell, I get this error: VERBOSE: Connecting to myserver.mydomain.internal [myserver.mydomain.internal] Processing data from remote server failed with the following error message: The user "mydomain\administrator" isn't assigned to any management roles. For more information, see the about_Remote_Troubleshooting Help topic. Failed to connect to any Exchange Server in the current site. Thing is.. The logged in administrator account (confirmed using 'whoami') is a member of the following groups: Administrators Delegated Setup Discovery Management Domain Admins Domain Users Enterprise Admins Exchange Organization Administrators GPO Creator Owners Organization Management Schema Admins Server Management Any ideas? how can I get past this?

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  • Error 0x6ba (RPC server is unavailable) when running sfc /scannow on Windows XP in Safe Mode

    - by leeand00
    I think that my mup.sys file is corrupt. I received the following error when trying to access a network share that was located on my Windows 7 box, from my Windows XP box: No network provider accepted the given network path. After reading this I attempted to follow the directions by rebooting my computer into safe mode. After I run "sfc /scannow" I receive the following error message: The specific error code is 0x000006ba [The RPC server is unavailable]. When I go into Services, it says that the Remote Procedure Call (RPC) service is running but that the Remote Procedure Call (RPC) Locator is not running. When I try to start the Remote Procedure Call (RPC) Locator, it gives me an error saying: Error 1084: This service cannot be started in Safe Mode What can I do about this? If it can't find the Remote Procedure Call service in safe mode?

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  • Programmatically add an ISAPI extension dll in IIS 7 using ADSI?

    - by fretje
    I apologize beforehand, this is a cross post of this SO question. I thought I'd ask it there first, but apparently it doesn't harvest any answers there. I hope it will get more attention here. When I have an answer somewhere, I'll delete the other one. I'm trying to programmatically add an ISAPI extension dll in IIS using ADSI. This has been working for ages on previous versions of IIS, but it seems to fail on IIS 7. I am using similar code like shown in this question: var web = GetObject("IIS://localhost/W3SVC/1/ROOT/specificVirtualDirectory"); var maps = web.ScriptMaps.toArray(); map[maps.length] = ".aaa,c:\\path\\to\\isapi\\extension.dll,1,GET,POST"; web.ScriptMaps = maps.asDictionary(); web.SetInfo(); After executing that code, I do see an "AboMapperCustom-12345678" entry for that specific dll in the "Handler mappings" of the specific virtual directory in which I added the script map. But when I try to use that extension in a browser, I always get HTTP Error 404.2 Not Found The page you are requesting cannot be served because of the ISAPI and CGI Restriction list settings on the Web server. Even after adding an entry to allow that specific dll in the "ISAPI and CGI restrictions", I keep getting that error. To make it actually work, I first have to undo these steps (encountering the same issue like the OP of the question mentioned above: after deleting the script map entry from the IIS manager GUI, I also have to programmatically delete it using ADSI before it's actually gone from the metabase). And then manually add an entry like this: inetmgr - webserver - website - virtual directory - handler mappings - add script map... path = *.dll, executable = <path to dll>, name = <doesn't matter, but it's mandatory> click "yes" on the question "do you want to allow this ISAPI extension?" When I compare the 2 entries, they are exactly the same, except for the "Entry Type" which seems to be "Inherited" for the programmatically added one and "Local" for the one added manually. The strange thing is, even though it says "Inherited", I don't see it anywhere in IIS on a higher level. Where is it inheriting from? In my code, I do add the script map to the specific virtual directory so it should be "Local" as well. Maybe there is the problem, but I don't know how to add a "Local" Script Map using ADSI. I really would like to keep using the ADSI method, as otherwise I will have to use different methods in our setup when working with IIS 7 or previous versions, and I would like to avoid that. To recap: How can I programmatically add a script map entry and its companion CGI and ISAPI restrictions entry to IIS 7 using ADSI? Anybody who can shed some light on this? Any help appreciated.

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  • 401 - Unauthorized On Server 2008 R2 IIS 7.5

    - by mxmissile
    I have a web application deployed to Server 2008 IIS 7.5 box. From remote it gives this error: 401 - Unauthorized: Access is denied due to invalid credentials. (remote = desktops on the same LAN) Have tried several remote clients using different browsers, all the same result. (IE, FF, and Chrome) Hitting the application from the desktop of the server itself works flawlessly. The application is using Anonymous Authentication. The application is written in .NET 4.0 Asp.Net using the MVC framework. Sysinternals procmon returns these 2 results for each request: FAST IO DISALLOWED and PATH NOT FOUND. I have 2 other MVC apps running fine on the same server. I have checked the security on the folders and they all match. App runs fine on a Server 2008 IIS 7.0 box. Nothing shows up in the Event log on the server related to this. Pulling my hair out here, any troubleshooting tips?

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  • Ubuntu 8.04 server is not retaining a static IP address

    - by James Pierce
    I recently setup a linux box running Ubuntu 8.04 (to match another server with 8.04). I need to insure that this box has a static IP address and I changed /etc/network/interfaces to set up the static IP address and when I run sudo /etc/init.d/networking restart it works fine for a while, but always reverts back to 10.0.1.24 after being idle for a while. I also tried stopping/removing the dhcp client, but that didn't help. sudo /etc/init.d/dhcp stop sudo apt-get remove dhcp3-client Here is my /etc/init.d/networking: # The loopback network interface auto lo iface lo inet loopback # The primary network interface auto eth0 iface eth0 inet static address 10.0.1.4 netmask 255.255.255.0 broadcast 10.0.1.255 gateway 10.0.1.1 Any thoughts? Thanks.

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  • Running sfc /scannow provides the error The specific error code is 0x000006ba [The RPC server is una

    - by leeand00
    I think that my mup.sys file is corrupted, I received the following error when trying to access a network share that was located on my Windows 7 box, from my Windows xp box: No network provider accepted the given network path. After reading this I attempted to follow the directions by entering my computer into safe mode. After I run "sfc /scannow" I receive the following error message: The specific error code is 0x000006ba [The RPC server is unavailable]. Additionally when I go into Services, it says that the Remote Procedure Call (RPC) service is running but that the Remote Procedure Call (RPC) Locator is not running. When I try to start the Remote Procedure Call (RPC) Locator, it gives me an error saying: Error 1084: This service cannot be started in Safe Mode So what can I do about this exactly? If it can't find the Remote Procedure Call service in safe mode?

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