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• BWToolkit inclusion crashing

  - by Schroedinger

  Hey guys I'm using the latest version of XCode (3.2.2) and I've linked the framework using the tutorial. I was building my app and tested it and I get a BWToolkit exception on decoding. I've included the Framework in the frameworks and added it to the copy files stage. I even created a new dummy app including the framework and adding it to the copy files stage and it still crashes when I try to run. Any ideas? Do I need to include it somewhere in the app? I'm worried I've overlooked something really simple. 2010-04-13 14:14:24.540 BWTestFramework[7504:a0f] An uncaught exception was raised 2010-04-13 14:14:24.543 BWTestFramework[7504:a0f] *** -[NSKeyedUnarchiver decodeObjectForKey:]: cannot decode object of class (BWSplitView) 2010-04-13 14:14:24.545 BWTestFramework[7504:a0f] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidUnarchiveOperationException', reason: '*** -[NSKeyedUnarchiver decodeObjectForKey:]: cannot decode object of class (BWSplitView)' *** Call stack at first throw: ( 0 CoreFoundation 0x00007fff84a77d24 __exceptionPreprocess + 180 1 libobjc.A.dylib 0x00007fff82ba00f3 objc_exception_throw + 45 2 CoreFoundation 0x00007fff84a77b47 +[NSException raise:format:arguments:] + 103 3 CoreFoundation 0x00007fff84a77ad4 +[NSException raise:format:] + 148 4 Foundation 0x00007fff83804aa6 _decodeObjectBinary + 2427 5 Foundation 0x00007fff83805825 -[NSKeyedUnarchiver _decodeArrayOfObjectsForKey:] + 1229 6 Foundation 0x00007fff83805d65 -[NSArray(NSArray) initWithCoder:] + 462 7 Foundation 0x00007fff83804b1f _decodeObjectBinary + 2548 8 Foundation 0x00007fff83803f99 _decodeObject + 208 9 AppKit 0x00007fff8069fbfb -[NSView initWithCoder:] + 362 10 Foundation 0x00007fff83804b1f _decodeObjectBinary + 2548 11 Foundation 0x00007fff83803f99 _decodeObject + 208 12 AppKit 0x00007fff806adfbb -[NSWindowTemplate initWithCoder:] + 3824 13 Foundation 0x00007fff83804b1f _decodeObjectBinary + 2548 14 Foundation 0x00007fff83805825 -[NSKeyedUnarchiver _decodeArrayOfObjectsForKey:] + 1229 15 Foundation 0x00007fff83805268 -[NSSet(NSSet) initWithCoder:] + 447 16 Foundation 0x00007fff83804b1f _decodeObjectBinary + 2548 17 Foundation 0x00007fff83803f99 _decodeObject + 208 18 AppKit 0x00007fff8062fcde -[NSIBObjectData initWithCoder:] + 1983 19 Foundation 0x00007fff83804b1f _decodeObjectBinary + 2548 20 Foundation 0x00007fff83803f99 _decodeObject + 208 21 AppKit 0x00007fff8062f40d loadNib + 146 22 AppKit 0x00007fff8062e96d +[NSBundle(NSNibLoading) _loadNibFile:nameTable:withZone:ownerBundle:] + 248 23 AppKit 0x00007fff8062e7a5 +[NSBundle(NSNibLoading) loadNibNamed:owner:] + 326 24 AppKit 0x00007fff8062bd27 NSApplicationMain + 279 25 BWTestFramework 0x0000000100001891 main + 33 26 BWTestFramework 0x0000000100001868 start + 52 ) terminate called after throwing an instance of 'NSException' That's the crash report

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• What's the best practice to setup testing for ASP.Net MVC? What to use/process/etc?

