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  • Insertions into Zipper trees on XML files in Clojure

    - by ivar
    I'm confused as how to idiomatically change a xml tree accessed through clojure.contrib's zip-filter.xml. Should be trying to do this at all, or is there a better way? Say that I have some dummy xml file "itemdb.xml" like this: <itemlist> <item id="1"> <name>John</name> <desc>Works near here.</desc> </item> <item id="2"> <name>Sally</name> <desc>Owner of pet store.</desc> </item> </itemlist> And I have some code: (require '[clojure.zip :as zip] '[clojure.contrib.duck-streams :as ds] '[clojure.contrib.lazy-xml :as lxml] '[clojure.contrib.zip-filter.xml :as zf]) (def db (ref (zip/xml-zip (lxml/parse-trim (java.io.File. "itemdb.xml"))))) ;; Test that we can traverse and parse. (doall (map #(print (format "%10s: %s\n" (apply str (zf/xml-> % :name zf/text)) (apply str (zf/xml-> % :desc zf/text)))) (zf/xml-> @db :item))) ;; I assume something like this is needed to make the xml tags (defn create-item [name desc] {:tag :item :attrs {:id "3"} :contents (list {:tag :name :attrs {} :contents (list name)} {:tag :desc :attrs {} :contents (list desc)})}) (def fred-item (create-item "Fred" "Green-haired astrophysicist.")) ;; This disturbs the structure somehow (defn append-item [xmldb item] (zip/insert-right (-> xmldb zip/down zip/rightmost) item)) ;; I want to do something more like this (defn append-item2 [xmldb item] (zip/insert-right (zip/rightmost (zf/xml-> xmldb :item)) item)) (dosync (alter db append-item2 fred-item)) ;; Save this simple xml file with some added stuff. (ds/spit "appended-itemdb.xml" (with-out-str (lxml/emit (zip/root @db) :pad true))) I am unclear about how to use the clojure.zip functions appropriately in this case, and how that interacts with zip-filter. If you spot anything particularly weird in this small example, please point it out.

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  • xslt help - my transform is not rendering correctly

    - by Hcabnettek
    Hi All, I'm trying to apply an xlst transformation using the following file. This is very basic, but I wanted to build off of this when I get it working correctly. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:msxsl="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:xslt" exclude-result-prefixes="msxsl"> <xsl:template match="/"> <div> <h2>Station Inventory</h2> <hr/> <xsl:apply-templates/> </div> </xsl:template> Here is some xml I'm using for the source. <StationInventoryList xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns="http://www.dummy-tmdd-address"> <StationInventory> <station-id>9940</station-id> <station-name>Zone 9940-SEB</station-name> <station-travel-direction>SEB</station-travel-direction> <detector-list> <detector> <detector-id>2910</detector-id> <detector-name>1999 West Smith Exit SEB</detector-name> </detector> <detector> <detector-id>9205</detector-id> <detector-name>CR-155 Exit SEB</detector-name> </detector> <detector> <detector-id>9710</detector-id> <detector-name>Pt of View SEB</detector-name> </detector> </detector-list> </StationInventory> </StationInventoryList> Any ideas what I'm doing wrong? The simple intent here is to make a list of station, then make a list of detectors at a station. This is a small piece of the XML. It would have multiple StationInventory elements. I'm using the data as the source for an asp:xml control and the xslt file as the transformsource. var service = new InternalService(); var result = service.StationInventory(); invXml.DocumentContent = result; invXml.TransformSource = "StationInventory.xslt"; invXml.DataBind(); Any tips are of course appreciated. Have a terrific weekend. Cheers, ~ck

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  • Adding OutputCache to an ASP.NET WebForm crashes my site :(

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, When I add either one of these ... <%@ OutputCache Duration="600" Location="Any" VaryByParam="*" %> or <%@ OutputCache CacheProfile="CmsArticlesListOrItem" %> (.. and this into the web.config file...) <caching> <outputCacheSettings> <outputCacheProfiles> <add name="CmsArticlesListOrItem" duration="600" varyByParam="*" /> </outputCacheProfiles> </outputCacheSettings> <sqlCacheDependency ........ ></sqlCacheDependency </caching> my page/site crashes with the following error:- Source: System.Web ---------------------------------------------------------------------------- TargetSite: System.Web.DirectoryMonitor FindDirectoryMonitor(System.String, Boolean, Boolean) ---------------------------------------------------------------------------- Message:System.Web.HttpException: Directory 'C:\Web Sites\My Site Foo - Main Site\Controls\InfoAdvice' does not exist. Failed to start monitoring file changes. at System.Web.FileChangesMonitor.FindDirectoryMonitor(String dir, Boolean addIfNotFound, Boolean throwOnError) at System.Web.FileChangesMonitor.StartMonitoringPath(String alias, FileChangeEventHandler callback, FileAttributesData& fad) at System.Web.Caching.CacheDependency.Init(Boolean isPublic, String[] filenamesArg, String[] cachekeysArg, CacheDependency dependency, DateTime utcStart) at System.Web.Caching.CacheDependency..ctor(Int32 dummy, String[] filenames, DateTime utcStart) at System.Web.Hosting.MapPathBasedVirtualPathProvider.GetCacheDependency(String virtualPath, IEnumerable virtualPathDependencies, DateTime utcStart) at System.Web.ResponseDependencyList.CreateCacheDependency(CacheDependencyType dependencyType, CacheDependency dependency) at System.Web.HttpResponse.CreateCacheDependencyForResponse(CacheDependency dependencyVary) at System.Web.Caching.OutputCacheModule.InsertResponse(HttpResponse response, HttpContext context, String keyRawResponse, HttpCachePolicySettings settings, CachedVary cachedVary, CachedRawResponse memoryRawResponse) at System.Web.Caching.OutputCacheModule.OnLeave(Object source, EventArgs eventArgs) at System.Web.HttpApplication.SyncEventExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() at System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) Ok .. so for some reason, the OutputCache wants a folder/file to be there? Well, i've had this site live for around 3 years and i'm pretty sure that the folders \Controls and \Controls\InfoAdvice doesn't exist on my production server. On my localhost, it sure does .. and contains a large list of ascx controls. But they don't exist on my live server. So ... what is going on here? Can anyone please help? Oh :) Before someone suggests I create those two folders and even stick a random file in those folders .. and have some random text in those random files .. i've done that and it doesn't seem to work, still :( Please Help !

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  • How do I read Unicode characters from an MS Access 2007 database through Java?

