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  • How to solve "catastrophic failure" with 32-bit COM component in SysWOW64\cscript or wscript

    - by kcrumley
    I'm trying to run a VBScript script that uses a 7-year-old 3rd-party 32-bit COM component on Windows Server 2008 R2, with the command-line 32-bit script host, SysWOW64\cscript.exe. When I call CreateObject on the class, it appears to be successful, but the very first time I try to use a property or method (I've tried several different ones) on the object, it gives me the "catastrophic failure". I have identical results with SysWOW64\wscript.exe, except, of course, that my error message comes in a msgbox instead of the command-line window. I think this has to do specifically with the 64-bit scripting hosts because of the following: The equivalent Classic ASP script, calling the same component and using 95% of the same code, works correctly on the same server, with IIS configured to support 32-bit COM. The same VBScript works correctly on a 32-bit Windows XP machine and a 32-bit Windows Server 2003 machine. The component fails in exactly the same way on my 64-bit Windows 7 machine. My Google searches for solutions to this problem have mostly turned up a lot of different problems that were solved by putting the COM component into a toolbar in Visual Studio. Obviously, that solution doesn't apply here. My questions are: Is there a core problem that is always behind a "catastrophic failure" from a Windows scripting host calling a COM component? Is there a place in a configuration snap-in, or in the registry, where I need to make a change similar to the change I had to make to the IIS Application pool to "Enable 32-bit Applications"? Is there a general place in the Server 2008 R2 Event Viewer that I should be looking, to see if there are any more details on the failure, in case it turns out to be specific to this component? Thanks in advance.

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  • using text and ntext SQL Datatypes in RPG

    - by David Stratton
    I'll preface this with saying that I'm a .NET developer, and am NOT an RPG developer. I'm working with one of our RPG developers to come up with a solution, so any suggestions you provide will get passed to him. We have a scenario where we want our iSeries to read from a SQL Server database. One of the columns is a TEXT column. IN RPG, there is no equivalent data type to use for this. We've gone back and forth on this, and our current plan is to change course, and have our SQL Server write out a text file, which the iSeries can pick up and parse. This is, however, a last resort option, as the data in the file is sensitive, and we'd like to avoid the additional security overhead. We've already got the SQL Server locked down as tight as possible (one user only has read access to this, and that user is an iSeries user.) We don't want to have to worry about transferring files back and forth. However, at this point, we see no other option. We have no in-house Java developers, and need to do this in RPG. So I'm wondering if there are any RPG developers out there who have faced this situation and have any advice.

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  • JEE6 Global JNDI Name and Maven Deployment

    - by wobblycogs
    I'm having some problems with the global JNDI names of my EJB resources which is (or at least will) cause my JNDI look ups to fail. The project is being developed on Netbeans and is a standard Maven Web Application. When my application is deployed to GF3.0 the application name is set to something like: com.example_myapp_war_1.0-SNAPSHOT which is all well and good from Netbeans point of view because it ensures the name is unique but it also means all the EJBs get global names such as this: java:global/com.example_myapp_war_1.0-SNAPSHOT/CustomerService This, of course, is going to cause problems because every time the version changes all the global names change (I've tested this by changing the version and the names indeed changed). The name is being generated from the POM file and it's a concatenation of: <groupId>com.example</groupId> <artifactId>myapp</artifactId> <packaging>war</packaging> <version>1.0-SNAPSHOT</version> Up until now I've got away with just injecting all the resources using @EJB but now I need to access the CustomerService EJB from a JSF Converter so I'm doing a JNDI look up like this: try { Context ctx = new InitialContext(); CustomerService customerService = (CustomerService)ctx.lookup( "java:global/com.example_myapp_war_1.0-SNAPSHOT/CustomerService" ); return customerService.get(submittedValue); } catch( Exception e ) { logger.error( "Failed to convert customer.", e ); return null; } which will clearly break when the application is properly released and the module name changes. So, the million dollar question: how can I set the modle name in maven or how do I recover the module name so that I can programatically build the JNDI name at runtile. I've tried setting it in the web.xml file as suggested by that link but it was ignored. I think I'd rather build the name at runtime as that means there is less scope for screw ups when the application is deployed. Many thanks for any help, I've been tearing my hair out all day on this.

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  • iPhone: Memory leak when using NSOperationQueue...