  - by melaos

  hi there, i'm trying to learn how to properly setup testing for an ASP.Net MVC. and from what i've been reading here and there thus far, the definition of legacy code kind of piques my interests, where it mentions that legacy codes are any codes without unit tests. so i did my project in a hurry not having the time to properly setup unit tests for the app and i'm still learning how to properly do TDD and unit testing at the same time. then i came upon selenium IDE/RC and was using it to test on the browser end. it was during that time too that i came upon the concept of integration testing, so from my understanding it seems that unit testing should be done to define the test and basic assumptions of each function, and if the function is dependent on something else, that something else needs to be mocked so that the tests is always singular and can be run fast. Questions: so am i right to say that the project should have started with unit test with proper mocks using something like rhino mocks. then anything else which requires 3rd party dll, database data access etc to be done via integration testing using selenium? because i have a function which calls a third party dll, i'm not sure whether to write a unit test in nunit to just instantiate the object and pass it some dummy data which breaks the mocking part to test it or just cover that part in my selenium integration testing when i submit my forms and call the dll. and for user acceptance tests, is it safe to say we can just use selenium again? Am i missing something or is there a better way/framework? i'm trying to put in more tests for regression testing, and to ensure that nothing breaks when we put in new features. i also like the idea of TDD because it helps to better define the function, sort of like a meta documentation. thanks!! hope this question isn't too subjective because i need it for my case.

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• Automated testing for Facebook SDK wrapper

  - by Andree

  Hi there! In my Facebook application, I have one Facebook wrapper class to encapsulates some call to Facebook API. I want to to write a unit test for this wrapper class, but since it depends on a so called "access token", which we should get from Facebook dynamically, I'm not sure if it's possible to write one. But apparently the Facebook SDK itself has a PHPUnit test class. After studying the test code for a while, I know that involves a creation of dummy cookie-based session key. private static $VALID_EXPIRED_SESSION = array( 'access_token' => '254752073152|2.I_eTFkcTKSzX5no3jI4r1Q__.3600.1273359600-1677846385|uI7GwrmBUed8seZZ05JbdzGFUpk.', 'expires' => '1273359600', 'secret' => '0d9F7pxWjM_QakY_51VZqw__', 'session_key' => '2.I_eTFkcTKSzX5no3jI4r1Q__.3600.1273359600-1677846385', 'sig' => '9f6ae89510b30dddb3f864f3caf32fb3', 'uid' => '1677846385' ); . . . $cookieName = 'fbs_' . self::APP_ID; $session = self::$VALID_EXPIRED_SESSION; $_COOKIE[$cookieName] = '"' . http_build_query($session) . '"'; What I don't understand is, how do I get the "access_token", "sig", "session_key" etc? As far as I'm concerned, it should be dynamically exchanged from Facebook and involves user action (logging in).

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• g++ on MacOSX doesn't work with -arch ppc64

  - by Albert

  I am trying to build a Universal binary on MacOSX with g++. However, it doesn't really work. I have tried with this simple dummy code: #include <iostream> using namespace std; int main() { cout << "Hello" << endl; } This works fine: % g++ test.cpp -arch i386 -arch ppc -arch x86_64 -o test % file test test: Mach-O universal binary with 3 architectures test (for architecture i386): Mach-O executable i386 test (for architecture ppc7400): Mach-O executable ppc test (for architecture x86_64): Mach-O 64-bit executable x86_64 However, this does not: % g++ test.cpp -arch i386 -arch ppc -arch x86_64 -arch ppc64 -o test In file included from test.cpp:1: /usr/include/c++/4.2.1/iostream:44:28: error: bits/c++config.h: No such file or directory In file included from /usr/include/c++/4.2.1/ios:43, from /usr/include/c++/4.2.1/ostream:45, from /usr/include/c++/4.2.1/iostream:45, from test.cpp:1: /usr/include/c++/4.2.1/iosfwd:45:29: error: bits/c++locale.h: No such file or directory /usr/include/c++/4.2.1/iosfwd:46:25: error: bits/c++io.h: No such file or directory In file included from /usr/include/c++/4.2.1/bits/ios_base.h:45, from /usr/include/c++/4.2.1/ios:48, from /usr/include/c++/4.2.1/ostream:45, from /usr/include/c++/4.2.1/iostream:45, from test.cpp:1: /usr/include/c++/4.2.1/ext/atomicity.h:39:23: error: bits/gthr.h: No such file or directory /usr/include/c++/4.2.1/ext/atomicity.h:40:30: error: bits/atomic_word.h: No such file or directory ... Any idea why that is? I have installed Xcode 3.2.2 with all SDKs it comes with.