    - by Peter
    In Java, I have written a program that reads a UTF8 text file. The text file contains a SQL query of the SELECT kind. The program then executes the query on the Microsoft Access 2007 database and writes all fields of the first row to a UTF8 text file. The problem I have is when a row is returned that contains unicode characters, such as "?". These characters show up as "?" in the text file. I know that the text files are read and written correctly, because a dummy UTF8 character ("?") is read from the text file containing the SQL query and written to the text file containing the resulting row. The UTF8 character looks correct when the written text file is opened in Notepad, so the reading and writing of the text files are not part of the problem. This is how I connect to the database and how I execute the SQL query: ---- START CODE Connection c = DriverManager.getConnection("jdbc:odbc:Driver={Microsoft Access Driver (*.mdb, *.accdb)};DBQ=C:/database.accdb;Pwd=temp"); ResultSet r = c.createStatement().executeQuery(sql); ---- END CODE I have tried making a charSet property to the Connection but it makes no difference: ---- START CODE Properties p = new Properties(); p.put("charSet", "utf-8"); p.put("lc_ctype", "utf-8"); p.put("encoding", "utf-8"); Connection c = DriverManager.getConnection("...", p); ---- END CODE Tried with "utf8"/"UTF8"/"UTF-8", no difference. If I enter "UTF-16" I get the following exception: "java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Illegal replacement". Been searching around for hours with no results and now turn my hope to you. Please help! I also accept workaround suggestions. =) What I want to be able to do is to make a Unicode query (for example one that searches for posts that contain the "?" character) and to have results with Unicode characters receieved and saved correctly. Thank you!

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  • Long Running Stored Proc - Report Progress Using BackgroundWorker & Timer

    - by daveywc
    While a long running stored proc (RMR_Seek) is executing (called via a Linq-To-SQL data context) I am trying to call another stored proc (RMR_GetLatestModelMessage) to check a table for the latest status message. The long running stored proc updates the table in question with status messages as it executes. I want to display the status message on a message panel to advise the user of the status of the execution of Proc_A. For various reasons it is not possible to determine how long RMR_Seek will take to execute so a progress bar with percentage increments is not feasible. I thought I'd found the way to do it by calling the long running stored proc from in a BackgroundWorker process DoWork event handler. This worked fine and allowed me to update my message panel with some dummy status messages that were NOT obtained via Proc_B while Proc_A was running. However now that I have tried to implement this fully by calling Proc_B to obtain the status messages I am running into problems that seem to be related to the mix of the backgroundworker and my System.Windows.Forms.Timer. An extract of the code I am using is below. I have tried many different ways around this but each one seems to present its own set of problems. The code below is problematic in the bw_DoWork event. The RMR_Seek stored proc gets called but does not execute properly - it also seems to be inconsistent as to whether _IsCompleted gets set to true. I'm sure there is a better way to achieve what I am trying to do. private bool _IsCompleted; private void RunRevenueSeek() { if (_SelectedModel == null) { MessageBox.Show("Please select a model from the list and try again.", "Model Generation", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Information); } else { var bw = new BackgroundWorker(); bw.DoWork += new DoWorkEventHandler(bw_DoWork); ProgressPanelControl.Visible = true; _IsCompleted = false; MessageTimer.Start(); // Has an interval of 3000 bw.RunWorkerAsync(); ProgressLabelControl.Text = "Refreshing Data"; this.Update(); ...more code goes here } } private void bw_DoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { using (var dc = new RevMdlrDataClassesDataContext()) { dc.CommandTimeout = 300; dc.RMR_Seek(_SelectedModel.ModelSet_ID); _IsCompleted = true; } } private void MessageTimer_Tick(object sender, EventArgs e) { string message = ""; if (_IsCompleted) { MessageTimer.Stop(); } else { using (var dc = new RevMdlrDataClassesDataContext()) { dc.CommandTimeout = 300; dc.RMR_GetLatestModelMessage(_SelectedModel.ModelSet_ID, ref message); ProgressLabelControl.Text = message; this.Update(); } } }

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  • NavigationBar from UINavigationController not positioned correctly

    - by David Liu
    So, my iPad program has a pseudo-split view controller (one that I implemented, not base SDK one), and was working correctly a while ago. It has the basic layout (UINavController for master, content view controller for detail on right), but I have it so the master view doesn't disappear when rotated into portrait view. Recently, I added in a UITabBarController to contain the entire split view, which has made the navigation bar go wonky, while all the other views are positioned fine. In addition, the navigation bar only gets mispositioned when the program starts up while the iPad is in landscape, or upside-down portrait. If it starts out in portrait, everything is fine. Relevant Code: RootViewController.m: - (void)loadView { navController = [[NavigationBreadcrumbsController_Pad alloc] init]; ABTableViewController_Pad * tableViewController = [[ABTableViewController_Pad alloc] initWithNibName:@"ABTableView"]; master = [[UINavigationController_Pad alloc] initWithRootViewController:tableViewController]; [tableViewController release]; // Dummy blank UIViewcontroller detail = [[UIViewController alloc] init]; detail.view = [[[UIView alloc] init] autorelease]; [detail.view setBackgroundColor:[UIColor grayColor]]; self.view = [[[UIView alloc] init] autorelease]; self.view.backgroundColor = [UIColor blackColor]; [self positionViews]; [self.view addSubview:navToolbarController.view]; [self.view addSubview:master.view]; [self.view addSubview:detail.view]; } // Handles the respositioning of view into it's current orientation -(void)positionViews{ CGFloat tabBarOffset = 0; if(self.tabBarController){ tabBarOffset = self.tabBarController.tabBar.frame.size.height; } if(self.interfaceOrientation == UIInterfaceOrientationPortrait || self.interfaceOrientation == UIInterfaceOrientationPortraitUpsideDown) { self.view.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, 768, 1004); navController.view.frame = CGRectMake(0,0,768,44); //adjust master view [master.view setFrame:CGRectMake(0, 44, 320, 1024 - 44 - 20 - tabBarOffset)]; //adjust detail view [detail.view setFrame:CGRectMake(321,44, 448, 1024 - 44 - 20 - tabBarOffset)]; } // Landscape Layout else{ self.view.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, 748, 1024); navToolbarController.view.frame = CGRectMake(0,0,1024,44); //adjust master view [master.view setFrame:CGRectMake(0, 44, 320, 768 - 44 - 20 - tabBarOffset)]; //adjust detail view [detail.view setFrame:CGRectMake(321,44, 1024 - 320, 768 - 44 - 20 - tabBarOffset)]; } }

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  • The iPhone “phone” doesn’t have the provisioning profile with which the application was signed.