    - by MacTouch
    Hi, I'm sitting here for at least half an hour to find a memory leak in my code. I just replaced an synchronous call to a (touch) method with an asynchronous one using NSOperationQueue. The Leak Inspector reports a memory leak after I did the change to the code. What's wrong with the version using NSOperationQueue? Version without a MemoryLeak -(NSData *)dataForKey:(NSString*)ressourceId_ { NSString *path = [self cachePathForKey:ressourceId_]; // returns an autoreleased NSString* NSString *cacheKey = [self cacheKeyForRessource:ressourceId_]; // returns an autoreleased NSString* NSData *data = [[self memoryCache] valueForKey:cacheKey]; if (!data) { data = [self loadData:path]; // returns an autoreleased NSData* if (data) { [[self memoryCache] setObject:data forKey:cacheKey]; } } [[self touch:path]; return data; } Version with a MemoryLeak (I do not see any) -(NSData *)dataForKey:(NSString*)ressourceId_ { NSString *path = [self cachePathForKey:ressourceId_]; // returns an autoreleased NSString* NSString *cacheKey = [self cacheKeyForRessource:ressourceId_]; // returns an autoreleased NSString* NSData *data = [[self memoryCache] valueForKey:cacheKey]; if (!data) { data = [self loadData:path]; // returns an autoreleased NSData* if (data) { [[self memoryCache] setObject:data forKey:cacheKey]; } } NSInvocationOperation *touchOp = [[NSInvocationOperation alloc] initWithTarget:self selector:@selector(touch:) object:path]; [[self operationQueue] addOperation:touchOp]; [touchOp release]; return data; } And of course, the touch method does nothing special too. Just change the date of the file. -(void)touch:(id)path_ { NSString *path = (NSString *)path_ NSFileManager *fm = [NSFileManager defaultManager]; if ([fm fileExistsAtPath:path]) { NSDictionary *attributes = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys:[NSDate date], NSFileModificationDate, nil]; [fm setAttributes: attributes ofItemAtPath:path error:nil]; } }

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  • Populating array of input fields as alternate fields using jQuery UI datepicker

    - by Micor
    I am using jquery ui datepicker in order to populate start and end dates for multiple events on the same page, the number of events is dynamic and I need to post day, month and year as separate fields, so I have something like this: <input type="text" name="event[0].startDate" class="date"/> <input type="hidden" name="event[0].startDate_day" class="startDate_day" /> <input type="hidden" name="event[0].startDate_month" class="startDate_month" /> <input type="hidden" name="event[0].startDate_year" class="startDate_year" /> <input type="text" name="event[0].endDate" class="date"/> <input type="hidden" name="event[0].endDate_day" class="endDate_day" /> <input type="hidden" name="event[0].endDate_month" class="endDate_month" /> <input type="hidden" name="event[0].endDate_year" class="startDate_year" /> event[1]... event[2]... I started working on jQuery functionality and this is what I have so far, which will populate alternate fields for startDate by class, of course it will not do what I need because I need to populate by field name rather then class: $(".date").datepicker({ onClose: function(dateText,picker) { $('.startDate_month').val( dateText.split(/\//)[0] ); $('.startDate_day').val( dateText.split(/\//)[1] ); $('.startDate_year').val( dateText.split(/\//)[2] ); }}); I need help figuring out how can I get the name of the input field within datepicker function so the alternate field assignment done by that field name + _day, month, year so this function can work for all the events on the page, making function above look more like: $(".date").datepicker({ onClose: function(dateText,picker) { $('input[' + $name + '_month' + ']').val( dateText.split(/\//)[0] ); $('input[' + $name + '_day' + ']').val( dateText.split(/\//)[1] ); $('input[' + $name + '_year' + ']').val( dateText.split(/\//)[2] ); }}); Hope that makes sense :) Thanks

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  • Can I select 0 columns in SQL Server?

    - by Woody Zenfell III
    I am hoping this question fares a little better than the similar Create a table without columns. Yes, I am asking about something that will strike most as pointlessly academic. It is easy to produce a SELECT result with 0 rows (but with columns), e.g. SELECT a = 1 WHERE 1 = 0. Is it possible to produce a SELECT result with 0 columns (but with rows)? e.g. something like SELECT NO COLUMNS FROM Foo. (This is not valid T-SQL.) I came across this because I wanted to insert several rows without specifying any column data for any of them. e.g. (SQL Server 2005) CREATE TABLE Bar (id INT NOT NULL IDENTITY PRIMARY KEY) INSERT INTO Bar SELECT NO COLUMNS FROM Foo -- Invalid column name 'NO'. -- An explicit value for the identity column in table 'Bar' can only be specified when a column list is used and IDENTITY_INSERT is ON. One can insert a single row without specifying any column data, e.g. INSERT INTO Foo DEFAULT VALUES. One can query for a count of rows (without retrieving actual column data from the table), e.g. SELECT COUNT(*) FROM Foo. (But that result set, of course, has a column.) I tried things like INSERT INTO Bar () SELECT * FROM Foo -- Parameters supplied for object 'Bar' which is not a function. -- If the parameters are intended as a table hint, a WITH keyword is required. and INSERT INTO Bar DEFAULT VALUES SELECT * FROM Foo -- which is a standalone INSERT statement followed by a standalone SELECT statement. I can do what I need to do a different way, but the apparent lack of consistency in support for degenerate cases surprises me. I read through the relevant sections of BOL and didn't see anything. I was surprised to come up with nothing via Google either.