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• Flex 4 - Highlight keywords in a block of text using TextLine

  - by Baz

  I have a search and results page that I would like to highlight the keywords that were searched for, in the text of the results. It was suggested that I use TextLine for this, but I am having trouble figuring out how to make it work. I started a simple, compilable dummy application and was hoping someone could give me some tips on how to continue: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <s:Application xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx" initialize="initApp();"> <fx:Script> import flash.display.Sprite; import flash.text.engine.*; private var textLine:TextLine; private function initApp():void { var normalFormat:ElementFormat = new ElementFormat(null, 12, 0x000000); var highlightFormat:ElementFormat = new ElementFormat(null, 14, 0xff0000); var textBlock:TextBlock = new TextBlock(new TextElement("This is text that has KEYWORDS. I would like to highlight these KEYWORDS by changing their font color and adding a light yellow background graphic.", normalFormat)); textLine = textBlock.createTextLine(); textLine.y = 100; embeddedFontHolder.addChild(textLine); } </fx:Script> <mx:UIComponent width="100%" id="embeddedFontHolder" /> </s:Application> Anyone have any ideas? Cheers, Baz

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• Updating progress dialog in Activity from AsyncTask

  - by Laimoncijus

  In my app I am doing some intense work in AsyncTask as suggested by Android tutorials and showing a ProgressDialog in my main my activity: dialog = ProgressDialog.show(MyActivity.this, "title", "text"); new MyTask().execute(request); where then later in MyTask I post results back to activity: class MyTask extends AsyncTask<Request, Void, Result> { @Override protected Result doInBackground(Request... params) { // do some intense work here and return result } @Override protected void onPostExecute(Result res) { postResult(res); } } and on result posting, in main activity I hide the dialog: protected void postResult( Result res ) { dialog.dismiss(); // do something more here with result... } So everything is working fine here, but I would like to somehow to update the progress dialog to able to show the user some real progress instead just of dummy "Please wait..." message. Can I somehow access the progress dialog from MyTask.doInBackground, where all work is done? As I understand it is running as separate Thread, so I cannot "talk" to main activity from there and that is why I use onPostExecute to push the result back to it. But the problem is that onPostExecute is called only when all work is already done and I would like to update progress the dialog in the middle of doing something. Any tips how to do this?

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• Find out which row caused the error

  - by Felipe Fiali

  I have a big fat query that's written dynamically to integrate some data. Basically what it does is query some tables, join some other ones, treat some data, and then insert it into a final table. The problem is that there's too much data, and we can't really trust the sources, because there could be some errored or inconsistent data. For example, I've spent almost an hour looking for an error while developing using a customer's database because somewhere in the middle of my big fat query there was an error converting some varchar to datetime. It turned out to be that they had some sales dating '2009-02-29', an out-of-range date. And yes, I know. Why was that stored as varchar? Well, the source database has 3 columns for dates, 'Month', 'Day' and 'Year'. I have no idea why it's like that, but still, it is. But how the hell would I treat that, if the source is not trustable? I can't HANDLE exceptions, I really need that it comes up to another level with the original message, but I wanted to provide some more info, so that the user could at least try to solve it before calling us. So I thought about displaying to the user the row number, or some ID that would at least give him some idea of what record he'd have to correct. That's also a hard job because there will be times when the integration will run up to 80000 records. And in an 80000 records integration, a single dummy error message: 'The conversion of a varchar data type to a datetime data type resulted in an out-of-range datetime value' means nothing at all. So any idea would be appreciated. Oh I'm using SQL Server 2005 with Service Pack 3.

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• The fastest way to iterate through a collection of objects

  - by Trev

  Hello all, First to give you some background: I have some research code which performs a Monte Carlo simulation, essential what happens is I iterate through a collection of objects, compute a number of vectors from their surface then for each vector I iterate through the collection of objects again to see if the vector hits another object (similar to ray tracing). The pseudo code would look something like this for each object { for a number of vectors { do some computations for each object { check if vector intersects } } } As the number of objects can be quite large and the amount of rays is even larger I thought it would be wise to optimise how I iterate through the collection of objects. I created some test code which tests arrays, lists and vectors and for my first test cases found that vectors iterators were around twice as fast as arrays however when I implemented a vector in my code in was somewhat slower than the array I was using before. So I went back to the test code and increased the complexity of the object function each loop was calling (a dummy function equivalent to 'check if vector intersects') and I found that when the complexity of the function increases the execution time gap between arrays and vectors reduces until eventually the array was quicker. Does anyone know why this occurs? It seems strange that execution time inside the loop should effect the outer loop run time.

