Search Results

Search found 6638 results on 266 pages for 'exchange 2007'.

Page 258/266 | < Previous Page | 254 255 256 257 258 259 260 261 262 263 264 265  | Next Page >

  • Some web pages (especially Apple documentation) cause heavy CPU usage in Windows IE8

    - by Mark Lutton
    Maybe this belongs in Server Fault instead, but some of you may have noticed this issue (particularly those developing on Mac, using a Windows machine to read the reference material). I posted the same question on a Microsoft forum and got one answer from someone who reproduced the problem, so it's not just my machine. No solution yet. Ever since this month's security updates, I find that many web pages cause the CPU to run at maximum for as long as the web page is visible. This happens in both IE7 and IE8 on at least three different computers (two with Windows XP, one with Vista). Here is one of the pages, running on XP with IE 8: http://learning2code.blogspot.com/2007/11/update-using-subversion-with-xcode-3.html Here is one that does it in Vista with IE8: http://developer.apple.com/iphone/library/documentation/Cocoa/Reference/Foundation/Classes/NSString_Class/Reference/NSString.html You can leave the page open for hours and the CPU is still at high usage. This doesn't happen every time. It is not always reproduceable. Sometimes it is OK the second or third time it loads. In IE7 the high usage is in ieframe.dll, version 7.0.6000.16890. In IE8 the high usage is in iertutil.dll, version 8.0.6001.18806.

    Read the article

  • LinQ XML mapping to a generic type

    - by Manuel Navarro
    I´m trying to use an external XML file to map the output from a stored procedure into an instance of a class. The problem is that my class is of a generic type: public class MyValue<T> { public T Value { get; set; } } Searching through a lot of blogs an articles I've managed to get this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <Database Name="" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/linqtosql/mapping/2007"> <Table Name="MyValue" Member="MyNamespace.MyValue`1" > <Type Name="MyNamespace.MyValue`1"> <Column Name="Category" Member="Value" DbType="VarChar(100)" /> </Type> </Table> <Function Method="GetResourceCategories" Name="myprefix_GetResourceCategories" > <ElementType Name="MyNamespace.MyValue`1"/> </Function> </Database> The MyNamespace.MyValue`1 trick works fine, and the class is recognized. I expect four rows from the stored procedure, and I'm getting four MyValue<string> instances, but the big problem is that the property Value for the all four instances is null. The property is not getting mapped and I don't really get why. Maybe worth noting that the property Value is generic, and that when the mapping is done using attributes it works perfect. Anyone have a clue? BTW the method GetResourceCategories: public ISingleResult<MyValue<string>> GetResourceCategories() { IExecuteResult result = this.ExecuteMethodCall( this, (MethodInfo)MethodInfo.GetCurrentMethod()); return (ISingleResult<MyValue<string>>)result.ReturnValue; }

    Read the article

  • Why are symbols not frozen strings?

    - by Alex Chaffee
    I understand the theoretical difference between Strings and Symbols. I understand that Symbols are meant to represent a concept or a name or an identifier or a label or a key, and Strings are a bag of characters. I understand that Strings are mutable and transient, where Symbols are immutable and permanent. I even like how Symbols look different from Strings in my text editor. What bothers me is that practically speaking, Symbols are so similar to Strings that the fact that they're not implemented as Strings causes a lot of headaches. They don't even support duck-typing or implicit coercion, unlike the other famous "the same but different" couple, Float and Fixnum. The mere existence of HashWithIndifferentAccess, and its rampant use in Rails and other frameworks, demonstrates that there's a problem here, an itch that needs to be scratched. Can anyone tell me a practical reason why Symbols should not be frozen Strings? Other than "because that's how it's always been done" (historical) or "because symbols are not strings" (begging the question). Consider the following astonishing behavior: :apple == "apple" #=> false, should be true :apple.hash == "apple".hash #=> false, should be true {apples: 10}["apples"] #=> nil, should be 10 {"apples" => 10}[:apples] #=> nil, should be 10 :apple.object_id == "apple".object_id #=> false, but that's actually fine All it would take to make the next generation of Rubyists less confused is this: class Symbol < String def initialize *args super self.freeze end (and a lot of other library-level hacking, but still, not too complicated) See also: http://onestepback.org/index.cgi/Tech/Ruby/SymbolsAreNotImmutableStrings.red http://www.randomhacks.net/articles/2007/01/20/13-ways-of-looking-at-a-ruby-symbol Why does my code break when using a hash symbol, instead of a hash string? Why use symbols as hash keys in Ruby? What are symbols and how do we use them? Ruby Symbols vs Strings in Hashes Can't get the hang of symbols in Ruby

    Read the article

  • What are the advantages of a query using a derived table(s) over a query not using them?

    - by AspOnMyNet
    I know how derived tables are used, but I still can’t really see any real advantages of using them. For example, in the following article http://techahead.wordpress.com/2007/10/01/sql-derived-tables/ the author tried to show benefits of a query using derived table over a query without one with an example, where we want to generate a report that shows off the total number of orders each customer placed in 1996, and we want this result set to include all customers, including those that didn’t place any orders that year and those that have never placed any orders at all( he’s using Northwind database ). But when I compare the two queries, I fail to see any advantages of a query using a derived table ( if nothing else, use of a derived table doesn't appear to simplify our code, at least not in this example): Regular query: SELECT C.CustomerID, C.CompanyName, COUNT(O.OrderID) AS TotalOrders FROM Customers C LEFT OUTER JOIN Orders O ON C.CustomerID = O.CustomerID AND YEAR(O.OrderDate) = 1996 GROUP BY C.CustomerID, C.CompanyName Query using a derived table: SELECT C.CustomerID, C.CompanyName, COUNT(dOrders.OrderID) AS TotalOrders FROM Customers C LEFT OUTER JOIN (SELECT * FROM Orders WHERE YEAR(Orders.OrderDate) = 1996) AS dOrders ON C.CustomerID = dOrders.CustomerID GROUP BY C.CustomerID, C.CompanyName Perhaps this just wasn’t a good example, so could you show me an example where benefits of derived table are more obvious? thanx

    Read the article

  • How to Update with LINQ?