    - by eda
    i have tried everything to fix this provision problem and nothing is working. ive reformated my mac, reinstalled the iphone, ive also dragged the provisions (developer and distribution) onto the organizer, itunes, and xcode. in itunes people say to drag the provisions to the iphone icon but that doesnt work its only able to go under library it shows a blue rectangle for me to drop it there. i just have a newly created dummy app with a 57x57 icon. ive also setup the project with the distribution thing with its distribution provision. when i build i get this: The iPhone “myphone” doesn’t have the provisioning profile with which the application was signed. Click “Install and Run” to install the provisioning profile “distribution” on “myphone” and continue running “helloworld.app”. and it has a button "install and run" ive clicked on that hundreths of times and nothing. in orgranizer i see a tab called console ive cleared it and rebuild the app and there is some output that i dont understand. I'm thinking its my problem whats it mean? Fri Mar 26 11:22:19 unknown misagent[215] <Error>: profile not valid: 0xe8008012 Fri Mar 26 11:22:19 unknown mobile_installationd[206] <Error>: 00808600 install_embedded_profile: Skipping the installation of the embedded profile Fri Mar 26 11:22:20 unknown mobile_installationd[206] <Error>: 00808600 verify_executable: Could not validate signature: e8008015 Fri Mar 26 11:22:20 unknown mobile_installationd[206] <Error>: 00808600 preflight_application_install: Could not verify /var/tmp/install_staging.NEb61T/helloworld.app/helloworld Fri Mar 26 11:22:20 unknown mobile_installationd[206] <Error>: 00808600 install_application: Could not preflight application install Fri Mar 26 11:22:20 unknown mobile_installation_proxy[219] <Error>: handle_install: Installation failed Fri Mar 26 11:22:20 unknown mobile_installationd[206] <Error>: 00808600 handle_install: API failed Fri Mar 26 11:22:20 unknown mobile_installationd[206] <Error>: 00808600 send_message: failed to send mach message of 64 bytes: 10000003 Fri Mar 26 11:22:20 unknown mobile_installationd[206] <Error>: 00808600 send_error: Could not send error response to client Fri Mar 26 11:22:42 unknown misagent[231] <Error>: profile not valid: 0xe8008012 Fri Mar 26 11:22:43 unknown mobile_installationd[206] <Error>: 00809800 install_embedded_profile: Skipping the installation of the embedded profile Fri Mar 26 11:22:43 unknown mobile_installationd[206] <Error>: 00809800 verify_executable: Could not validate signature: e8008015 Fri Mar 26 11:22:43 unknown mobile_installationd[206] <Error>: 00809800 preflight_application_install: Could not verify /var/tmp/install_staging.6M55Ay/helloworld.app/helloworld Fri Mar 26 11:22:43 unknown mobile_installationd[206] <Error>: 00809800 install_application: Could not preflight application install Fri Mar 26 11:22:43 unknown mobile_installation_proxy[235] <Error>: handle_install: Installation failed Fri Mar 26 11:22:43 unknown mobile_installationd[206] <Error>: 00809800 handle_install: API failed Fri Mar 26 11:22:43 unknown mobile_installationd[206] <Error>: 00809800 send_message: failed to send mach message of 64 bytes: 10000003 Fri Mar 26 11:22:43 unknown mobile_installationd[206] <Error>: 00809800 send_error: Could not send error response to client

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  • ProgressDialog does not display until after AsyncTask completes

    - by tedwards
    I am trying to display an indefinite ProgressDialog, while an AsyncTask binds to a RemoteService. The RemoteService builds a list of the users contacts when the service is first created. For a long list of contacts this may take 5~10 seconds. The problem I am having, is that the ProgressDialog does not display until after the RemoteService has built it's list of contacts. I even tried putting a Thread.sleep in to give the ProgressDialog time to show up. With the sleep statement the ProgressDialog loads and starts spinning, but then locks up as soon as the RemoteService starts doing it's work. If I just turn the AsyncTask into dummy code, and just let it sleep for a while, everything works fine. But when the task has to do actual work, it is like the UI just sits and waits. Any ideas on what Im doing wrong ? @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); Log.d(IM,"Start Me UP!!"); setContentView(R.layout.main); Log.d(IM, "Building List View for Contacts"); restoreMe(); if (myContacts==null){ myContacts = new ArrayList<Contact>(); this.contactAdapter = new ContactAdapter(this, R.layout.contactlist, myContacts); setListAdapter(this.contactAdapter); new BindAsync().execute(); } else{ this.contactAdapter = new ContactAdapter(this, R.layout.contactlist, myContacts); setListAdapter(this.contactAdapter); } } private class BindAsync extends AsyncTask<Void, Void, RemoteServiceConnection>{ @Override protected void onPreExecute(){ super.onPreExecute(); Log.d(IM,"Showing Dialog"); showDialog(DIALOG_CONTACTS); } @Override protected RemoteServiceConnection doInBackground(Void... v) { Log.d(IM,"Binding to service in BindAsync"); try{ Thread.sleep(2000); } catch (InterruptedException e){ } RemoteServiceConnection myCon; myCon = new RemoteServiceConnection(); Intent i = new Intent(imandroid.this,MyRemoteService.class); bindService(i, myCon, Context.BIND_AUTO_CREATE); startService(i); Log.d(IM,"Bound to remote service"); return myCon; } @Override protected void onPostExecute(RemoteServiceConnection newConn){ super.onPostExecute(newConn); Log.d(IM,"Storing remote connection"); conn=newConn; } };

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  • How build my own Application Setting

    - by adisembiring
    I want to build a ApplicationSetting for my application. The ApplicationSetting can be stored in a properties file or in a database table. The settings are stored in key-value pairs. E.g. ftp.host = blade ftp.username = dummy ftp.pass = pass content.row_pagination = 20 content.title = How to train your dragon. I have designed it as follows: Application settings reader: interface IApplicationSettingReader { read(); } DatabaseApplicationSettingReader { dao appSettingDao; AppSettings read() { List<AppSettingEntity> listEntity = appSettingsDao.findAll(); Map<String, String> map = new HaspMap<String, String>(); foreach (AppSettingEntity entity : listEntity) { map.put(entity.getConfigName(), entity.getConfigValue()); } return new AppSettings(map); } } DatabaseApplicationSettingReader { dao appSettingDao; AppSettings read() { //read from some properties file return new AppSettings(map); } } Application settings class: AppSettings { private static AppSettings instance; private Map map; Public AppSettings(Map map) { this.map = map; } public static AppSettings getInstance() { if (instance == null) { throw new RuntimeException("Object not configure yet"); } return instance; } public static configure(IApplicationSettingReader reader) { instance = reader.read(); } public String getFtpSetting(String param) { return map.get("ftp." + param); } public String getContentSetting(String param) { return map.get("content." + param); } } Test class: AppSettingsTest { IApplicationSettingReader reader; @Before public void setUp() throws Exception { reader = new DatabaseApplicationSettingReader(); } @Test public void getContentSetting_should_get_content_title() { AppSettings.configure(reader); Instance settings = AppSettings.getInstance(); String title = settings.getContentSetting("title"); assertNotNull(title); Sysout(title); } } My questions are: Can you give your opinion about my code, is there something wrong? I configure my application setting once, while the application start, I configure the application setting with appropriate reader (DbReader or PropertiesReader), I make it singleton. The problem is, when some user edit the database or file directly to database or file, I can't get the changed values. Now, I want to implement something like ApplicationSettingChangeListener. So if the data changes, I will refresh my application settings. Do you have any suggestions how this can be implemented?