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• How to define a "complicated" ComputedColumn in SQL Server?

  - by Slauma

  SQL Server Beginner question: I'm trying to introduce a computed column in SQL Server (2008). In the table designer of SQL Server Management Studio I can do this, but the designer only offers me one single edit cell to define the expression for this column. Since my computed column will be rather complicated (depending on several database fields and with some case differentiations) I'd like to have a more comfortable and maintainable way to enter the column definition (including line breaks for formatting and so on). I've seen there is an option to define functions in SQL Server (scalar value or table value functions). Is it perhaps better to define such a function and use this function as the column specification? And what kind of function (scalar value, table value)? To make a simplified example: I have two database columns: DateTime1 (smalldatetime, NULL) DateTime2 (smalldatetime, NULL) Now I want to define a computed column "Status" which can have four possible values. In Dummy language: if (DateTime1 IS NULL and DateTime2 IS NULL) set Status = 0 else if (DateTime1 IS NULL and DateTime2 IS NOT NULL) set Status = 1 else if (DateTime1 IS NOT NULL and DateTime2 IS NULL) set Status = 2 else set Status = 3 Ideally I would like to have a function GetStatus() which can access the different column values of the table row which I want to compute the value of "Status" for, and then only define the computed column specification as GetStatus() without parameters. Is that possible at all? Or what is the best way to work with "complicated" computed column definitions? Thank you for tips in advance!

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• jquery change event not working with IE6

  - by manivineet

  It is indeed quite unfortunate that my client still uses IE6. using jquery 1.4.2 The problem is that I open a window using a click event and do some edit operation in the new window. I have a 'change' event attached to the row of a table which has input fields. Now when the window loads for the first time and I make a change in the input for the FIRST time, the change event does not fire. however, on a second try it starts working. I have noticed that I e.g. I run a dummy page, i.e. create a new page(i work with visual studio) and run that page individually , the 'change' event works just fine. what it going on? and what can i do, besides going back to 1.3.2 (by the way that doesn't work either, but haven't fully tested it yet) <!--HTML--> <table id="tbReadData"> <tr class="nenDataRow" id="nenDr2"> <td> <input type="text" class="nenMeterRegister" value="1234" /> </td> <tr /> <table> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('#tbReadData').find('tr').change(function() { alert('this works'); } }); </script>

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• C# ref Confusion

  - by Rahat

  I have a confusion that when i pass a variable by refrence in the constructor of another class and after passing that object by refrence i recreate the refrence object with the new keyword. Now the class in which i have passed the refrenced object dosen't reflect the updated data. An exabple of the above problem is shown below: Object to be passed by Refrence: public class DummyObject { public string Name = "My Name"; public DummyObject() { } } Class which is passing the Refrence: public partial class Form1 : Form { // Object to be passed as refrence DummyObject dummyObject = new DummyObject(); public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // assigning value dummyObject.Name = "I am Dummy"; // Passing object Form2 frm = new Form2(ref dummyObject); frm.Show(); } private void button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Displaying Name MessageBox.Show(this.dummyObject.Name); } private void button3_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Assigning new object this.dummyObject = new DummyObject(); // Changing Name Variable this.dummyObject.Name = "I am Rechanged"; // Displaying Name MessageBox.Show(this.dummyObject.Name); } } Class to which Object is passed by Reference: public partial class Form2 : Form { private DummyObject dummyObject = null; public Form2(ref DummyObject DummyObject) { InitializeComponent(); this.dummyObject = DummyObject; this.dummyObject.Name = "I am Changed"; } private void button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show(this.dummyObject.Name); } } whn i reaasign the object in Form 1 and cdisplay its value in form 2 it still displays "I am Changed" instead of "I am Rechanged". How to keep the data synchronized?