    - by DaveDev
    currently, I'm doing an update similar to as follows, because I can't see a better way of doing it. I've tried suggestions that I've read in blogs but none work, such as http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb425822.aspx and http://weblogs.asp.net/scottgu/archive/2007/05/19/using-linq-to-sql-part-1.aspx Maybe these do work and I'm missing some point. Has anyone else had luck with them? // please note this isn't the actual code. // I've modified it to clarify the point I wanted to make // and also I didn't want to post our code here! public bool UpdateMyStuff(int myId, List<int> funds) { // get MyTypes that correspond to the ID I want to update IQueryable<MyType> myTypes = database.MyTypes.Where(xx => xx.MyType_MyId == myId); // delete them from the database foreach (db.MyType mt in myTypes) { database.MyTypes.DeleteOnSubmit(mt); } database.SubmitChanges(); // create a new row for each item I wanted to update, and insert it foreach (int fund in funds) { database.MyType mt = new database.MyType { MyType_MyId = myId, fund_id = fund }; database.MyTypes.InsertOnSubmit(mt); } // try to commit the insert try { database.SubmitChanges(); return true; } catch (Exception) { return false; throw; } } Unfortunately, there isn't a database.MyTypes.Update() method so I don't know a better way to do it. Can sombody suggest what I could do? Thanks. ..as a side note, why isn't there an Update() method?

    Read the article

  • Assembly-wide / root-level styles in WPF class library

    - by WarpedBoard
    I have a C# (2008/.NET 3.5) class library assembly that supports WPF (based on http://dotupdate.wordpress.com/2007/12/05/how-to-add-a-wpf-control-library-template-to-visual-c-express-2008/). I've created several windows, and am now attempting to create a common style set for them. However, as it's a class library (instead of a WPF app), I don't have an app.xaml (and its contained Application & corresponding Application.Resources) in which to store these styles for global access. So: How can I create a top-level set of style definitions that'll be seen by all xaml files in the assembly, given that I do not have app.xaml (see above)? And/or is it possible to add a working app.xaml to a class library? FYI, I did try creating a ResourceDictionary in a ResourceDictionary.xaml file, and include it in each window within a "Window.Resources" block. That turned out to solve the styling of Buttons, etc... but not for the enclosing Window. I can put 'Style="{StaticResource MyWindowStyle}"' in the Window's opening block, and it compiles and shows up in the VS Design window fine, but during actual runtime I get a parse exception (MyWindowStyle could not be found; I'm guessing Visual Studio sees the dictionary included after the line in question, but the CRL does things more sequentially and therefore hasn't loaded the ResourceDictionary yet).

    Read the article

  • Outstanding issues with jQuery.ajax() in IE8?

    - by RyanV
    I am loading feed-items into a ul using this jQuery .ajax() call, which I basically lifted from http://www.makemineatriple.com/2007/10/bbcnewsticker/ var timestamp = true; //set whether timestamp is displayed in $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "sample-feed.xml", dataType: "xml", success: function(xml) { $(xml).find('item').each(function(){ var title = $(this).find('title').text(); var link = $(this).find('link').text(); if(title.length >=57){ title = title.substring(0,54) + "..."; } var addItem = '<li class="tickerTitle"><a href="'+link+'">'+title+'</a>'; if (Boolean(timestamp)== true){ var time = new Date(Date.parse($(this).find('pubDate').text())); addItem +='<span class="timestamp">' + makestamp(time) +'</span></li>'; } $('ul#news').append(addItem); }); It works in Chrome 4 and Firefox 3.6, but I load it up in IE8 and somehow the ajax call fails. I have tried to use IE8's Developer tools to see where exactly it fails, but I haven't been successful yet. So two questions Is there anything blatantly wrong with my ajax call here that could be preventing me from seeing it in IE where it works in FF/Chrome? Are there any special considerations I have to make for the Internet Explorer family of browsers with regards to this particular jQuery method? I've done some googling on this but nothing obvious is coming up. One other note: I am currently using jQuery 1.3.2 due to some legacy scripts on the same site. I did try loading 1.4.2 and it had the same results on IE8

    Read the article

  • When should EntityManagerFactory instance be created/opened ?

    - by masato-san
    Ok, I read bunch of articles/examples how to write Entity Manager Factory in singleton. One of them easiest for me to understand a bit: http://javanotepad.blogspot.com/2007/05/jpa-entitymanagerfactory-in-web.html I learned that EntityManagerFactory (EMF) should only be created once preferably in application scope. And also make sure to close the EMF once it's used (?) So I wrote EMF helper class for business methods to use: public class EmProvider { private static final String DB_PU = "KogaAlphaPU"; public static final boolean DEBUG = true; private static final EmProvider singleton = new EmProvider(); private EntityManagerFactory emf; private EmProvider() {} public static EmProvider getInstance() { return singleton; } public EntityManagerFactory getEntityManagerFactory() { if(emf == null) { emf = Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory(DB_PU); } if(DEBUG) { System.out.println("factory created on: " + new Date()); } return emf; } public void closeEmf() { if(emf.isOpen() || emf != null) { emf.close(); } emf = null; if(DEBUG) { System.out.println("EMF closed at: " + new Date()); } } }//end class And my method using EmProvider: public String foo() { EntityManager em = null; List<Object[]> out = null; try { em = EmProvider.getInstance().getEntityManagerFactory().createEntityManager(); Query query = em.createNativeQuery(JPQL_JOIN); //just some random query out = query.getResultList(); } catch(Exception e) { //handle error.... } finally { if(em != null) { em.close(); //make sure to close EntityManager } } I made sure to close EntityManager (em) within method level as suggested. But when should EntityManagerFactory be closed then? And why EMF has to be singleton so bad??? I read about concurrency issues but as I am not experienced multi-thread-grammer, I can't really be clear on this idea.