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  • function to get the file name of an URL

    - by user262325
    Hello everyone I have some source code to get the file name of an url for example: http://www.google.com/a.pdf I hope to get a.pdf because the way to join 2 NSStrings I can get is 'appendString' which only for adding a string at right side, so I planned to check each char one by one from the right side of string 'http://www.google.com/a.pdf', when it reach at the char '/', stop the checking, return string fdp.a , after that I change fdp.a to a.pdf source codes are below -(NSMutableString *) getSubStringAfterH : originalString:(NSString *)s0 { NSInteger i,l; l=[s0 length]; NSMutableString *h=[[NSMutableString alloc] init]; NSMutableString *ttt=[[NSMutableString alloc] init ]; for(i=l-1;i>=0;i--) //check each char one by one from the right side of string 'http://www.google.com/a.pdf', when it reach at the char '/', stop { ttt=[s0 substringWithRange:NSMakeRange(i, 1)]; if([ttt isEqualToString:@"/"]) { break; } else { [h appendString:ttt]; } } [ttt release]; //below are to change the sequence of char in h // txt.edcba -> abcde.txt NSMutableString *h1=[[[NSMutableString alloc] initWithFormat:@""] autorelease]; for (i=[h length]-1;i>=0;i--) { NSMutableString *t1=[[NSMutableString alloc] init ]; t1=[h substringWithRange:NSMakeRange(i, 1)]; [h1 appendString:t1]; [t1 release]; } [h release]; return h1; } h1 can reuturn the coorect string a.pdf, but if it returns to the codes where it was called, after a while system reports 'double free * set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug' I checked a long time and foudn that if I removed the code ttt=[s0 substringWithRange:NSMakeRange(i, 1)]; everything will be Ok (of course getSubStringAfterH can not returns the corrent result I expected.), no error reported. I try to fix the bug a few hours, but still no clue. Welcome any comment Thanks interdev

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  • How do I keep Visual Studio's Windows Forms Designer from deleting controls?

    - by Sören Kuklau
    With several forms of mine, I occasionally run into the following issue: I edit the form using the designer (Visual Studio 2008, Windows Forms, .NET 2.0, VB.NET) to add components, only to find out later that some minor adjustments were made (e.g. the form's size is suddenly changed by a few pixels), and controls get deleted. This happens silently — event-handling methods automatically have their Handles suffix removed, too, so they never get called, and there's no compiler error. I only notice much later or not at all, because I'm working on a different area in the form. As an example, I have a form with a SplitContainer containing an Infragistics UltraListView to the left, and an UltraTabControl to the right. I added a new tab, and controls within, and they worked fine. I later on found out that the list view's scrollbar was suddenly invisible, due to its size being off, and at least one control was removed from a different tab that I hadn't been working on. Is this a known issue with the WinForms Designer, or with Infragistics? I use version control, of course, so I can compare the changes and merge the deleted code back in, but it's a tedious process that shouldn't be necessary. Are there ways to avoid this? Is there a good reason for this to occur? One clue is that the control that was removed may have code (such as a Load event handler) that expects to be run in run time, not design time, and may be throwing an exception. Could this cause Visual Studio to remove the control?

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  • Odd Infragistics UltraComboEditor data binding non-bug

    - by Richard Dunlap
    Within an Infragistics 8.2 UltraComboEditor, we had the following properties set via C#: DataSource = dataSource; ValueMember = "Measure"; DisplayMember = "Name"; DataBindings.Add("Value", repository, "Measure"); DataBindings["Value"].DataSourceUpdateMode = DataSourceUpdateMode.OnPropertyChanged; where dataSource was an array of objects, each with a property Measure, and repository was an object with a property Measure. (Those strings are actually constructor parameters -- just using explicit strings to simplify the example.) In the course of some refactoring, the name of the property on the objects in the array was changed to BaseEnum (the objects are actually wrapped enumerations, for the curious), but the name of ValueMember above was not changed. And yet, the combo box binding continued to work through initial testing, beta testing, and even after release... until two customers emailed in noting that the combo box was no longer changing the underlying parameter. We were able to dig out the problem by careful study of the source code repository... despite being in the awkward position of not being able to replicate the buggy behavior internally. Two part question: What's happening under the hood that allowed the binding to continue to function, and/or what might be unique about those two users that caused the binding to (correctly) fail? (O/S version isn't alone the answer, and we get the unexpectedly functioning binding on machines that have never had a version of the software before, so we're not looking at rogue binaries). Are there tools that might have been able to warn us about the misbind, even if something was cleaning up behind?