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• HTML + CSS: fixed background image and body width/min-width (including fiddle)

  - by insertusernamehere

  So, here is my problem. I'm kinda stuck at the moment. I have a huge background image and content in the middle with those attributes: content is centered with margin auto and has a fixed width the content is related to the image (like the image is continued within the content) this relation is only horizontally (vertically scrolling moves everything around) This works actually fine (I'm only talking desktop, not mobile here :) ) with a position fixed on the huge background image. The problem that occurs is the following: When I resize the window to "smaller than the content" the background image gets it width from the body instead of the viewport. So the relation between content and image gets lost. Now I have this little JavaScript which does the trick, but this is of course some overhead I want to avoid: $(window).resize(function(){ img.css('left', (body.width() - img.width()) / 2 ); }); This works with a fixed positioned image, but can get a litty jumpy while calculating. I also tried things like that: <div id="test" style=" position: absolute; z-index: 0; top: 0; left: 0; width: 100%: height: 100%; background: transparent url(content/dummy/brand_backgroud_1600_1.jpg) no-repeat fixed center top; "></div> But this gets me back to my problem described. Is there any "script-less", elegant solution for this problem? UPDATE: now with Fiddle The one I'm trying to solve: http://jsfiddle.net/insertusernamehere/wPmrm/ The one with Javascript that works: http://jsfiddle.net/insertusernamehere/j5E8z/ NOTE The image size is always fixed. The image never gets scaled by the browser. In the JavaScript example it get's blown. So don't care about the size.

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• Problems initializing a final variable in Java

  - by froadie

  I keep running into slight variations of a problem in Java and it's starting to get to me, and I can't really think of a proper way to get around it. I have an object property that is final, but dynamic. That is, I want the value to be constant once assigned, but the value can be different each runtime. So I declare the class level variable at the beginning of the class - say private final FILE_NAME;. Then, in the constructor, I assign it a value - say FILE_NAME = buildFileName(); The problem begins when I have code in the buildFileName() method that throws an exception. So I try something like this in the constructor: try{ FILE_NAME = buildFileName(); } catch(Exception e){ ... System.exit(1); } Now I have an error - "The blank final field FILE_NAME may not have been initialized." This is where I start to get slightly annoyed at Java's strict compiler. I know that this won't be a problem because if it gets to the catch the program will exit... But the compiler doesn't know that and so doesn't allow this code. If I try to add a dummy assignment to the catch, I get - "The final field FILE_NAME may already have been assigned." I clearly can't assign a default value before the try-catch because I can only assign to it once. Any ideas...?

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• Why is partial specialziation of a nested class template allowed, while complete isn't?

  - by drhirsch

  template<int x> struct A { template<int y> struct B {};. template<int y, int unused> struct C {}; }; template<int x> template<> struct A<x>::B<x> {}; // error: enclosing class templates are not explicitly specialized template<int x> template<int unused> struct A<x>::C<x, unused> {}; // ok So why is the explicit specialization of a inner, nested class (or function) not allowed, if the outer class isn't specialiced too? Strange enough, I can work around this behaviour if I only partially specialize the inner class with simply adding a dummy template parameter. Makes things uglier and more complex, but it works. Note: I need this feature for recursive templates of the inner class for a set of the outer class. To make things even more complicate, in reality I only need a template function instead of the inner class. But partial specialization of functions is generally disallowed somewhere else in the standard ^^

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• unique items from an observableArray of object properties

  - by Joe

  I'm trying to extract unique properties from a knockout.js observableArray of objects, to populate a drop menu. Being new to knockout, I'm really struggling with this! I want to iterate over a contacts list, and populate a drop menu with a unique value from each person object within the observableArray. So in my code example below, I wish to populate my drop menu with a list of people 'type' - family, friend etc. Looking on Google, I found a similar function, but it does not return any values, even if I console.log the results? //dummy data more rows in actual code... var people = [ { name: "Contact 1", address: "1, a street, a town, a city, AB12 3CD", tel: "0123456789", email: "[email protected]", type: "family" }, { name: "Contact 2", address: "1, a street, a town, a city, AB12 3CD", tel: "0123456789", email: "[email protected]", type: "friend" } ]; function ContactsViewModel(people) { var self = this; self.contacts = ko.observableArray(people); self.uniqueSelect = ko.dependentObservable(function() { return( ko.utils.arrayGetDistinctValues(self.contacts().type).sort()); }, self); }; ko.applyBindings(new ContactsViewModel()); And HTML template <p>Show me: <select data-bind="options: ContactsViewModel.uniqueSelect"></select></p> Any help appreciated, as a noob I'm lost! Thanks

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• Can I clone an IQueryable in linq? For UNION purposes?