    Read the article

  • Just for fun (C# and C++)...time yourself [closed]

    - by Ted
    Possible Duplicate: What is your solution to the FizzBuzz problem? OK guys this is just for fun, no flamming allowed ! I was reading the following http://www.codinghorror.com/blog/2007/02/why-cant-programmers-program.html and couldn't believe the following sentence... " I've also seen self-proclaimed senior programmers take more than 10-15 minutes to write a solution." For those that can't be bothered to read the article, the background is this: ....I set out to develop questions that can identify this kind of developer and came up with a class of questions I call "FizzBuzz Questions" named after a game children often play (or are made to play) in schools in the UK. An example of a Fizz-Buzz question is the following: Write a program that prints the numbers from 1 to 100. But for multiples of three print "Fizz" instead of the number and for the multiples of five print "Buzz". For numbers which are multiples of both three and five print "FizzBuzz". SO I decided to test myself. I took 5 minutes in C++ and 3mins in c#! So just for fun try it and post your timings + language used! P.S NO UNIT TESTS REQUIRED, NO OUTSOURCING ALLOWED, SWITCH OFF RESHARPER! :-) P.S. If you'd like to post your source then feel free

    Read the article

  • Configuring the GPS Intermediate Driver

    - by Zach Smith
    Hello, I have a Motorola MC75 with an integrated GPS system that I am trying to use for programming. I have done some research on it and tried setting it up by editing the remote registry of the device according to some specifications that I found on the internet on this blog, http://csharponphone.blogspot.com/2007/07/configuring-gps-intermediate-driver.html. I used the smart phone guide at the bottom of the page but to no avail. Currently, I am trying to test it with the GPS application provided in the Windows Mobile 6 SDK samples. The program will load and begin what looks like the search for satellites but will not locate anything. I do not think the GPS is set up correctly. Does anyone have any helpful insight onto this issue or a guide for configuring the GPSID? Thank you in advance. Also, I have already checked and tried some of the config help on MSDN which does not help me either. I will surely vote for the most helpful answer. Thanks, Zach

    Read the article

  • ADO.NET Data Services Media type requires a ';' character before a parameter definition.

    - by idahosaedokpayi
    I am experimenting with ADO.NET and I am seeing this error on the second attempt to browse the service: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" standalone="yes" ?> <error xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/ado/2007/08/dataservices/metadata"> <code /> <message xml:lang="en-US">Media type requires a ';' character before a parameter definition.</message> </error> The first attempt is normal. I am working with an exactly identical service on an internal development network and it is fine. I am including my connection string: <add name="J4Entities" connectionString="metadata=res://*;provider=System.Data.SqlClient;provider connection string=&quot;Data Source=MNSTSQL01N;Initial Catalog=J4;Integrated Security=True;MultipleActiveResultSets=True&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient"/> and my Data service class: using System; using System.Data.Services; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.ServiceModel.Web; public class Data : DataService< J4Model.J4Entities > { // This method is called only once to initialize service-wide policies. public static void InitializeService(IDataServiceConfiguration config) { // TODO: set rules to indicate which entity sets and service operations are visible, updatable, etc. // Examples: config.SetEntitySetAccessRule("*", EntitySetRights.AllRead); // config.SetServiceOperationAccessRule("MyServiceOperation", ServiceOperationRights.All); } } Is there something obvious I am not doing?

    Read the article

  • Map inheritance from generic class in Linq To SQL

    - by Ksenia Mukhortova
    Hi everyone, I'm trying to map my inheritance hierarchy to DB using Linq to SQL: Inheritance is like this, classes are POCO, without any LINQ to SQL attributes: public interface IStage { ... } public abstract class SimpleStage<T> : IStage where T : Process { ... } public class ConcreteStage : SimpleStage<ConcreteProcess> { ... } Here is the mapping: <Database Name="NNN" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/linqtosql/mapping/2007"> <Table Name="dbo.Stage" Member="Stage"> <Type Name="BusinessLogic.Domain.IStage"> <Column Name="ID" Member="ID" DbType="Int NOT NULL IDENTITY" IsPrimaryKey="true" IsDbGenerated="true" AutoSync="OnInsert" /> <Column Name="StageType" Member="StageType" IsDiscriminator="true" /> <Type Name="BusinessLogic.Domain.SimpleStage" IsInheritanceDefault="true"> <Type Name="BusinessLogic.Domain.ConcreteStage" IsInheritanceDefault="true" InheritanceCode="1"/> </Type> </Type> </Table> </Database> In the runtime I get error: System.InvalidOperationException was unhandled Message="Mapping Problem: Cannot find runtime type for type mapping 'BusinessLogic.Domain.SimpleStage'." Neither specifying SimpleStage, nor SimpleStage<T> in mapping file helps - runtime keeps producing different types of errors. DC is created like this: StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(@"MappingFile.map"); XmlMappingSource mapping = XmlMappingSource.FromStream(sr.BaseStream); DataContext dc = new DataContext(@"connection string", mapping); If Linq to SQL doesn't support this, could you, please, advise some other ORM, which does. Thanks in advance, Regards! Ksenia

    Read the article

  • Would like some modelling tips for dependent values

    - by orjan
    I'm working on a model for a simple fishing competition and I have some issues with my design. The main class for the fishing game is Capture and it looks like this: public class Capture : Entity { public virtual int Weight { get; set; } public virtual int Length { get; set; } public virtual DateTime DateForCapture { get; set; } public virtual User CapturedBy { get; set; } public virtual Species Species { get; set; } } So far there´s no problem but I'm not really sure how to model the game. Every Species is connected to a reference weight that changes from year to year The number of point for a capture is its Weight divided by the current reference weight for the species. One way to solve the problem is to connect a capture to SpeciesReferenceWeight instead of Species public class SpeciesReferenceWeight : Entity { public virtual Species Species { get; set; } public virtual int ReferenceWeight { get; set; } public virtual int Year { get; set; } } But in that way that Capture is connected to the implementation details of the game and from my point of view a capture is still a capture even if it's not included in a game. The result I'm aiming for is like: http://hornalen.net/fishbonkern/2007/ that I wrote a couple of years ago with brute force sql and no domain model. I would be very happy for all kinds of feeback on this issue.

