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• Windows Services in Win7?

  - by Brandi

  I am trying to make a service that spawns a desktop application, and then watches to make sure it restarts again if it is closed. . I would like it to basically spawn the process and then forget about it, allowing to act like a normal interactive application. (Apparently this is much easier to do in XP and before, but I need this for XP, Vista, and 7) My problem now is that either it shows up invisible if I use process.start() with desktop interactive checked, and if I directly spawn a form it asks "Do you REALLY want to do this?!" and then the whole screen goes blank EXCEPT for my program. I just want this to be an inoffensive background app. I have the app working well, I just need to figure out how to spawn it from a service without all the trouble. I am finding all of this stuff that says "Don't make services that have UI", but first off this was a requirement that was given to me. (Boss does not want it to be a scheduled task) Also, I noticed that the Task scheduler is itself a service, and it does not have any problem spawning user interactive applications. Why can't I do that too? What am I doing wrong?

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• Binding not working correctly in silverlight

  - by Harsh Maurya

  I am using a DataGrid in my silverlight project which contains a custom checkbox column. I have binded its command property with a property of my ViewModel class. Now, the problem is that I want to send the "selected item" of DataGrid through the command paramter for which I have written the following code : <sdk:DataGrid AutoGenerateColumns="False" Margin="10,0,10,0" Name="dataGridOrders" ItemsSource="{Binding OrderList}" Height="190"> <sdk:DataGrid.Columns> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn Header="Select"> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <CheckBox> <is:Interaction.Triggers> <is:EventTrigger EventName="Checked"> <is:InvokeCommandAction Command="{Binding Source={StaticResource ExecutionTraderHomePageVM},Path=OrderSelectedCommand,Mode=TwoWay}" CommandParameter="{Binding ElementName=dataGridOrders,Path=SelectedItem}" /> </is:EventTrigger> <is:EventTrigger EventName="Unchecked"> <is:InvokeCommandAction Command="{Binding Source={StaticResource ExecutionTraderHomePageVM},Path=OrderSelectedCommand,Mode=TwoWay}" CommandParameter="{Binding ElementName=dataGridOrders,Path=SelectedItem}" /> </is:EventTrigger> </is:Interaction.Triggers> </CheckBox> But I am always getting null in the parameter of my command's execute method. I have tried with other properties of DataGrid such as Width, ActualHeight e.t.c. but of no use. What am I missing here ?

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• Problem using the find function in MATLAB

  - by Peter Etchells

  I have two arrays of data that I'm trying to amalgamate. One contains actual latencies from an experiment in the first column (e.g. 0.345, 0.455... never more than 3 decimal places), along with other data from that experiment. The other contains what is effectively a 'look up' list of latencies ranging from 0.001 to 0.500 in 0.001 increments, along with other pieces of data. Both data sets are X-by-Y doubles. What I'm trying to do is something like... for i = 1:length(actual_latency) row = find(predicted_data(:,1) == actual_latency(i)) full_set(i,1:4) = [actual_latency(i) other_info(i) predicted_info(row,2) ... predicted_info(row,3)]; end ...in order to find the relevant row in predicted_data where the look up latency corresponds to the actual latency. I then use this to created an amalgamated data set, full_set. I figured this would be really simple, but the find function keeps failing by throwing up an empty matrix when looking for an actual latency that I know is in predicted_data(:,1) (as I've double-checked during debugging). Moreover, if I replace find with a for loop to do the same job, I get a similar error. It doesn't appear to be systematic - using different participant data sets throws it up in different places. Furthermore, during debugging mode, if I use find to try and find a hard-coded value of actual_latency, it doesn't always work. Sometimes yes, sometimes no. I'm really scratching my head over this, so if anyone has any ideas about what might be going on, I'd be really grateful.