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  • Model Fit of Binary GLM with more than 1 or 2 predictors

    - by Salmo salar
    I am trying to predict a binary GLM with multiple predictors. I can do it fine with one predictor variable however struggle when I use multiple Sample data: structure(list(attempt = structure(c(1L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 1L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 1L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 1L, 1L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 1L, 1L, 1L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 1L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 2L), .Label = c("1", "2"), class = "factor"), searchtime = c(137, 90, 164, 32, 39, 30, 197, 308, 172, 48, 867, 117, 63, 1345, 38, 122, 226, 397, 0, 106, 259, 220, 170, 102, 46, 327, 8, 10, 23, 108, 315, 318, 70, 646, 69, 97, 117, 45, 31, 64, 125, 17, 240, 63, 549, 1651, 233, 406, 334, 168, 127, 47, 881), mean.search.flow = c(15.97766667, 14.226, 17.15724762, 14.7465, 39.579, 23.355, 110.2926923, 71.95709524, 72.73666667, 32.37466667, 50.34905172, 27.98471429, 49.244, 109.1759778, 77.71733333, 37.446875, 101.23875, 67.78534615, 21.359, 36.54257143, 34.13961111, 64.35253333, 80.98554545, 61.50857143, 48.983, 63.81072727, 26.105, 46.783, 23.0605, 33.61557143, 46.31042857, 62.37061905, 12.565, 42.31983721, 15.3982, 14.49625, 23.77425, 25.626, 74.62485714, 170.1547778, 50.67125, 48.098, 66.83644444, 76.564875, 80.63189189, 136.0573243, 136.3484, 86.68688889, 34.82169565, 70.00415385, 64.67233333, 81.72766667, 57.74522034), Pass = structure(c(1L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 1L, 1L, 1L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 1L, 1L, 1L, 2L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 1L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 2L), .Label = c("0", "1"), class = "factor")), .Names = c("attempt", "searchtime", "mean.search.flow", "Pass"), class = "data.frame", row.names = c(1L, 2L, 3L, 4L, 5L, 6L, 7L, 8L, 12L, 13L, 14L, 15L, 16L, 17L, 18L, 19L, 20L, 21L, 22L, 23L, 24L, 25L, 26L, 28L, 29L, 30L, 31L, 32L, 33L, 34L, 35L, 36L, 37L, 38L, 39L, 40L, 50L, 51L, 53L, 54L, 60L, 61L, 62L, 63L, 64L, 65L, 66L, 67L, 68L, 69L, 70L, 71L, 72L)) First model with single predictor M2 <- glm(Pass ~ searchtime, data = DF3, family = binomial) summary(M2) drop1(M2, test = "Chi") Plot works fine P1 <- predict(M2, newdata = MyData, type = "link", se = TRUE) plot(x=MyData$searchtime, exp(P1$fit) / (1+exp(P1$fit)), type = "l", ylim = c(0,1), xlab = "search time", ylab = "pobability of passage") lines(MyData$searchtime, exp(P1$fit+1.96*P1$se.fit)/ (1 + exp(P1$fit + 1.96 * P1$se.fit)), lty = 2) lines(MyData$searchtime, exp(P1$fit-1.96*P1$se.fit)/ (1 + exp(P1$fit - 1.96 * P1$se.fit)), lty = 2) points(DF3$searchtime, DF3$Search.and.pass) Second model M2a <- glm(Pass ~ searchtime + mean.search.flow+ attempt, data = DF3, family = binomial) summary(M2a) drop1(M2a, test = "Chi") How do I plot this with "dummy" data? I have tried along the lines of Model.matrix and expand.grid, as you would do with glmer, but fail straight away due to the two categorical variables along with factor(attempt)

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  • Wondering about a way to conserve memory in C# using List<> with structs

    - by Michael Ryan
    I'm not even sure how I should phrase this question. I'm passing some CustomStruct objects as parameters to a class method, and storing them in a List. What I'm wondering is if it's possible and more efficient to add multiple references to a particular instance of a CustomStruct if a equivalent instance it found. This is a dummy/example struct: public struct CustomStruct { readonly int _x; readonly int _y; readonly int _w; readonly int _h; readonly Enum _e; } Using the below method, you can pass one, two, or three CustomStruct objects as parameters. In the final method (that takes three parameters), it may be the case that the 3rd and possibly the 2nd will have the same value as the first. List<CustomStruct> _list; public void AddBackground(CustomStruct normal) { AddBackground(normal, normal, normal); } public void AddBackground(CustomStruct normal, CustomStruct hover) { AddBackground(normal, hover, hover); } public void AddBackground(CustomStruct normal, CustomStruct hover, CustomStruct active) { _list = new List<CustomStruct>(3); _list.Add(normal); _list.Add(hover); _list.Add(active); } As the method stands now, I believe it will create new instances of CustomStruct objects, and then adds a reference of each to the List. It is my understanding that if I instead check for equality between normal and hover and (if equal) insert normal again in place of hover, when the method completes, hover will lose all references and eventually be garbage collected, whereas normal will have two references in the List. The same could be done for active. That would be better, right? The CustomStruct is a ValueType, and therefore one instance would remain on the Stack, and the three List references would just point to it. The overall List size is determined not by the object Type is contains, but by its Capacity. By eliminating the "duplicate" CustomStuct objects, you allow them to be cleaned up. When the CustomStruct objects are passed to these methods, new instances are created each time. When the structs are added to the List, is another copy made? For example, if i pass just one CustomStruct, AddBackground(normal) creates a copy of the original variable, and then passes it three times to Addbackground(normal, hover, active). In this method, three copies are made of the original copy. When the three local variables are added to the List using Add(), are additional copies created inside Add(), and does that defeat the purpose of any equality checks as previously mentioned? Am I missing anything here?