    Read the article

  • Facebook Oauth Logout

    - by Derek Troy-West
    I have an application that integrates with Facebook using Oauth 2. I can authorize with FB and query their REST and Graph APIs perfectly well, but when I authorize an active browser session is created with FB. I can then log-out of my application just fine, but the session with FB persists, so if anyone else uses the browser they will see the previous users FB account (unless the previous user manually logs out of FB also). The steps I take to authorize are: Call [LINK: graph.facebook.com/oauth/authorize?client_id...] This step opens a Facebook login/connect window if the user's browser doesn't already have an active FB session. Once they log-in to facebook they redirect to my site with a code I can exchange for an oauth token. Call [LINK: graph.facebook.com/oauth/access_token?client_id..] with the code from (1) Now I have an Oauth Token, and the user's browser is logged into my site, and into FB. I call a bunch of APIs to do stuff: i.e. [LINK: graph.facebook.com/me?access_token=..] Lets say my user wants to log out of my site. The FB terms and conditions demand that I perform Single Sign Off, so when the user logs out of my site, they also are logged out of Facebook. There are arguments that this is a bit daft, but I'm happy to comply if there is any way of actually achieving that. I have seen suggestions that: A. I use the Javascript API to logout: FB.Connect.logout(). Well I tried using that, but it didn't work, and I'm not sure exactly how it could, as I don't use the Javascript API in any way on my site. The session isn't maintained or created by the Javascript API so I'm not sure how it's supposed to expire it either. B. Use [LINK: facebook.com/logout.php]. This was suggested by an admin in the Facebook forums some time ago. The example given related to the old way of getting FB sessions (non-oauth) so I don't think I can apply it in my case. C. Use the old REST api expireSession or revokeAuthorization. I tried both of these and while they do expire the Oauth token they don't invalidate the session that the browser is currently using so it has no effect, the user is not logged out of Facebook. I'm really at a bit of a loose end, the Facebook documentation is patchy, ambiguous and pretty poor. The support on the forums is non-existant, at the moment I can't even log in to the facebook forum, and aside from that, their own FB Connect integration doesn't even work on the forum itself. Doesn't inspire much confidence. Ta for any help you can offer. Derek ps. Had to change HTTPS to LINK, not enough karma to post links which is probably fair enough.

    Read the article

  • Padding error when using RSA Encryption in C# and Decryption in Java

    - by Matt Shaver
    Currently I am receiving the following error when using Java to decrypt a Base64 encoded RSA encrypted string that was made in C#: javax.crypto.BadPaddingException: Not PKCS#1 block type 2 or Zero padding The setup process between the exchange from .NET and Java is done by creating a private key in the .NET key store then from the PEM file extracted, created use keytool to create a JKS version with the private key. Java loads the already created JKS and decodes the Base64 string into a byte array and then uses the private key to decrypt. Here is the code that I have in C# that creates the encrypted string: public string Encrypt(string value) { byte[] baIn = null; byte[] baRet = null; string keyContainerName = "test"; CspParameters cp = new CspParameters(); cp.Flags = CspProviderFlags.UseMachineKeyStore; cp.KeyContainerName = keyContainerName; RSACryptoServiceProvider rsa = new RSACryptoServiceProvider(cp); // Convert the input string to a byte array baIn = UnicodeEncoding.Unicode.GetBytes(value); // Encrypt baRet = rsa.Encrypt(baIn, false); // Convert the encrypted byte array to a base64 string return Convert.ToBase64String(baRet); } Here is the code that I have in Java that decrypts the inputted string: public void decrypt(String base64String) { String keyStorePath = "C:\Key.keystore"; String storepass = "1234"; String keypass = "abcd"; byte[] data = Base64.decode(base64String); byte[] cipherData = null; keystore = KeyStore.getInstance("JKS"); keystore.load(new FileInputStream(keyStorePath), storepass.toCharArray()); RSAPrivateKey privateRSAKey = (RSAPrivateKey) keystore.getKey(alias, keypass.toCharArray()); Cipher cipher = Cipher.getInstance("RSA/ECB/PKCS1Padding"); cipher.init(Cipher.DECRYPT_MODE, privateRSAKey); cipherData = cipher.doFinal(data); System.out.println(new String(cipherData)); } Does anyone see a step missing or where the padding or item needs to be changed? I have done hours of reading on this site and others but haven't really found a concrete solution. You're help is vastly appreciated. Thanks. -Matt