  - by user169867

  I have a table of WorkOrders. The table has a PrimaryWorker & PrimaryPay field. It also has a SecondaryWorker & SecondaryPay field (which can be null). I wish to run 2 very similar queries & union them so that it will return a Worker Field & Pay field. So if a single WorkOrder record had both the PrimaryWorker and SecondaryWorker field populated I would get 2 records back. The "where clause" part of these 2 queries is very similar and long to construct. Here's a dummy example var q = ctx.WorkOrder.Where(w => w.WorkDate >= StartDt && w.WorkDate <= EndDt); if(showApprovedOnly) { q = q.Where(w => w.IsApproved); } //...more filters applied Now I also have a search flag called "hideZeroPay". If that's true I don't want to include the record if the worker was payed $0. But obviously for 1 query I need to compare the PrimaryPay field and in the other I need to compare the SecondaryPay field. So I'm wondering how to do this. Can I clone my base query "q" and make a primary & secondary worker query out of it and then union those 2 queries together? I'd greatly appreciate an example of how to correctly handle this. Thanks very much for any help.

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• Very strange Application.ThreadException behaviour.

  - by Brann

  I'm using the Application.ThreadException event to handle and log unexpected exceptions in my winforms application. Now, somewhere in my application, I've got the following code (or rather something equivalent, but this dummy code is enough to reproduce my issue) : try { throw new NullReferenceException("test"); } catch (Exception ex) { throw new Exception("test2", ex); } I'm clearly expecting my Application_ThreadException handler to be passed the "test2" exception, but this is not always the case. Typically, if another thread marshals my code to the UI, my handler receives the "test" exception, exactly as if I hadn't caught "test" at all. Here is a short sample reproducing this behavior. I have omitted the designer's code. static class Program { [STAThread] static void Main() { Application.ThreadException += new System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventHandler(Application_ThreadException); Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new Form1()); } static void Application_ThreadException(object sender, System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventArgs e) { Console.WriteLine(e.Exception.Message); } } public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); button1.Click+=new EventHandler(button1_Click); System.Threading.Thread t = new System.Threading.Thread(new System.Threading.ThreadStart(ThrowEx)); t.Start(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { throw new NullReferenceException("test"); } catch (Exception ex) { throw new Exception("test2", ex); } } void ThrowEx() { this.BeginInvoke(new EventHandler(button1_Click)); } } The output of this program on my computer is : test ... here I click button1 test2 I've reproduced this on .net 2.0,3.5 and 4.0. Does someone have a logical explanation ?

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• How do I run a VBScript in 32-bit mode on a 64-bit machine?

  - by Peter

  I have a text file that ends with .vbs that I have written the following in: Set Conn = CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Conn.Provider = "Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0" Conn.Properties("Data Source") = "C:\dummy.accdb" Conn.Properties("Jet OLEDB:Database Password") = "pass" Conn.Open Conn.Close Set Conn = Nothing When I execute this on a Windows 32-bit machine it runs and ends without any notion (expected). When I execute this on a Windows 64-bit machine it gets the error "Provider cannot be found. It may not be properly installed.". But it is installed. I think the root of the problem is that the provider is a 32-bit provider, as far as I know it doesn't exist as 64-bit. If I run the VBScript through IIS on my 64-bit machine (as a ASP file) I can select that it should run in 32-bit mode. It can then find the provider. How can I make it find the provider on Windows 64-bit? Can I tell CScript (which executes the .vbs text file) to run in 32-bit mode somehow?