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  • Programming a callback function within a jQuery plugin

    - by ILMV
    I'm writing a jQuery plug-in so I can reuse this code in many places as it is a very well used piece of code, the code itself adds a new line to a table which has been cloned from a hidden row, it continues to perform a load of manipulations on the new row. I'm currently referencing it like this: $(".abc .grid").grid(); But I want to include a callback so each area the plug-in is called from can do something a bit more unique when the row has been added. I've used the jQuery AJAX plug-in before, so have used the success callback function, but cannot understand how the code works in the background. Here's what I want to achieve: $(".abc .grid").grid({ row_added: function() { // do something a bit more specific here } }); Here's my plug-in code (function($){ $.fn.extend({ //pass the options variable to the function grid: function() { return this.each(function() { grid_table=$(this).find('.grid-table > tbody'); grid_hidden_row=$(this).find('.grid-hidden-row'); //console.debug(grid_hidden_row); $(this).find('.grid-add-row').click(function(event) { /* * clone row takes a hidden dummy row, clones it and appends a unique row * identifier to the id. Clone maintains our jQuery binds */ // get the last id last_row=$(grid_table).find('tr:last').attr('id'); if(last_row===undefined) { new_row=1; } else { new_row=parseInt(last_row.replace('row',''),10)+1; } // append element to target, changes it's id and shows it $(grid_table).append($(grid_hidden_row).clone(true).attr('id','row'+new_row).removeClass('grid-hidden-row').show()); // append unique row identifier on id and name attribute of seledct, input and a $('#row'+new_row).find('select, input, a').each(function(id) { $(this).appendAttr('id','_row'+new_row); $(this).replaceAttr('name','_REPLACE_',new_row); }); // disable all the readonly_if_lines options if this is the first row if(new_row==1) { $('.readonly_if_lines :not(:selected)').attr('disabled','disabled'); } }); $(this).find('.grid-remove-row').click(function(event) { /* * Remove row does what it says on the tin, as well as a few other house * keeping bits and pieces */ // remove the parent tr $(this).parents('tr').remove(); // recalculate the order value5 //calcTotal('.net_value ','#gridform','#gridform_total'); // if we've removed the last row remove readonly locks row_count=grid_table.find('tr').size(); console.info(row_count); if(row_count===0) { $('.readonly_if_lines :disabled').removeAttr('disabled'); } }); }); } }); })(jQuery); I've done the usually searching on elgooG... but I seem to be getting a lot of noise with little result, any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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  • JavaFX - question regarding binding button's disabled state

    - by jamiebarrow
    I'm trying to create a dummy application that maintains a list of tasks. For now, all I'm trying to do is add to the list. I enter a task name in a text box, click on the add task button, and expect the list to be updated with the new item and the task name input to be cleared. I only want to be able to add tasks if the task name is not empty. The below code is my implementation, but I have a question regarding the binding. I'm binding the textbox's text variable to a string in my view model, and the button's disable variable to a boolean in my view model. I have a trigger to update the disabled state when the task name changes. When the binding of the task name happens the boolean is updated accordingly, but the button still appears disabled. But then when I mouse over the button, it becomes enabled. I believe this is due to JavaFX 1.3's binding being lazy - only updates the bound variable when it is read. Also, when I've added the task, I clear the task name in the model, but the textbox's text doesn't change - even though I'm using bind with inverse. Is there a way to make the textbox's text and the button's disabled state update automatically via the binding as I was expecting? Thanks, James AddTaskViewModel.fx: package jamiebarrow; import java.lang.System; public class AddTaskViewModel { function logChange(prop:String,oldValue,newValue):Void { println("{System.currentTimeMillis()} : {prop} [{oldValue}] to [{newValue}] "); } public var newTaskName: String on replace old { logChange("newTaskName",old,newTaskName); isAddTaskDisabled = (newTaskName == null or newTaskName.trim().length() == 0); }; public var isAddTaskDisabled: Boolean on replace old { logChange("isAddTaskDisabled",old,isAddTaskDisabled); }; public var taskItems = [] on replace old { logChange("taskItems",old,taskItems); }; public function addTask() { insert newTaskName into taskItems; newTaskName = ""; } } Main.fx: package jamiebarrow; import javafx.scene.control.Button; import javafx.scene.control.TextBox; import javafx.scene.control.ListView; import javafx.scene.Scene; import javafx.scene.layout.VBox; import javafx.stage.Stage; import javafx.scene.layout.HBox; def viewModel = AddTaskViewModel{}; var txtName: TextBox = TextBox { text: bind viewModel.newTaskName with inverse onKeyTyped: onKeyTyped }; function onKeyTyped(event): Void { txtName.commit(); // ensures model is updated cmdAddTask.disable = viewModel.isAddTaskDisabled;// the binding only occurs lazily, so this is needed } var cmdAddTask = Button { text: "Add" disable: bind viewModel.isAddTaskDisabled with inverse action: onAddTask }; function onAddTask(): Void { viewModel.addTask(); } var lstTasks = ListView { items: bind viewModel.taskItems with inverse }; Stage { scene: Scene { content: [ VBox { content: [ HBox { content: [ txtName, cmdAddTask ] }, lstTasks ] } ] } }

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  • Why I can't draw in a loop? (Using UIView in iPhone)

    - by Tattat
    I can draw many things using this : NSString *imagePath = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"dummy2.png" ofType:nil]; UIImage *img = [UIImage imageWithContentsOfFile:imagePath]; image = CGImageRetain(img.CGImage); CGRect imageRect; double x = 0; double y = 0; for (int k=0; k<someValue; k++) { x += k; y += k; imageRect.origin = CGPointMake(x, y); imageRect.size = CGSizeMake(25, 25); CGContextDrawImage(UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(), imageRect, image); } } CGImageRelease(img.CGImage); So, it works, so, I put it into a command object's execute method. Then, I want to do similar thing, but this time, my execute method only do this: NSString *imagePath = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"dummy2.png" ofType:nil]; UIImage *img = [UIImage imageWithContentsOfFile:imagePath]; image = CGImageRetain(img.CGImage); CGRect imageRect; double x = inComingX; double y = inComingY; imageRect.origin = CGPointMake(x, y); imageRect.size = CGSizeMake(25, 25); CGContextDrawImage(UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(), imageRect, image); CGImageRelease(img.CGImage); This time, this is also a Command, and it is the execute method. But I take the for loop away. I will have another method that pass the inComingX , and inComingY into my Command object. My Drawing method is simply execute the Cmd that passed in my drawingEngine: -(void)drawInContext:(CGContextRef)context { [self.cmdToBeExecuted execute]; } I also have the assign method to assign the command,: -(void)assignCmd:(Command* )cmd{ self.cmdToBeExecuted = cmd; } And this is the way I called the drawingEngine for(int k=0; k<5; k++){ [self.drawingEngine assignCmd:[DrawingCmd setDrawingInformation:(10*k):0:@"dummy.png"]]; [self.drawingEngine setNeedsDisplay]; } It can draw, but the sad thing is it only draw the last one. Why? and how to fix it? I can draw all the things in my First code, but after I take the loop outside, and use the loop in last code, it just only draw the last one. Plz help

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  • HTTP Post requests using HttpClient take 2 seconds, why?