    Read the article

  • Interesting issue with WCF wsHttpBinding through a Firewall

    - by Marko
    I have a web application deployed in an internet hosting provider. This web application consumes a WCF Service deployed at an IIS server located at my company’s application server, in order to have data access to the company’s database, the network guys allowed me to expose this WCF service through a firewall for security reasons. A diagram would look like this. [Hosted page] --- (Internet) --- |Firewall <Public IP>:<Port-X >| --- [IIS with WCF Service <Comp. Network Ip>:<Port-Y>] link text I also wanted to use wsHttpBinding to take advantage of its security features, and encrypt sensible information. After trying it out I get the following error: Exception Details: System.ServiceModel.EndpointNotFoundException: The message with To 'http://<IP>:<Port>/service/WCFService.svc' cannot be processed at the receiver, due to an AddressFilter mismatch at the EndpointDispatcher. Check that the sender and receiver's EndpointAddresses agree. Doing some research I found out that wsHttpBinding uses WS-Addressing standards, and reading about this standard I learned that the SOAP header is enhanced to include tags like ‘MessageID’, ‘ReplyTo’, ‘Action’ and ‘To’. So I’m guessing that, because the client application endpoint specifies the Firewall IP address and Port, and the service replies with its internal network address which is different from the Firewall’s IP, then WS-Addressing fires the above message. Which I think it’s a very good security measure, but it’s not quite useful in my scenario. Quoting the WS-Addressing standard submission (http://www.w3.org/Submission/ws-addressing/) "Due to the range of network technologies currently in wide-spread use (e.g., NAT, DHCP, firewalls), many deployments cannot assign a meaningful global URI to a given endpoint. To allow these ‘anonymous’ endpoints to initiate message exchange patterns and receive replies, WS-Addressing defines the following well-known URI for use by endpoints that cannot have a stable, resolvable URI. http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/ws/2004/08/addressing/role/anonymous" HOW can I configure my wsHttpBinding Endpoint to address my Firewall’s IP and to ignore or bypass the address specified in the ‘To’ WS-Addressing tag in the SOAP message header? Or do I have to change something in my service endpoint configuration? Help and guidance will be much appreciated. Marko. P.S.: While I find any solution to this, I’m using basicHttpBinding with absolutely no problem of course.

    Read the article

  • help setting up wsHttpBinding WCF service on .net

    - by manu1001
    I'm trying to host a WCF service with wsHttpBinding. I created a certificate using makecert and put some lines in web.config. This is the error that I'm getting: System.ArgumentException: The certificate 'CN=WCfServer' must have a private key that is capable of key exchange. The process must have access rights for the private key. On googling up it seems to be some issue with access rights on the certificate file. I used cacls to give read permission to NETWORK SERVICE and also my username but it didn't change anything. I also went to security settings in the properties of the certificate file and gave full control to NETWORK SERVICE and my username. Again to no avail. Can you guide me as to what the problem is and what exactly I need to do? I'm really flaky with these certificate things. Here's my web.config: <system.serviceModel> <services> <service name="Abc.Service" behaviorConfiguration="Abc.ServiceBehavior"> <endpoint address="" binding="wsHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="Abc.BindConfig" contract="Abc.IService"> <identity> <dns value="localhost"/> </identity> </endpoint> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange"/> </service> </services> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="Abc.ServiceBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true"/> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="false"/> <serviceCredentials> <clientCertificate> <authentication certificateValidationMode="PeerTrust"/> </clientCertificate> <serviceCertificate findValue="WCfServer" storeLocation="CurrentUser" storeName="My" x509FindType="FindBySubjectName" /> </serviceCredentials> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> <bindings> <wsHttpBinding> <binding name="Abc.BindConfig"> <security mode="Message"> <message clientCredentialType="Certificate" /> </security> </binding> </wsHttpBinding> </bindings> </system.serviceModel>

    Read the article

  • GameKit: GKSession manual

    - by mongeta
    Hello, I want to connect two devices using the GKSession, starting one as a server and the other one as a client. Using this configuration I can't use the GKPeerPickerController. I'm having problems for connecting the two devices: Using only bluetooth: impossible using WiFi: at least there are some data exchange between the devices but no successfully conection. In the interface file I have the GKSessionDelegate GKSession *session; In the implementation, I start the server using this code: session = [[GKSession alloc] initWithSessionID:@"iFood" displayName:nil sessionMode:GKSessionModeClient]; session.delegate = self; session.available = YES; The client starts using this code: session = [[GKSession alloc] initWithSessionID:@"iFood" displayName:nil sessionMode:GKSessionModeServer]; session.delegate = self; session.available = YES; How I can force the use of Bluetooth instead of the WiFi ? Also I have implemented those calls: -(void)session:(GKSession *)session didReceiveConnectionRequestFromPeer:(NSString *)peerID { NSLog(@"Someone is trying to connect"); } - (BOOL)acceptConnectionFromPeer:(NSString *)peerID error:(NSError **)error { NSLog(@"acceptConnectionFromPeer"); } When I start, I get this into the debugger: Listening on port 50775 2010-02-19 14:55:02.547 iFood[3009:5103] handleEvents started (2) And when the other device starts to find, I get this: ~ DNSServiceBrowse callback: Ref=187f70, Flags=2, IFIndex=2 (name=[en0]), ErrorType=0 name=00eGs1R1A..Only by Audi regtype=_2c3mugr67ej6j7._udp. domain=local. ~ DNSServiceQueryRecord callback: Ref=17bd40, Flags=2, IFIndex=2 (name=[en0]), ErrorType=0 fullname=00eGs1R1A\.\.Only\032by\032Audi._2c3mugr67ej6j7._udp.local. rrtype=16 rrclass=1 rdlen=18 ttl=4500 ** peer 1527211048: oldbusy=0, newbusy=0 ~ DNSServiceBrowse callback: Ref=187f70, Flags=2, IFIndex=-3 (name=[]), ErrorType=0 name=00eGs1R1A..Only by Audi regtype=_2c3mugr67ej6j7._udp. domain=local. GKPeer[186960] 1527211048 service count old=1 new=2 ~ DNSServiceQueryRecord callback: Ref=17bd40, Flags=2, IFIndex=-3 (name=[]), ErrorType=0 fullname=00egs1r1a\.\.only\032by\032audi._2c3mugr67ej6j7._udp.local. rrtype=16 rrclass=1 rdlen=18 ttl=7200 ** peer 1527211048: oldbusy=0, newbusy=0 ~ DNSServiceBrowse callback: Ref=187f70, Flags=2, IFIndex=-3 (name=[]), ErrorType=0 name=00TF5kc1A..Only by Audi regtype=_2c3mugr67ej6j7._udp. domain=local. ~ DNSServiceQueryRecord callback: Ref=188320, Flags=2, IFIndex=-3 (name=[]), ErrorType=0 fullname=00tf5kc1a\.\.only\032by\032audi._2c3mugr67ej6j7._udp.local. rrtype=16 rrclass=1 rdlen=18 ttl=7200 ** peer 1723356125: oldbusy=0, newbusy=0 ~ DNSServiceQueryRecord callback: Ref=188320, Flags=2, IFIndex=2 (name=[en0]), ErrorType=0 fullname=00TF5kc1A\.\.Only\032by\032Audi._2c3mugr67ej6j7._udp.local. rrtype=16 rrclass=1 rdlen=18 ttl=4500 ** peer 1723356125: oldbusy=0, newbusy=0 What I'm missing here ? I'm sure that both devices have bluetooth enabled and connected into the same WiFi. thanks, r.