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  • Outlook Interop Send Message from Account

    - by Reiste
    Okay, the specs have changed on this one somewhat. Maybe someone can help me with this new problem. Manually, what the user is doing is opening an new message in Outlook (2007 now) which has the "From..." field exposed. They open this up, select a certain account from the Global Address List, and send the message on behalf of that account. Is this possible to do? I can get the AddressEntry from the Global address list like so: AddressList list = null; foreach (AddressList addressList in _outlookApp.Session.AddressLists) { if (addressList.Name.ToLower().Equals("global address list")) { list = addressList; break; } } if (list != null) { AddressEntry entry = null; foreach (AddressEntry addressEntry in list.AddressEntries) { if (addressEntry.Name.ToLower().Equals("outgoing mail account")) { entry = addressEntry; break; } } } But I'm not sure I can make an Account type from the Address Entry. It seems to happen manually, when they select the address to send from. How do I mirror this in the Interop? Thanks! (My Original Question): I developed a small C# program to send email using the Outlook 2007 interop. The client required that the mail not be send using the default account - they had a secondary account they needed used. No problem - I used the Microsoft.Office.Interop.Outlook.Account class to access the availabled accounts, and choose the correct one. Now, it turns out they need this to work in Outlook 2003. Of course, the Account class doesn't exist in the Outlook interop 11.0. How can I achieve the same thing with Outlook 2003? Thanks in advance.

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  • Dojo addOnLoad, but is Dojo loaded?

    - by adamrice32
    I've encountered what seems like a chicken & egg problem, and have what I think is a logical solution. However, it occurred to me that others must have encountered something similar, so I figured I'd float it out there for the masses. The situation is that I want to use dojo's addOnLoad function to queue up a number of callbacks which should be executed after the DOM has completed rendering on the client side. So what I'm doing is as follows: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="dojo.xd.js"></script> ... </head> <body> ... <script type="text/javascript"> dojo.addOnLoad( ... ); dojo.addOnLoad( ... ); ... </script> </body> </html> Now, the issue is that I seem to be calling dojo.addOnLoad before the entire Dojo library has been downloaded the browser. This makes sense in a way, because the inline SCRIPT contents should be executed before the entire DOM is loaded (and the normal body onload callback is triggered). My question is this - is my approach sound, or would it make more sense to register a normal/standard body onload JavaScript callback to call a function, which does the same work that each of the dojo.addOnLoads is doing in the SCRIPT block. Of course, this begs the question, why would you ever then use dojo.addOnLoad if you're not guaranteed that the Dojo library will be loaded prior to using the library? Hopefully this situation makes sense to someone other than me. Seems like someone else may have encountered this situation. Thoughts? Best Regards, Adam Rice

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  • Bamboo to Build Specific SVN Revision

    - by Anton Gogolev
    Hi! Imagine there's a project in Bamboo with two build plans: Staging Deployment (SD) and Production Deployment (PD). Building SD checks out latest sources, builds them and deploys a web site to a staging server. Currently, PD does all the same, namely deploys the latest version of a web site to a production server. Clearly, this is not very good: I want to be able to deploy the same exact version of a web site that was previously deployed on a staging server, not the latest one. To illustrate: suppose we're at r101 in SVN repo. Clicking "Build SD" will deploy a web site version, say, 2.1.0.101 to staging server. Now we commit a breaking change and end up at r102. Now I want to deploy to a production server. If I hit "Build PD", Bamboo will happily check out r102 and build it, resulting in version 2.1.0.102 being deployed to a production server. What I want it to do, however, is to build and deploy a version which was previously built in an SD plan (that is, 2.1.0.101). Of course I can make SD plan to tag latest-successful build as tags/builds/latest, but I would rather have Bamboo itself handle that.