    - by pableu
    Update: You might better hold off this for a bit, I just noticed I could be my fault after all. Working on this all afternoon, and then I find a flaw ten minutes after posting here, ts. Hi, I'am currently coding an android app that submits stuff in the background using HTTP Post and AsyncTask. I use the org.apache.http.client Package for this. I based my code on this example. Basically, my code looks like this: public void postData() { // Create a new HttpClient and Post Header HttpClient httpclient = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpPost httppost = new HttpPost("http://192.168.1.137:8880/form"); try { List<NameValuePair> nameValuePairs = new ArrayList<NameValuePair>(2); nameValuePairs.add(new BasicNameValuePair("id", "12345")); nameValuePairs.add(new BasicNameValuePair("stringdata", "AndDev is Cool!")); httppost.setEntity(new UrlEncodedFormEntity(nameValuePairs)); // Execute HTTP Post Request HttpResponse response = httpclient.execute(httppost); } catch (ClientProtocolException e) { Log.e(TAG,e.toString()); } catch (IOException e) { Log.e(TAG,e.toString()); } } The problem is that the httpclient.execute(..) line takes around 1.5 to 3 seconds, and I do not understand why. Just requesting a page with HTTP Get takes around 80 ms or so, so the problem doesn't seem to be the network latency itself. The problem doesn't seem to be on the server side either, I have also tried POSTing data to http://www.disney.com/ with similarly slow results. And Firebug shows 1 ms response time when POSTing data to my server locally. This happens on the Emulator and with my Nexus One (both with Android 2.2). If you want to look at the complete code, I've put it on GitHub. It's just a dummy program to do HTTP Post in the background using AsyncTask on the push of a button. It's my first Android app, and my first java code for a long time. And incidentially, also my first question on Stackoverflow ;-) Any ideas why httpclient.execute(httppost) takes so long?

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  • Need Help with Page Life Cycle(I think it is screwing me up)

    - by chobo2
    Hi I have dragged a empty asp.net table onto my webform. I generate all the rows in the code behind those. Now my table gets filled up and has dropdown lists. When the user hits save I go through all the rows and update the values from the dropdownlist in the db. This works all great. However if 2 columns have each have "Present" then those 2 columns should be not be shown anymore and 2 new columns get put in its place with other dropdown lists. This all works. However you have to refresh the entire page to for the 2 columns that should go away to go away. So what I tried to do is at the end of the button click event. Clear the whole table and then regenerate it. However when I do this then my values are not saved to the database anymore for whatever reason. if (IsPostBack == false) { // check if dummy variables exist in db- If true just generate tables with values in db. If not generate them. } else { // grab the values from the database // generate tables with the values } btn click event { go through all rows in table(foreach loop) update each column in the database with cells in each row. while in foreach loop. //done } So this is how it goes and it works expect(all correct values are saved) the table is just not updated to the user. Does not work if (IsPostBack == false) { // same code as above } // if postback is true do nothing. By the time it gets to the click event it says there is zero rows in the table so nothing happens. btn click event { // same code } Fails also. if (IsPostBack == false) { // same code as above } else { // same code as above but moved into its own method. gernerateTable(); } btn click event { // update all rows // once done clear the Tables rows // call generateTable() } This last one does nothing as for some reason it does not update anything. I don't understand why. So what am I doing wrong with this life cycle something in my process is wrong. The code works just not when I want the table to be updated right away.

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  • MVC EditorFor bind to type in array

    - by BradBrening
    I have a ViewModel that, among other properties, contains an array of 'EmailAddress' objects. EmailAddress itself has properties such as "Address", and "IsPrimary". My view model breakdown is: public class UserDetailsViewModel { public BUser User { get; set; } public string[] Roles { get; set; } public EmailAddress[] EmailAddresses { get; set; } } I am showing a "User Details" page that is pretty standard. For example, I'm displaying data using @Html.DisplayFor(model => model.User.UserName) and @Html.DisplayFor(model => model.User.Comment) I also have a section on the page that lists all of the EmailAddress objects associated with the user: @if(Model.EmailAddresses.Length > 0) { foreach (var address in Model.EmailAddresses) { <div> @Html.DisplayFor(model => address.Address) </div> } } else { <div class="center">User does not have any email addresses.</div> } My problem is that I would like to show an "Add Email Address" form above the list of email addresses. I thought I would take the "normal" approach thusly: @using(Html.BeginForm(new { id=Model.User.UserName, action="AddUserEmailAddress" })) { <text>Address:</text> @Html.EditorFor(model => ** HERE I AM STUCK **) <input type="submit" value="Add Email" class="button" /> } As you may be able to tell, I am stuck here. I've tried model => Model.EmailAddresses[0] and model => Model.EmailAddresses.FirstOrDefault(). Both of these have failed horribly. I am sure that I am going about this all wrong. I've even thought of adding a "dummy" property to my ViewModel of type EmailAddress just so that I can bind to that in my EditorFor - but that seems to be a really bad hack. There has to be something simple that I'm overlooking! I would appreciate any help anyone can offer with this matter. Thank you in advance!

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  • How to design service that can provide interface as JAX-WS web service, or via JMS, or as local meth

    - by kevinegham
    Using a typical JEE framework, how do I develop and deploy a service that can be called as a web service (with a WSDL interface), be invoked via JMS messages, or called directly from another service in the same container? Here's some more context: Currently I am responsible for a service (let's call it Service X) with the following properties: Interface definition is a human readable document kept up-to-date manually. Accepts HTTP form-encoded requests to a single URL. Sends plain old XML responses (no schema). Uses Apache to accept requests + a proprietary application server (not servlet or EJB based) containing all logic which runs in a seperate tier. Makes heavy use of a relational database. Called both by internal applications written in a variety of languages and also by a small number of third-parties. I want to (or at least, have been told to!): Switch to a well-known (pref. open source) JEE stack such as JBoss, Glassfish, etc. Split Service X into Service A and Service B so that we can take Service B down for maintenance without affecting Service A. Note that Service B will depend on (i.e. need to make requests to) Service A. Make both services easier for third parties to integrate with by providing at least a WS-I style interface (WSDL + SOAP + XML + HTTP) and probably a JMS interface too. In future we might consider a more lightweight API too (REST + JSON? Google Protocol Buffers?) but that's a nice to have. Additional consideration are: On a smaller deployment, Service A and Service B will likely to running on the same machine and it would seem rather silly for them to use HTTP or a message bus to communicate; better if they could run in the same container and make method calls to each other. Backwards compatibility with the existing ad-hoc Service X interface is not required, and we're not planning on re-using too much of the existing code for the new services. I'm happy with either contract-first (WSDL I guess) or (annotated) code-first development. Apologies if my terminology is a bit hazy - I'm pretty experienced with Java and web programming in general, but am finding it quite hard to get up to speed with all this enterprise / SOA stuff - it seems I have a lot to learn! I'm also not very used to using a framework rather than simply writing code that calls some packages to do things. I've got as far as downloading Glassfish, knocking up a simple WSDL file and using wsimport + a little dummy code to turn that into a WAR file which I've deployed.