    Read the article

  • Lots of questions about file I/O (reading/writing message strings)

    - by Nazgulled
    Hi, For this university project I'm doing (for which I've made a couple of posts in the past), which is some sort of social network, it's required the ability for the users to exchange messages. At first, I designed my data structures to hold ALL messages in a linked list, limiting the message size to 256 chars. However, I think my instructors will prefer if I save the messages on disk and read them only when I need them. Of course, they won't say what they prefer, I need to make a choice and justify the best I can why I went that route. One thing to keep in mind is that I only need to save the latest 20 messages from each user, no more. Right now I have an Hash Table that will act as inbox, this will be inside the user profile. This Hash Table will be indexed by name (the user that sent the message). The value for each element will be a data structure holding an array of size_t with 20 elements (20 messages like I said above). The idea is to keep track of the disk file offsets and bytes written. Then, when I need to read a message, I just need to use fseek() and read the necessary bytes. I think this could work nicely... I could use just one single file to hold all messages from all users in the network. I'm saying one single file because a colleague asked an instructor about saving the messages from each user independently which he replied that it might not be the best approach cause the file system has it's limits. That's why I'm thinking of going the single file route. However, this presents a problem... Since I only need to save the latest 20 messages, I need to discard the older ones when I reach this limit. I have no idea how to do this... All I know is about fread() and fwrite() to read/write bytes from/to files. How can I go to a file offset and say "hey, delete the following X bytes"? Even if I could do that, there's another problem... All offsets below that one will be completely different and I would have to process all users mailboxes to fix the problem. Which would be a pain... So, any suggestions to solve my problems? What do you suggest?

    Read the article

  • Authorizing a computer to access a web application

    - by HackedByChinese
    I have a web application, and am tasked with adding secure sign-on to bolster security, akin to what Google has added to Google accounts. Use Case Essentially, when a user logs in, we want to detect if the user has previously authorized this computer. If the computer has not been authorized, the user is sent a one-time password (via email, SMS, or phone call) that they must enter, where the user may choose to remember this computer. In the web application, we will track authorized devices, allowing users to see when/where they logged in from that device last, and deauthorize any devices if they so choose. We require a solution that is very light touch (meaning, requiring no client-side software installation), and works with Safari, Chrome, Firefox, and IE 7+ (unfortunately). We will offer x509 security, which provides adequate security, but we still need a solution for customers that can't or won't use x509. My intention is to store authorization information using cookies (or, potentially, using local storage, degrading to flash cookies, and then normal cookies). At First Blush Track two separate values (local data or cookies): a hash representing a secure sign-on token, as well as a device token. Both values are driven (and recorded) by the web application, and dictated to the client. The SSO token is dependent on the device as well as a sequence number. This effectively allows devices to be deauthorized (all SSO tokens become invalid) and mitigates replay (not effectively, though, which is why I'm asking this question) through the use of a sequence number, and uses a nonce. Problem With this solution, it's possible for someone to just copy the SSO and device tokens and use in another request. While the sequence number will help me detect such an abuse and thus deauthorize the device, the detection and response can only happen after the valid device and malicious request both attempt access, which is ample time for damage to be done. I feel like using HMAC would be better. Track the device, the sequence, create a nonce, timestamp, and hash with a private key, then send the hash plus those values as plain text. Server does the same (in addition to validating the device and sequence) and compares. That seems much easier, and much more reliable.... assuming we can securely negotiate, exchange, and store private keys. Question So then, how can I securely negotiate a private key for authorized device, and then securely store that key? Is it more possible, at least, if I settle for storing the private key using local storage or flash cookies and just say it's "good enough"? Or, is there something I can do to my original draft to mitigate the vulnerability I describe?

    Read the article

  • Using Apple’s Bonjour service from .NET?