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  • Resizing and saving an image in WinMobile and .NET CF throws OutOfMemoryException

    - by devguy
    I have a WinMobile app which allows the user the snap a photo with the camera, and then use for for various things. The photo can be snapped at 1600x1200, 800x600 or 640x480, but it must always be resized to 400px for the longest size (the other is proportional of course). Here's the code: private void LoadImage(string path) { Image tmpPhoto = new Bitmap(path); // calculate new bitmap size... double width = ... double height = ... // draw new bitmap Image photo = new Bitmap(width, height, System.Drawing.Imaging.PixelFormat.Format24bppRgb); using (Graphics g = Graphics.FromImage(photo)) { g.FillRectangle(new SolidBrush(Color.White), new Rectangle(0, 0, photo.Width, photo.Height)); int srcX = (int)((double)(tmpPhoto.Width - width) / 2d); int srcY = (int)((double)(tmpPhoto.Height - height) / 2d); g.DrawImage(tmpPhoto, new Rectangle(0, 0, photo.Width, photo.Height), new Rectangle(srcX, srcY, photo.Width, photo.Height), GraphicsUnit.Pixel); } tmpPhoto.Dispose(); // save new image and dispose photo.Save(Path.Combine(config.TempPath, config.TempPhotoFileName), System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Jpeg); photo.Dispose(); } Now the problem is that the app breaks in the photo.Save call, with an OutOfMemoryException. And I don't know why, since I dispose the tempPhoto (with the original photo from the camera) as soon as I can, and I also dispose the Graphics obj. Why does this happen? It seems impossible to me that one can't take a photo with the camera and resize/save it without making it crash :( Should I restor t C++ for such a simple thing? Thanks.

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  • How to allow tap-to-focus on the camera using an overlay

    - by AJJ
    The standard 3GS iPhone camera includes tap-to-focus (I can tap to the region I want to focus on). However when I use a custom overlay using the UIImagePickerController class, the tap to focus does not seem to work. Everything else in terms of capturing images programmatically etc is working btw. Note that my overlay view is only a small rectangle (UIView) at the bottom of the screen. It does not cover the other areas of the camera. So I believe the taps should go through (unless I am missing something). I have seen other apps use an overlay and still provide a tap-to-focus functionality, so there must be a way to do this. I use all the default controls set to be hidden as: imagePicker.showsCameraControls = NO; imagePicker.toolbarHidden = YES; imagePicker.navigationBarHidden = YES; Of course changing the above does not let me tap-to-focus (it just enables the toolbars, etc). I could not find any answers on the UIImagePickerController class reference. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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  • iPhone User Interface Design

    - by Blaenk
    Hey guys, I've just had a nagging question for a while regarding iPhone app user interfaces. For example, consider WeightBot's User Interface. I am wondering, how are most of these user interfaces created? In general, of course. Is there a way to simply design controls (that is, the images) in a program like Photoshop, then use that 'skin' for controls in UIKit? I realize that there are some controls that are probably created by the programmer (custom controls), but I'm referring to the ready-made ones that come in UIKit. In other words, is the concept similar to 'splicing' web site designs? Where a designer draws out the design of the website in something like Photoshop, and then it is cut up into pieces which can be applied to form the actual website? I know this can be done for UIButtons, can this also be done for other controls, and is this how it is usually done? Or perhaps this is done with Core Animation? I've heard this from time to time, so does this mean that the User Interfaces are 'hard-coded'? Or is Core Animation only use for the 'effects', such as applying the glowing effect to the numbers in WeightBot? If there are any resources you can point me to I would really appreciate it. Thanks!

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  • Constant NSDictionary/NSArray for class methods.

    - by Jeff B
    I am trying to code a global lookup table of sorts. I have game data that is stored in character/string format in a plist, but which needs to be in integer/id format when it is loaded. For instance, in the level data file, a "p" means player. In the game code a player is represented as the integer 1. This let's me do some bitwise operations, etc. I am simplifying greatly here, but trying to get the point across. Also, there is a conversion to coordinates for the sprite on a sprite sheet. Right now this string-integer, integer-string, integer-coordinate, etc. conversion is taking place in several places in code using a case statement. This stinks, of course, and I would rather do it with a dictionary lookup. I created a class called levelInfo, and want to define the dictionary for this conversion, and then class methods to call when I need to do a conversion, or otherwise deal with level data. NSString *levelObjects = @"empty,player,object,thing,doohickey"; int levelIDs[] = [0,1,2,4,8]; // etc etc @implementation LevelInfo +(int) crateIDfromChar: (char) crateChar { int idx = [[crateTypes componentsSeparatedByString:@","] indexOfObject: crateChar]; return levelIDs[idx]; } +(NSString *) crateStringFromID: (int) crateID { return [[crateTypes componentsSeparatedByString:@","] objectAtIndex: crateID]; } @end Is there a better way to do this? It feels wrong to basically build these temporary arrays, or dictionaries, or whatever for each call to do this translation. And I don't know of a way to declare a constant NSArray or NSDictionary. Please, tell me a better way....