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  • Can I mix declarative and programmatic layout in GWT 2.0?

    - by stuff22
    I'm trying to redo an existing panel that I made before GWT 2.0 was released. The panel has a few text fields and a scrollable panel below in a VerticalPanel. What I'd like to do is to make the scrollable panel with UIBinder and then add that to a VerticalPanel Below is an example I created to illustrate this: public class ScrollTablePanel extends ResizeComposite{ interface Binder extends UiBinder<Widget, ScrollTablePanel > { } private static Binder uiBinder = GWT.create(Binder.class); @UiField FlexTable table1; @UiField FlexTable table2; public Test2() { initWidget(uiBinder.createAndBindUi(this)); table1.setText(0, 0, "testing 1"); table1.setText(0, 1, "testing 2"); table1.setText(0, 2, "testing 3"); table2.setText(0, 0, "testing 1"); table2.setText(0, 1, "testing 2"); table2.setText(0, 2, "testing 3"); table2.setText(1, 0, "testing 4"); table2.setText(1, 1, "testing 5"); table2.setText(1, 2, "testing 6"); } } then the xml: <ui:UiBinder xmlns:ui='urn:ui:com.google.gwt.uibinder' xmlns:g='urn:import:com.google.gwt.user.client.ui' xmlns:mail='urn:import:com.test.scrollpaneltest'> <g:DockLayoutPanel unit='EM'> <g:north size="2"> <g:FlexTable ui:field="table1"></g:FlexTable> </g:north> <g:center> <g:ScrollPanel> <g:FlexTable ui:field="table2"></g:FlexTable> </g:ScrollPanel> </g:center> </g:DockLayoutPanel> </ui:UiBinder> Then do something like this in the EntryPoint: public void onModuleLoad() { VerticalPanel vp = new VerticalPanel(); vp.add(new ScrollTablePanel()); vp.add(new Label("dummy label text")); vp.setWidth("100%"); RootLayoutPanel.get().add(vp); } But when I add the ScrollTablePanel to the VerticalPanel, only the first FlexTable (test1) is visible on the page, not the whole ScrollTablePanel. Is there a way to make this work where it is possible to mix declarative and programmatic layout in GWT 2.0?

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  • How to infer the type of a derived class in base class?

    - by enzi
    I want to create a method that allows me to change arbitrary properties of classes that derive from my base class, the result should look like this: SetPropertyValue("size.height", 50); – where size is a property of my derived class and height is a property of size. I'm almost done with my implementation but there's one final obstacle that I want to solve before moving on, to describe this I will first have to explain my implementation a bit: Properties that can be modified are decorated with an attribute There's a method in my base class that searches for all derived classes and their decorated properties For each property I generate a "property modifier", a class that contains 2 delegates: one to set and one to get the value of the property. Property Modifiers are stored in a dictionary, with the name of the property as key In my base class, there is another dictionary that contains all property-modifier-dictionaries, with the Type of the respective class as key. What the SetPropertyValue method does is this: Get the correct property-modifier-dictionary, using the concrete type of the derived class (<- yet to solve) Get the property modifier of the property to change (e.g. of the property size) Use the get or set delegate to modify the property's value Some example code to clarify further: private static Dictionary<RuntimeTypeHandle, object> EditableTypes; //property-modifier-dictionary protected void SetPropertyValue<T>(EditablePropertyMap<T> map, string property, object value) { var property = map[property]; // get the property modifier property.Set((T)this, value); // use the set delegate (encapsulated in a method) } In the above code, T is the Type of the actual (derived) class. I need this type for the get/set delegates. The problem is how to get the EditablePropertyMap<T> when I don't know what T is. My current (ugly) solution is to pass the map in an overriden virtual method in the derived class: public override void SetPropertyValue(string property, object value) { base.SetPropertyValue((EditablePropertyMap<ExampleType>)EditableTypes[typeof(ExampleType)], property, value); } What this does is: get the correct dictionary containing the property modifiers of this class using the class's type, cast it to the appropiate type and pass it to the SetPropertyValue method. I want to get rid of the SetPropertyValue method in my derived class (since there are a lot of derived classes), but don't know yet how to accomplish that. I cannot just make a virtual GetEditablePropertyMap<T> method because I cannot infer a concrete type for T then. I also cannot acces my dictionary directly with a type and retrieve an EditablePropertyMap<T> from it because I cannot cast to it from object in the base class, since again I do not know T. I found some neat tricks to infere types (e.g. by adding a dummy T parameter), but cannot apply them to my specific problem. I'd highly appreciate any suggestions you may have for me.

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  • Secure WS client with UsernameToken(SOAP security header)

    - by user79163
    Hi, I'm trying to secure my WS client to be able to call the WS. My code looks like this: SendSmsService smsService = new SendSmsService(); SendSms sendSMS = smsService.getSendSms(); BindingProvider stub = (BindingProvider)sendSMS; //Override endpoint with local copy of wsdl. String URL ="";//here is the wsdl url Map<String,Object> requestContext = stub.getRequestContext(); requestContext.put(BindingProvider.ENDPOINT_ADDRESS_PROPERTY, URL); //Set usernametoken URL fileURL = loader.getResource("client-config.xml"); File file = new File(fileURL.getFile()); FileInputStream clientConfig = null; try { clientConfig = new FileInputStream(file); } catch (FileNotFoundException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } XWSSecurityConfiguration config = null; try { config = SecurityConfigurationFactory.newXWSSecurityConfiguration(clientConfig); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); log.warn("Exception: "+e.getMessage()); } requestContext.put(XWSSecurityConfiguration.MESSAGE_SECURITY_CONFIGURATION, config); //Invoke the web service String requestId = null; try { requestId = sendSMS.sendSms(addresses, senderName, charging, message, receiptRequest); } catch (PolicyException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } catch (ServiceException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } and the config file looks like this: <xwss:JAXRPCSecurity xmlns:xwss="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/xwss/config" optimize="true"> <xwss:Service> <xwss:SecurityConfiguration dumpMessages="true" xmlns:xwss="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/xwss/config"> <xwss:UsernameToken name="username" password="password> </xwss:SecurityConfiguration> </xwss:Service> <xwss:SecurityEnvironmentHandler> util.SecurityEnvironmentHandler </xwss:SecurityEnvironmentHandler> </xwss:JAXRPCSecurity> The SecurityEnviromentHandler is a dummy class that implements javax.security.auth.callback.CallbackHandler. Authentication must be in compliance with Oasis Web Services Security Username Token Profile 1.0. But I'm constantly getting "Security header not valid" error. Where am I going wrong, can anyone tell me. I used wsimport(JAX_WS 2.1 to generate classes for my client) Note:Only thing I know about this WS is WSDL URL and user&pass for authentication

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  • Template class + virtual function = must implement?