    - by Martín Marconcini
    I have an iPhone app that publishes through Bonjour. The Mac counterpart works, they sync and exchange data. Now I have to port that little Mac app to Windows. I’ve decided to go with .NET (because that’s what I know). The app is not complex, but I’m in the early stages. I need to browse/discover Bonjour services. For this task, I’ve downloaded Mono.Zeroconf and Apple’s latest SDK (which includes a couple of C# Samples). I’m not really pasting code because I’m really copy/pasting the samples. In fact, Mono.Zeroconf has a MZClient.exe that can be used to test “all the API”. My 1st test was -on the same box- open two cmd.exe and launch a MZclient registering a service and on the other, launch it and “discover it”. It doesn’t work. Here’s the server: C:\MZ>MZClient -v -p "_http._tcp 80 mysimpleweb” *** Registering name = 'mysimpleweb', type = '_http._tcp', domain = 'local.' *** Registered name = ‘mysimpleweb’ On the other terminal: c:\MZ>MZClient -v -t "_http._tcp" Creating a ServiceBrowser with the following settings: Interface = 0 (All) Address Protocol = Any Domain = local Registration Type = _http._tcp Resolve Shares = False Hit ^C when you're bored waiting for responses. And that’s it. Nothing happens. I’ve of course tried with different services to no avail. Even played a little bit with that domain thing. Remember this is the same box. I tried on another computer, because this was a VM inside OSX, so I went ahead and tried on a “pure” win XP. Nothing. note: I have Apple Bonjour Service (up and running) and also the Apple SDK (installed later). Given that this didn’t work, I went ahead and decided to try the Apple SDK which has an Interop and a few pre-compiled samples (and its source code). Short story, neither the mDSNBrowser.exe nor the SimpleChat.exe work/see/discover anything. My box is a Win7 under Parallels, but that doesn’t seem to be affecting anything, given that the native XP exhibits the same problems. What am I doing so awfully wrong?

    Read the article

  • Finding minimum cut-sets between bounded subgraphs

    - by Tore
    If a game map is partitioned into subgraphs, how to minimize edges between subgraphs? I have a problem, Im trying to make A* searches through a grid based game like pacman or sokoban, but i need to find "enclosures". What do i mean by enclosures? subgraphs with as few cut edges as possible given a maximum size and minimum size for number of vertices for each subgraph that act as a soft constraints. Alternatively you could say i am looking to find bridges between subgraphs, but its generally the same problem. Given a game that looks like this, what i want to do is find enclosures so that i can properly find entrances to them and thus get a good heuristic for reaching vertices inside these enclosures. So what i want is to find these colored regions on any given map. My Motivation The reason for me bothering to do this and not just staying content with the performance of a simple manhattan distance heuristic is that an enclosure heuristic can give more optimal results and i would not have to actually do the A* to get some proper distance calculations and also for later adding competitive blocking of opponents within these enclosures when playing sokoban type games. Also the enclosure heuristic can be used for a minimax approach to finding goal vertices more properly. A possible solution to the problem is the Kernighan-Lin algorithm: function Kernighan-Lin(G(V,E)): determine a balanced initial partition of the nodes into sets A and B do A1 := A; B1 := B compute D values for all a in A1 and b in B1 for (i := 1 to |V|/2) find a[i] from A1 and b[i] from B1, such that g[i] = D[a[i]] + D[b[i]] - 2*c[a][b] is maximal move a[i] to B1 and b[i] to A1 remove a[i] and b[i] from further consideration in this pass update D values for the elements of A1 = A1 / a[i] and B1 = B1 / b[i] end for find k which maximizes g_max, the sum of g[1],...,g[k] if (g_max > 0) then Exchange a[1],a[2],...,a[k] with b[1],b[2],...,b[k] until (g_max <= 0) return G(V,E) My problem with this algorithm is its runtime at O(n^2 * lg(n)), i am thinking of limiting the nodes in A1 and B1 to the border of each subgraph to reduce the amount of work done. I also dont understand the c[a][b] cost in the algorithm, if a and b do not have an edge between them is the cost assumed to be 0 or infinity, or should i create an edge based on some heuristic. Do you know what c[a][b] is supposed to be when there is no edge between a and b? Do you think my problem is suitable to use a multi level problem? Why or why not? Do you have a good idea for how to reduce the work done with the kernighan-lin algorithm for my problem?

    Read the article

  • Why does Celery work in Python shell, but not in my Django views? (import problem)

    - by TIMEX
    I installed Celery (latest stable version.) I have a directory called /home/myuser/fable/jobs. Inside this directory, I have a file called tasks.py: from celery.decorators import task from celery.task import Task class Submitter(Task): def run(self, post, **kwargs): return "Yes, it works!!!!!!" Inside this directory, I also have a file called celeryconfig.py: BROKER_HOST = "localhost" BROKER_PORT = 5672 BROKER_USER = "abc" BROKER_PASSWORD = "xyz" BROKER_VHOST = "fablemq" CELERY_RESULT_BACKEND = "amqp" CELERY_IMPORTS = ("tasks", ) In my /etc/profile, I have these set as my PYTHONPATH: PYTHONPATH=/home/myuser/fable:/home/myuser/fable/jobs So I run my Celery worker using the console ($ celeryd --loglevel=INFO), and I try it out. I open the Python console and import the tasks. Then, I run the Submitter. >>> import fable.jobs.tasks as tasks >>> s = tasks.Submitter() >>> s.delay("abc") <AsyncResult: d70d9732-fb07-4cca-82be-d7912124a987> Everything works, as you can see in my console [2011-01-09 17:30:05,766: INFO/MainProcess] Task tasks.Submitter[d70d9732-fb07-4cca-82be-d7912124a987] succeeded in 0.0398268699646s: But when I go into my Django's views.py and run the exact 3 lines of code as above, I get this: [2011-01-09 17:25:20,298: ERROR/MainProcess] Unknown task ignored: "Task of kind 'fable.jobs.tasks.Submitter' is not registered, please make sure it's imported.": {'retries': 0, 'task': 'fable.jobs.tasks.Submitter', 'args': ('abc',), 'expires': None, 'eta': None, 'kwargs': {}, 'id': 'eb5c65b4-f352-45c6-96f1-05d3a5329d53'} Traceback (most recent call last): File "/home/myuser/mysite-env/lib/python2.6/site-packages/celery/worker/listener.py", line 321, in receive_message eventer=self.event_dispatcher) File "/home/myuser/mysite-env/lib/python2.6/site-packages/celery/worker/job.py", line 299, in from_message eta=eta, expires=expires) File "/home/myuser/mysite-env/lib/python2.6/site-packages/celery/worker/job.py", line 243, in __init__ self.task = tasks[self.task_name] File "/home/myuser/mysite-env/lib/python2.6/site-packages/celery/registry.py", line 63, in __getitem__ raise self.NotRegistered(str(exc)) NotRegistered: "Task of kind 'fable.jobs.tasks.Submitter' is not registered, please make sure it's imported." It's weird, because the celeryd client does show that it's registered, when I launch it. [2011-01-09 17:38:27,446: WARNING/MainProcess] Configuration -> . broker -> amqp://GOGOme@localhost:5672/fablemq . queues -> . celery -> exchange:celery (direct) binding:celery . concurrency -> 1 . loader -> celery.loaders.default.Loader . logfile -> [stderr]@INFO . events -> OFF . beat -> OFF . tasks -> . tasks.Decayer . tasks.Submitter Can someone help?