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  • Implicit conversion : const reference vs non-const reference vs non-reference

    - by Nawaz
    Consider this code, struct A {}; struct B { B(const A&) {} }; void f(B) { cout << "f()"<<endl; } void g(A &a) { cout << "g()" <<endl; f(a); //a is implicitly converted into B. } int main() { A a; g(a); } This compiles fine, runs fine. But if I change f(B) to f(B&), it doesn't compile. If I write f(const B&), it again compiles fine, runs fine. Why is the reason and rationale? Summary: void f(B); //okay void f(B&); //error void f(const B&); //okay I would like to hear reasons, rationale and reference(s) from the language specification, for each of these cases. Of course, the function signatures themselves are not incorrect. Rather A implicitly converts into B and const B&, but not into B&, and that causes the compilation error.

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  • Circular file references not allowed

    - by Program.X
    Hi, I am having a problem in building my solution in VS2008. Normally, it compiles fine in the environment. Sometimes, it fails with: /xxx_WEB/secure/CMSManagedTargetPage.aspx(1): error ASPPARSE: Circular file references are not allowed. I rebuild and it works fine. Now, however, I am in the middle of setting up a CruiseControl.NET system and am testing my checked out code with MSBuild before I integrate the build into CC. Now, everytime I MSBuild, I get: "Q:\cc\xxx\checked out from svn\xxx.sln" (default target) (1) -> (xxx_WEB target) -> /xxx_WEB/secure/CMSManagedTargetPage.aspx(1): error ASPPARSE: Circular file references are not allowed. Problem is, I can't see where this reference is. I have searched for the reference across the entire solution and canf ind no references to the page itself (CMSManagedTargetPage) anywhere other than in the page or its codebehind, or within a string, eg: C:\dev2008\xxx\IWW.xxx.ASPNET\AspxHttpHandler.cs(82): inputFile = context.Server.MapPath("~/secure/CMSManagedTargetPage.aspx"); C:\dev2008\xxx\IWW.xxx.ASPNET\AspxHttpHandler.cs(83): virtualPath = "~/secure/CMSManagedTargetPage.aspx"; My assembly references are also fine (as far as I know). My Web Application is at the "top" of the dependencies, and nothing references it and therefore the faulting page so cannot cause a circular reference. Of course, the page itself may reference something such as a UserControl within the same assembly/web site, but as mentioned earlier, a search on CMSManagedTargetPage yielded no results so this is not happening. Changing the batch attribute in web.config had no effect on MSBuild. I find it very odd that it "sometimes" fails in VS and always fails in MSBuild. Am I missing some subtlety?

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  • Starter question of declarative style SQLAlchemy relation()

    - by jfding
    I am quite new to SQLAlchemy, or even database programming, maybe my question is too simple. Now I have two class/table: class User(Base): __tablename__ = 'users' id = Column(Integer, primary_key=True) name = Column(String(40)) ... class Computer(Base): __tablename__ = 'comps' id = Column(Integer, primary_key=True) buyer_id = Column(None, ForeignKey('users.id')) user_id = Column(None, ForeignKey('users.id')) buyer = relation(User, backref=backref('buys', order_by=id)) user = relation(User, backref=backref('usings', order_by=id)) Of course, it cannot run. This is the backtrace: File "/Library/Python/2.6/site-packages/SQLAlchemy-0.5.8-py2.6.egg/sqlalchemy/orm/state.py", line 71, in initialize_instance fn(self, instance, args, kwargs) File "/Library/Python/2.6/site-packages/SQLAlchemy-0.5.8-py2.6.egg/sqlalchemy/orm/mapper.py", line 1829, in _event_on_init instrumenting_mapper.compile() File "/Library/Python/2.6/site-packages/SQLAlchemy-0.5.8-py2.6.egg/sqlalchemy/orm/mapper.py", line 687, in compile mapper._post_configure_properties() File "/Library/Python/2.6/site-packages/SQLAlchemy-0.5.8-py2.6.egg/sqlalchemy/orm/mapper.py", line 716, in _post_configure_properties prop.init() File "/Library/Python/2.6/site-packages/SQLAlchemy-0.5.8-py2.6.egg/sqlalchemy/orm/interfaces.py", line 408, in init self.do_init() File "/Library/Python/2.6/site-packages/SQLAlchemy-0.5.8-py2.6.egg/sqlalchemy/orm/properties.py", line 716, in do_init self._determine_joins() File "/Library/Python/2.6/site-packages/SQLAlchemy-0.5.8-py2.6.egg/sqlalchemy/orm/properties.py", line 806, in _determine_joins "many-to-many relation, 'secondaryjoin' is needed as well." % (self)) sqlalchemy.exc.ArgumentError: Could not determine join condition between parent/child tables on relation Package.maintainer. Specify a 'primaryjoin' expression. If this is a many-to-many relation, 'secondaryjoin' is needed as well. There's two foreign keys in class Computer, so the relation() callings cannot determine which one should be used. I think I must use extra arguments to specify it, right? And howto? Thanks