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• Security Exception when using Custom ASP.NET Healthmonitoring event in medium trust

  - by Elementenfresser

  Hi, I'm using custom healthmonitoring events in ASP.NET We recently moved to a new server with default High Trust Permissions. Literature says that healthmonitoring and custom events should work under Medium or higher trust (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb398933.aspx). Problem is - it doesn't. In less than full trust I get a SecurityException saying The application attempted to perform an operation not allowed by the security policy It works in Full trust or when I remove the inheritance of System.Web.Management.WebErrorEvent. Any suggestions anyone? Here is the super simple code behind with a custom event defined: public partial class Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { CallCustomEvent(); } catch (Exception ex) { Response.Write(ex.Message); throw ex; } } /// <summary> /// this metho is never called due to lacking permissions... /// </summary> private void CallCustomEvent() { try { //do something useful here } catch (Exception) { //code to instantiate the forbidden inheritance... WebBaseEvent.Raise(new CustomEvent()); } } } /// <summary> /// custom error inheriting WebErrorEvent which is not allowed in high trust? can't believe that... /// </summary> public class CustomEvent : WebErrorEvent { public CustomEvent() : base("test", HttpContext.Current.Request, 100001, new ApplicationException("dummy")) { } } and the Web Config excerpt for high trust: <system.web> <trust level="High" originUrl="" />

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• is back_insert_iterator<> safe to be passed by value?

  - by afriza

  I have a code that looks something like: struct Data { int value; }; class A { public: typedef std::deque<boost::shared_ptr<Data> > TList; std::back_insert_iterator<TList> GetInserter() { return std::back_inserter(m_List); } private: TList m_List; }; class AA { boost::scoped_ptr<A> m_a; public: AA() : m_a(new A()) {} std::back_insert_iterator<A::TList> GetDataInserter() { return m_a->GetInserter(); } }; class B { template<class OutIt> CopyInterestingDataTo(OutIt outIt) { // loop and check conditions for interesting data // for every `it` in a Container<Data*> // create a copy and store it for( ... it = ..; .. ; ..) if (...) { *outIt = OutIt::container_type::value_type(new Data(**it)); outIt++; // dummy } } void func() { AA aa; CopyInterestingDataTo(aa.GetInserter()); // aa.m_a->m_List is empty! } }; The problem is that A::m_List is always empty even after CopyInterestingDataTo() is called. However, if I debug and step into CopyInterestingDataTo(), the iterator does store the supposedly inserted data!

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• Protecting Content with AuthLogic

  - by Rob Wilkerson

  I know this sounds like a really, really simple use case and I'm hoping that it is, but I swear I've looked all over the place and haven't found any mention of any way - not even the best way - of doing this. I'm brand-spanking new to Ruby, Rails and everything surrounding either (which may explain a lot). The dummy app that I'm using as my learning tool requires authentication in order to do almost anything meaningful, so I chose to start by solving that problem. I've installed the AuthLogic gem and have it working nicely to the extent that is covered by the intro documentation and Railscast, but now that I can register, login and logout...I need to do something with it. As an example, I need to create a page where users can upload images. I'm planning to have an ImagesController with an upload action method, but I want that only accessible to logged in users. I suppose that in every restricted action I could add code to redirect if there's no current_user, but that seems really verbose. Is there a better way of doing this that allows me to define or identify restricted areas and handle the authentication check in one place?

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• Using a string inside the DocumentBuilder parse method (need it for parsing XML using XPath)

  - by dierre

  Hi guys! I'm trying to create a RESTful webservice using a Java Servlet. The problem is I have to pass via POST method to a webserver a request. The content of this request is not a parameter but the body itself. So I basically send from ruby something like this: url = URI.parse(@host) req = Net::HTTP::Post.new('/WebService/WebServiceServlet') req['Content-Type'] = "text/xml" # req.basic_auth 'account', 'password' req.body = data response = Net::HTTP.start(url.host, url.port){ |http| puts http.request(req).body } Then I have to retrieve the body of this request in my servlet. I use the classic readline, so I have a string. The problem is when I have to parse it as XML: private void useXML( final String soft, final PrintWriter out) throws ParserConfigurationException, SAXException, IOException, XPathExpressionException, FileNotFoundException { DocumentBuilderFactory domFactory = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); domFactory.setNamespaceAware(true); // never forget this! DocumentBuilder builder = domFactory.newDocumentBuilder(); Document doc = builder.parse(soft); XPathFactory factory = XPathFactory.newInstance(); XPath xpath = factory.newXPath(); XPathExpression expr = xpath.compile("//software/text()"); Object result = expr.evaluate(doc, XPathConstants.NODESET); NodeList nodes = (NodeList) result; for (int i = 0; i < nodes.getLength(); i++) { out.println(nodes.item(i).getNodeValue()); } } The problem is that builder.parse() accepts: parse(File f), parse(InputSource is), parse(InputStream is). Is there any way I can transform my xml string in an InputSource or something like that? I know it could be a dummy question but Java is not my thing, I'm forced to use it and I'm not very skilled.