    Read the article

  • Asp.net MVC and MOSS 2010 integration

    - by Robert Koritnik
    Just a sidenote: I'm not sure whether I should post this to serverfault as well, because some MOSS admin may have some info for me as well? A bit of explanation first (without Asp.net MVC) Is it possible to integrate the two? Is it possible to write an application that would share at least credential information with MOSS? I have to write a MOSS application that has to do with these technologies: MOSS 2010 Personal client certificates authentication (most probably on USB keys) Active Directory Federation Services Separate SQL DB that would serve application specific data (separate as not being part of MOSS DB) How should it work? Users should authenticate using personal certificates into MOSS 2010 There would be a certain part of MOSS that would be related to my custom application This application should only authorize certain users via AD FS - I guess these users should have a certain security claim attached to them This application should manage users (that have access to this app) with additional (app specific) security claims related to this application (as additional application level authorization rights for individual application parts) This application should use custom SQL 2008 DB heavily with its own data This application should have the possibility to integrate with external systems as well (Exchange for instance to inject calendar entries, ERP systems etc) This application should be able to export its data (from its DB) to files. I don't know if it's possible, but it would be nice if the app could add these files to MOSS and attach authorization info to them so only users with sufficient rights would be able to view/open these files. Why Asp.net MVC then? I'm very well versed in Asp.net MVC (also with the latest version) and I haven't done anything on Sharepoint since version 2003 (which doesn't do me no good or prepare me for the latest version in any way shape or form). This project will most probably be a death march project so I would rather write my application as a UI rich Asp.net MVC application and somehow integrate it into MOSS. But not only via a link, because I would like to at least share credentials, so users wouldn't need to re-login when accessing my app. Using Asp.net MVC I would at least have the possibility to finish on time or be less death marching. Is this at all possible? Questions Is it possible to integrate Asp.net MVC into MOSS as described above? If integration is not possible, would it be possible to create a completely MOSS based application that would work as described? Which parts of MOSS 2010 should I use to accomplish what I need?

    Read the article

  • Correlated SQL Join Query from multiple tables

    - by SooDesuNe
    I have two tables like the ones below. I need to find what exchangeRate was in effect at the dateOfPurchase. I've tried some correlated sub queries, but I'm having difficulty getting the correlated record to be used in the sub queries. I expect a solution will need to follow this basic outline: SELECT only the exchangeRates for the applicable countryCode From 1. SELECT the newest exchangeRate less than the dateOfPurchase Fill in the query table with all the fields from 2. and the purchasesTable. My Tables: purchasesTable: > dateOfPurchase | costOfPurchase | countryOfPurchase > 29-March-2010 | 20.00 | EUR > 29-March-2010 | 3000 | JPN > 30-March-2010 | 50.00 | EUR > 30-March-2010 | 3000 | JPN > 30-March-2010 | 2000 | JPN > 31-March-2010 | 100.00 | EUR > 31-March-2010 | 125.00 | EUR > 31-March-2010 | 2000 | JPN > 31-March-2010 | 2400 | JPN costOfPurchase is in whatever the local currency is for a given countryCode exchangeRateTable > effectiveDate | countryCode | exchangeRate > 29-March-2010 | JPN | 90 > 29-March-2010 | EUR | 1.75 > 30-March-2010 | JPN | 92 > 31-March-2010 | JPN | 91 The results of the query that I'm looking for: > dateOfPurchase | costOfPurchase | countryOfPurchase | exchangeRate > 29-March-2010 | 20.00 | EUR | 1.75 > 29-March-2010 | 3000 | JPN | 90 > 30-March-2010 | 50.00 | EUR | 1.75 > 30-March-2010 | 3000 | JPN | 92 > 30-March-2010 | 2000 | JPN | 92 > 31-March-2010 | 100.00 | EUR | 1.75 > 31-March-2010 | 125.00 | EUR | 1.75 > 31-March-2010 | 2000 | JPN | 91 > 31-March-2010 | 2400 | JPN | 91 So for example in the results, the exchange rate, in effect for EUR on 31-March was 1.75. I'm using Access, but a MySQL answer would be fine too. UPDATE: Modification to Allan's answer: SELECT dateOfPurchase, costOfPurchase, countryOfPurchase, exchangeRate FROM purchasesTable p LEFT OUTER JOIN (SELECT e1.exchangeRate, e1.countryCode, e1.effectiveDate, min(e2.effectiveDate) AS enddate FROM exchangeRateTable e1 LEFT OUTER JOIN exchangeRateTable e2 ON e1.effectiveDate < e2.effectiveDate AND e1.countryCode = e2.countryCode GROUP BY e1.exchangeRate, e1.countryCode, e1.effectiveDate) e ON p.dateOfPurchase >= e.effectiveDate AND (p.dateOfPurchase < e.enddate OR e.enddate is null) AND p.countryOfPurchase = e.countryCode I had to make a couple small changes.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 254 255 256 257 258 259 260 261 262 263 264 265  | Next Page >