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  • Are there code signing certificates cheaper than US$99 per year? [closed]

    - by gerryLowry
    K Software discounts Comodo code signing certificates to US$99 per year. In the past, I've seen Commodo code signing certificates for US$80. I'm excluding CAcert which AFAIK are FREE but are not covered by browsers like Internet Explorer AFAIK. QUESTION: What is the best price per year for a code signing certificate? Thank you ~~ gerry (lowry) Edit: **THIS SHOULD NOT HAVE BEEN CLOSED** from the FAQ: http://stackoverflow.com/faq ---------------------------- What kind of questions can I ask here? Programming questions, of course! As long as your question is: * detailed and specific <====== YES! * written clearly and simply <====== YES! * of interest to other programmers <====== YES! I've been programming for over 40 years. http://gerrylowryprogrammer.com/ I've taught computer programming at the community college level. I'm a Star level contributer to forums.asp.net. http://forums.asp.net/members/gerrylowry.aspx IMO, I've a very good idea what is of interest to other programmers. MORE INFORMATION http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Code_signing http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms537361%28VS.85%29.aspx also: via Google: code signing Ensuring the integrity of code and executables that one distributes is just as much about programming as is knowing how to flip bits in assembler, use delegates in C#, and use the BDD context/specification still of "test first testing".

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  • LINQ(2 SQL) Insert Multiple Tables Question

    - by Refracted Paladin
    I have 3 tables. A primary EmploymentPlan table with PK GUID EmploymentPlanID and 2 FK's GUID PrevocServicesID & GUID JobDevelopmentServicesID. There are of course other fields, almost exclusively varchar(). Then the 2 secondary tables with the corresponding PK to the primary's FK's. I am trying to write the LINQ INSERT Method and am struggling with the creation of the keys. Say I have a method like below. Is that correct? Will that even work? Should I have seperate methods for each? Also, when INSERTING I didn't think I needed to provide the PK for a table. It is auto-generated, no? Thanks, public static void InsertEmploymentPlan(int planID, Guid employmentQuestionnaireID, string user, bool communityJob, bool jobDevelopmentServices, bool prevocServices, bool transitionedPrevocIntegrated, bool empServiceMatchPref) { using (var context = MatrixDataContext.Create()) { var empPrevocID = Guid.NewGuid(); var prevocPlan = new tblEmploymentPrevocService { EmploymentPrevocID = empPrevocID }; context.tblEmploymentPrevocServices.InsertOnSubmit(prevocPlan); var empJobDevID = Guid.NewGuid(); var jobDevPlan = new tblEmploymentJobDevelopmetService() { JobDevelopmentServicesID = empJobDevID }; context.tblEmploymentJobDevelopmetServices.InsertOnSubmit(jobDevPlan); var empPlan = new tblEmploymentQuestionnaire { CommunityJob = communityJob, EmploymentQuestionnaireID = Guid.NewGuid(), InsertDate = DateTime.Now, InsertUser = user, JobDevelopmentServices = jobDevelopmentServices, JobDevelopmentServicesID =empJobDevID, PrevocServices = prevocServices, PrevocServicesID =empPrevocID, TransitionedPrevocToIntegrated =transitionedPrevocIntegrated, EmploymentServiceMatchPref = empServiceMatchPref }; context.tblEmploymentQuestionnaires.InsertOnSubmit(empPlan); context.SubmitChanges(); } } I understand I can use more then 1 InsertOnSubmit, See SO ? HERE, I just don't understand how that would apply to my situation and the PK/FK creation.

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  • How to clean-up an Entity Framework object context?