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• Weird output of Throwable getMessage()

  - by Ravi Gupta

  Hi I have below pseudo code with throws an exception like this throw new MyException("Bad thing happened","com.stuff.errorCode"); where MyException extends Exception class. So the problem is when I try to get the message from MyException class by calling myEx.getMessage() it returns ???en_US.Bad thing happened??? instead of my original message i.e. Bad thing happened I have checked that MyException class doesn't overrides Throwable class's getMessage() behavior. Below is the how the call passes from MyException.getMessage() to Throwable.getMessage() public MyException(String msg, String sErrorCode){ super(msg); this.sErrorCode = sErrorCode; this.iSeverity = 0; } which then calls public Exception(String message) { super(message); } and finally public Throwable(String message) { fillInStackTrace(); detailMessage = message; } when I do a getMessage on myexception it calls Throwable's getMessage as below public String getMessage() { return detailMessage; } So ideally it should return the original message as I set when throwing the exception. What's the ???en_US thing ?

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• Using a "take-home" coding component in interview process

  - by Jeff Sargent

  In recent interviews I have been asking candidates to code through some questions on the whiteboard. I don't feel I'm getting a clear enough picture of the candidates technical ability with this approach. Granted, the questions might not be good enough, maybe the interview needs to be longer, etc, but I'm wondering if a different approach would be better. What I'd like to try is to create a simple, working project in Visual Studio and have it checked into source control. The candidate can check that code out from home/wherever and then check back in work representing their response to the assignment that I'll provide. I'm thinking that if the window of time is short enough and the assignment clear enough then the solution will be safe enough from all-out Googling (i.e. they couldn't search for and find the entire solution online). I would then be able to review the candidates work. Has enough worked with something like this before, either to vet a candidate or as a candidate yourself? Any thoughts in general? P.S. my first StackOverflow question - hi guys and gals. EDIT: I've seen comments about asking someone to work for free - I wouldn't mind paying the person for their time.

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• URLLoader.load() issue when using the same URLRequest

  - by Rudy

  Hello, I have an issue with my eventListeners with the URLLoader, but this issue happens in IE, not in FF. public function getUploadURL():void { var request:URLRequest = new URLRequest(); request.url = getPath(); request.method = URLRequestMethod.GET; _loader = new URLLoader(); _loader.dataFormat = URLLoaderDataFormat.TEXT; _loader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, getBaseURL); _loader.load(request); } private function getBaseURL(event:Event):void { _loader.removeEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, getBaseURL); } The issue is that my getBaseURL gets executed automatically after I have executed the code at least once, but that is the case only in IE. What happens is I call my getUploadURL, I make sure the server sends an event that will result in an Event.COMPLETE, so the getBaseURL gets executed, and the listener is removed. If I call the getUploadURL method and put the wrong path, I do not get an Event.COMPLETE but some other event, and getBaseURL should not be executed. That is the correct behavior in FireFox. In IE, it looks like the load() method does not actually call the server, it jumps directly to the getBaseURL() for the Event.COMPLETE. I checked the willTrigger() and hasEventListener() on _loader before assigning the new URLLoader, and it turns out the event has been well removed. I hope I make sense, I simplified my code. To sum up quickly: in FireFox it works well, but in IE, the first call will work but the second call won't really call the .load() method; it seems it uses the previously stored result from the first call. I hope someone can please help me, Thank you, Rudy

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• jQuery/ajax working on IIS5.1 but not IIS6

  - by Mikejh99

  I'm running a weird issue here. I have code that makes jquery ajax calls to a web service and dynamically adds controls using jquery. Everything works fine on my dev machine running IIS 5.1, but not when deployed to IIS 6. I'm using VS2010/ASP.Net 4.0, C#, jQuery 1.4.2 and jQuery UI 1.8.1. I'm using the same browser for each. It partially works though. The code will add the controls to the page, but they aren't visible until I click them (they aren't visible though). I thought this was a css issue, but the styles are there too. The ajax calls look like this: $.ajax({ url: "/WebServices/AssetManager.asmx/Assets", type: "POST", datatype: "json", async: false, data: "{'q':'" + req.term + "', 'type':'Condition'}", contentType: "application/javascript; charset=utf-8", success: function (data) { res($.map(data.d, function (item) { return { label: item.Name, value: item.Name, id: item.Id, datatype: item.DataType } })) } }) Changing the content-type makes the autocomplete fail. I've quadruple checked and all the paths are correct, there is no document footer enabled in IIS, and I'm not using IIS compression. Any idea why the page will display and work properly in IIS 5 but only partially in IIS 6? (If it failed completely, that'd make more sense!). Is it a jQuery or CSS issue?