    - by sold
    This code: template <typename T> struct A { T t; void DoSomething() { t.SomeFunction(); } }; struct B { }; A<B> a; is easily compiled without any complaints, as long as I never call a.DoSomething(). However, if I define DoSomething as a virtual function, I will get a compile error saying that B doesn't declare SomeFunction. I can somewhat see why it happens (DoSomething should now have an entry in the vtable), but I can't help feeling that it's not really obligated. Plus it sucks. Is there any way to overcome this? EDIT 2: Okay. I hope this time it makes sence: Let's say I am doing intrusive ref count, so all entities must inherit from base class Object. How can I suuport primitive types too? I can define: template <typename T> class Primitive : public Object { T value; public: Primitive(const T &value=T()); operator T() const; Primitive<T> &operator =(const T &value); Primitive<T> &operator +=(const T &value); Primitive<T> &operator %=(const T &value); // And so on... }; so I can use Primitive<int>, Primitive<char>... But how about Primitive<float>? It seems like a problem, because floats don't have a %= operator. But actually, it isn't, since I'll never call operator %= on Primitive<float>. That's one of the deliberate features of templates. If, for some reason, I would define operator %= as virtual. Or, if i'll pre-export Primitive<float> from a dll to avoid link errors, the compiler will complain even if I never call operator %= on a Primitive<float>. If it would just have fill in a dummy value for operator %= in Primitive<float>'s vtable (that raises an exception?), everything would have been fine.

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  • c++ multithread array

    - by user1731972
    i'm doing something for fun, trying to learn multithreading Problems passing array by reference to threads but Arno pointed out that my threading via process.h wasn't going to be multi-threaded. What I'm hoping to do is something where I have an array of 100 (or 10,000, doesn't really matter I don't think), and split up the assignment of values to each thread. Example, 4 threads = 250 values per thread to be assigned. Then I can use this filled array for further calculations. Here's some code I was working on (which doesn't work) #include <process.h> #include <windows.h> #include <iostream> #include <fstream> #include <time.h> //#include <thread> using namespace std; void myThread (void *dummy ); CRITICAL_SECTION cs1,cs2; // global int main() { ofstream myfile; myfile.open ("coinToss.csv"); int rNum; long numRuns; long count = 0; int divisor = 1; float holder = 0; int counter = 0; float percent = 0.0; HANDLE hThread[1000]; int array[10000]; srand ( time(NULL) ); printf ("Runs (use multiple of 10)? "); cin >> numRuns; for (int i = 0; i < numRuns; i++) { //_beginthread( myThread, 0, (void *) (array1) ); //??? //hThread[i * 2] = _beginthread( myThread, 0, (void *) (array1) ); hThread[i*2] = _beginthread( myThread, 0, (void *) (array) ); } //WaitForMultipleObjects(numRuns * 2, hThread, TRUE, INFINITE); WaitForMultipleObjects(numRuns, hThread, TRUE, INFINITE); } void myThread (void *param ) { //thanks goes to stockoverflow //http://stackoverflow.com/questions/12801862/problems-passing-array-by-reference-to-threads int *i = (int *)param; for (int x = 0; x < 1000000; x++) { //param[x] = rand() % 2 + 1; i[x] = rand() % 2 + 1; } } Can anyone explain why it isn't working?

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  • asp.net mvc 2 multithread

    - by Chris Cap
    I'm getting some weird behavior in asp.net MVC2 (at least it's not what I'm expecting). I have a controller httppost action that processes credit cards. I'm setting a session variable on the server to let me know if a user has attempted to process a card. I clear that session variable when I'm done. I am doing some very quick posts to test the process and the session variable is coming back null everytime because I clear the session variable at the end of the process. I have some debug prints that show me that the all requests are processed synchronously. That is...the first attempt occurs, it fails, session variable is cleared, second attempt tries and fails and the variable is cleared, etc... My first thought was that this was a side effect of debugging and that it just lined requests up for debugging purposes using the local webserver. So I put it on a development server and the same thing is occurring. Multiple submits/posts are processed synchronously. I even put a System.Threading.Sleep in there to make sure it would stop right after I set the session variable and it still won't even START the second request until the first is done. Has anyone else seen this behavior? My understanding was that a worker process was spawned for each request and that these actions could happen asychronously. Here's some psuedo code if (Session["CardCharged"] != null) return RedirectToAction("Index", "Problem"); Session["CardCharged"] = false; //starting the process System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(10000); //charge card here if (!providerResponse.IsApproved) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("failed"); Session["CardCharged"] = null; //have to allow them to charge again since this failed return View(myModel); } Session["CardCharged"] = true; return RedirectToAction("Index", "OrderComplete"); I should mention that my code ALWAYS fails the credit card check for testing purposes. I'm trying to test the situation where processing is STILL occurring and redirect the user elsewhere. I have set a dummy session variable elsewhere to assure that the session id "sticks". So I know the session id is the same for each request. Thanks

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  • Specify a base classes template parameters while instantiating a derived class?

    - by DaClown
    Hi, I have no idea if the title makes any sense but I can't find the right words to descibe my "problem" in one line. Anyway, here is my problem. There is an interface for a search: template <typename InputType, typename ResultType> class Search { public: virtual void search (InputType) = 0; virtual void getResult(ResultType&) = 0; }; and several derived classes like: template <typename InputType, typename ResultType> class XMLSearch : public Search<InputType, ResultType> { public: void search (InputType) { ... }; void getResult(ResultType&) { ... }; }; The derived classes shall be used in the source code later on. I would like to hold a simple pointer to a Search without specifying the template parameters, then assign a new XMLSearch and thereby define the template parameters of Search and XMLSearch Search *s = new XMLSearch<int, int>(); I found a way that works syntactically like what I'm trying to do, but it seems a bit odd to really use it: template <typename T> class Derived; class Base { public: template <typename T> bool GetValue(T &value) { Derived<T> *castedThis=dynamic_cast<Derived<T>* >(this); if(castedThis) return castedThis->GetValue(value); return false; } virtual void Dummy() {} }; template <typename T> class Derived : public Base { public: Derived<T>() { mValue=17; } bool GetValue(T &value) { value=mValue; return true; } T mValue; }; int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { Base *v=new Derived<int>; int i=0; if(!v->GetValue(i)) std::cout<<"Wrong type int."<<std::endl; float f=0.0; if(!v->GetValue(f)) std::cout<<"Wrong type float."<<std::endl; std::cout<<i<<std::endl<<f; char c; std::cin>>c; return 0; } Is there a better way to accomplish this?

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