    - by Daniel Brückner
    I am adding several entities to an object context. try { forach (var document in documents) { this.Validate(document); // May throw a ValidationException. this.objectContext.AddToDocuments(document); } this.objectContext.SaveChanges(); } catch { // How to clean-up the object context here? throw; } If some of the documents pass the the validation and one fails, all documents that passed the validation remain added to the object context. I have to clean-up the object context because it may be reused and the following can happen. var documentA = new Document { Id = 1, Data = "ValidData" }; var documentB = new Document { Id = 2, Data = "InvalidData" }; var documentC = new Document { Id = 3, Data = "ValidData" }; try { // Adding document B will cause a ValidationException but only // after document A is added to the object context. this.DocumentStore.AddDocuments(new[] { documentA, documentB, documentC }); } catch (ValidationException) { } // Try again without the invalid document B. this.DocumentStore.AddDocuments(new[] { documentA, documentC }); This will again add document A to the object context and in consequence SaveChanges() will throw an exception because of a duplicate primary key. So I have to remove all already added documents in the case of an validation error. I could of course perform the validation first and only add all documents after they have been successfully validated. But sadly this does not solve the whole problem - if SaveChanges() fails all documents still remain add but unsaved. I tried to detach all objects returned by this.objectContext.ObjectStateManager.GetObjectStateEntries(EntityState.Added) but I am getting a exception stating that the object is not attached. So how do I get rid of all added but unsaved objects?

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  • WPF Background Thread Invocation

    - by jeffn825
    Maybe I'm mis-remembering how Winforms works or I'm overcomplicating the hell out of this, but here's my problem. I have a WPF client app application that talks to a server over WCF. The current user may "log out" of the WPF client, which closes all open screens, leaves only the navigation pane, and minimizes the program window. When the user re-maximizes the program window, they are prompted to log in. Simple. But sometimes things happen on background threads - like every 5 minutes the client tries to make a WCF calls that refreshes some cached data. And what if the user is logged out when this 5 minute timer triggers? Well, then the user should be prompted to log back in...and this must of course happen on the UI thread. private static ISecurityContext securityContext; public static ISecurityContext SecurityContext { get { if (securityContext == null) { // Login method shows a window and prompts the user to log in Application.Current.Dispatcher.Invoke((Action)Login); } return securityContext; } } So far so good, right? But what happens when multiple threads hit this spot of code? Well, my first intuition was that since I'm syncrhonizing across the Application.Current.Dispatcher, I should be fine, and whichever thread hit first would be responsible for showing the login form and getting the user logged in... Not the case... Thread 1 will hit the code and call ShowDialog on the login form Thread 2 will also hit the code and will call Login as soon as Thread 1 has called ShowDialog, since calling ShowDialog unblocked Thread 1 (I believe because of the way the WPF message pump works) All I want is a synchronized way of getting the user logged back into the application...what am I missing here? Thanks in advance.

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  • Update multiple rows with known keys without inserting new rows if nonexistent keys are found

    - by Kirzilla
    Hello, Let's imagine that we have table items... table: items item_id INT PRIMARY AUTO_INCREMENT title VARCHAR(255) views INT Let's imagine that it is filled with something like (1, item-1, 10), (2, item-2, 10), (3, item-3, 15) I want to make multi update view for this items from data taken from this array [item_id] = [views] '1' => '50', '2' => '60', '3' => '70', '5' => '10' IMPORTANT! Please note that we have item_id=5 in array, but we don't have item_id=5 in database. I can use INSERT ... ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE, but this way image_id=5 will be inserted into talbe items. How to avoid inserting new key? I just want item_id=5 be skipped because it is not in table. Of course, before execution I can select existing keys from items table; then compare with keys in array; delete nonexistent keys and perform INSERT ... ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE. But maybe there is some more elegant solutions? Thank you.

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  • Remove ActiveRecord in Rails 3 (beta)

    - by Splash
    Now that Rails 3 beta is out, I thought I'd have a look at rewriting an app I have just started work on in Rails 3 beta, both to get a feel for it and get a bit of a head-start. The app uses MongoDB and MongoMapper for all of its models nad therefore has no need for ActiveRecord. In the previous version, I am unloading activerecord in the following way: config.frameworks -= [ :active_record ] # inside environment.rb In the latest version this does not work - it just throws an error: /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/railties-3.0.0.beta/lib/rails/configuration.rb:126:in `frameworks': config.frameworks in no longer supported. See the generated config/boot.rb for steps on how to limit the frameworks that will be loaded (RuntimeError) from *snip* Of course, I have looked at the boot.rb as it suggested, but as far as I can see, there is no clue here as to how I might go about unloading AR. The reason I need to do this is because not only is it silly to be loading something I don't want, but it is complaining about its inability to make a DB connection even when I try to run a generator for a controller. This is because I've wiped database.yml and replaced it with connection details for MongoDB in order to use this gist for using database.yml for MongoDB connection details. Not sure why it needs to be able to initiate a DB connection at all just to generate a controller anyway.... Is anyone aware of the correct Rails 3 way of doing this?

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