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• Not able to connect to TFS Server from TFS Proxy

  - by GV India

  In our office we have setup TFS for project development. The TFS Server is WIN 2003 server SP2 with VSTFS 2008 and is running fine. Now we need to setup a TFS Proxy server on client site for client to access. Before going for the client setup, I wanted to build and test proxy in our office on a dummy server (will call it Proxy server hereon) by keeping it on a different domain. OS configuration of the Proxy server is the same as TFS server. I have installed and configured TFS proxy on Proxy server to connect to TFS Server. Also we have built trust between the two different domains to enable communication. Now problem is that I am not able to at all connect to TFS server. I am trying to connect from Internet Explorer of proxy server using proxy service account. It gives me error: The page cannot be displayed. HTTP 500 - Internal server error. The page I was browsing was http://tfs:8080/VersionControl/v1.0/ProxyStatistics.asmx. I think I have done all the required steps correctly to configure proxy as described in MSDN and also TFS installation guide. Here Proxy service account is a member of ‘Team Foundation Valid Users’ group. I am able to connect to TFS Server (specifying port) using Telnet from command prompt on proxy server as suggested by few sites. The TFS server web sites have been configured to use Integration Windows Authentication. Event Logs on both the servers are also not giving any error. Overall I’m not able to get it done. Any ideas on what might be the problem???

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• W3C error doc error? Output tag browser support.

  - by ThomasReggi

  Was looking at the reference page here : http://www.w3.org/TR/html5/offline.html I copied and pasted the code on my server here in separate files. All of the pages are linked correctly but the clock won't show. Just to double check, it wasn't my "server config" I put it on jsfiddle.net here: http://jsfiddle.net/reggi/Dy8PU/. Fails: MAC / FIREFOX 3.6.13 Wins: MAC / FIREFOX 4.0.b8 Is this dummy example code? <!-- clock.html --> <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html> <head> <title>Clock</title> <script src="clock.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" href="clock.css"> </head> <body> <p>The time is: <output id="clock"></output></p> </body> </html> /* clock.css */ output { font: 2em sans-serif; } /* clock.js */ setTimeout(function () { document.getElementById('clock').value = new Date(); }, 1000); UPDATE: The W3C code above works on only the NEWEST Beta releases of certain browsers Below are some viable current javascript workarounds

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• noncopyable static const member class in template class

  - by Dukales

  I have a non-copyable (inherited from boost::noncopyable) class that I use as a custom namespace. Also, I have another class, that uses previous one, as shown here: #include <boost/utility.hpp> #include <cmath> template< typename F > struct custom_namespace : boost::noncopyable { F sqrt_of_half(F const & x) const { using std::sqrt; return sqrt(x / F(2.0L)); } // ... maybe others are not so dummy const/constexpr methods }; template< typename F > class custom_namespace_user { static ::custom_namespace< F > const custom_namespace_; public : F poisson() const { return custom_namespace_.sqrt_of_half(M_PI); } static F square_diagonal(F const & a) { return a * custom_namespace_.sqrt_of_half(1.0L); } }; template< typename F > ::custom_namespace< F > const custom_namespace_user< F >::custom_namespace_(); this code leads to the next error (even without instantiation): error: no 'const custom_namespace custom_namespace_user::custom_namespace_()' member function declared in class 'custom_namespace_user' The next way is not legitimate: template< typename F ::custom_namespace< F const custom_namespace_user< F ::custom_namespace_ = ::custom_namespace< F (); What should I do to declare this two classes (first as noncopyable static const member class of second)? Is this feaseble?

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