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• Add/remove validation rules Dynamically

  - by eddy

  Hi, I need to dynamically add validation rules to a text box when the user clicks on the checkbox in that row and remove it when the user unchecks it. This is what I did, and it works fine, but I'm not sure if it is the right way to do it. Here's my html code: <tbody> <c:forEach items="${list}" var="item"> <tr> <td align="center"> <input type="checkbox" name="selectItems" value="<c:out value="${item.numberPlate}"/>" /> </td> <td align="left"><c:out value="${item.numberPlate}"/></td> <td align="left"><c:out value="${item.driver.fullName}"/></td> <td align="left"><input type="text" name="mileage_<c:out value="${item.numberPlate}"/>" value="" /></td> </tr> </c:forEach> </tbody> and my jquery: $("input[name=selectItems]").change(function() { if (this.checked) { $(this).closest("tr").find("input[name^=mileage]").attr("class","required"); $(this).closest("tr").find("input[name^=mileage]").attr("number",true); } else { $(this).closest("tr").find("input[name^=mileage]").attr("class","") } }); any suggestion is welcome and... I almost forgot, Merry Xmas!

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• How would I code a complex formula parser manually?

  - by StormianRootSolver

  Hm, this is language - agnostic, I would prefer doing it in C# or F#, but I'm more interested this time in the question "how would that work anyway". What I want to accomplish ist: a) I want to LEARN it - it's about my ego this time, it's for a fun project where I want to show myself that I'm a really good at this stuff b) I know a tiny little bit about EBNF (although I don't know yet, how operator precedence works in EBNF - Irony.NET does it right, I checked the examples, but this is a bit ominous to me) c) My parser should be able to take this: 5 * (3 + (2 - 9 * (5 / 7)) + 9) for example and give me the right results d) To be quite frankly, this seems to be the biggest problem in writing a compiler or even an interpreter for me. I would have no problem generating even 64 bit assembler code (I CAN write assembler manually), but the formula parser... e) Another thought: even simple computers (like my old Sharp 1246S with only about 2kB of RAM) can do that... it can't be THAT hard, right? And even very, very old programming languages have formula evaluation... BASIC is from 1964 and they already could calculate the kind of formula I presented as an example f) A few ideas, a few inspirations would be really enough - I just have no clue how to do operator precedence and the parentheses - I DO, however, know that it involves an AST and that many people use a stack So, what do you think?

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• How do you deserialize a collection with child collections?

  - by Stuart Helwig

  I have a collection of custom entity objects one property of which is an ArrayList of byte arrays. The custom entity is serializable and the collection property is marked with the following attributes: [XmlArray("Images"), XmlArrayItem("Image",typeof(byte[]))] So I serialize a collection of these custom entities and pass them to a web service, as a string. The web service receives the string and byte array in tact, The following code then attempts to deserialize the collection - back into custom entities for processing... XmlSerializer ser = new XmlSerializer(typeof(List<myCustomEntity>)); StringReader reader = new StringReader(xmlStringPassedToWS); List<myCustomEntity> entities = (List<myCustomEntity>)ser.Deserialize(reader); foreach (myCustomEntity e in entities) { // ...do some stuff... foreach (myChildCollection c in entities.ChildCollection { // .. do some more stuff.... } } I've checked the XML resulting from the initial serialization and it does contain byte array - the child collection, as does the StringReader built above. After the deserialization process, the resulting collection of custom entites is fine, except that each object in the collection does not contain any items in its child collection. (i.e. it doesn't get to "...do some more stuff..." above. Can someone please explain what I am doing wrong? Is it possible to serialize ArrayLists within a generic collection of custom entities?

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• Account activation PHP

  - by Wayne

  I created this account registration activation script of my own, I have checked it over again and again to find errors, I don't see a particular error... The domain would be like this: http://domain.com/include/register.php?key=true&p=AfRWDCOWF0BO6KSb6UmNMf7d333gaBOB Which comes from an email, when a user clicks it, they get redirected to this script: if($_GET['key'] == true) { $key = $_GET['p']; $sql = "SELECT * FROM users WHERE user_key = '" . $key . "'"; $result = mysql_query($sql) or die(mysql_error()); if(mysql_affected_rows($result) > 0) { $sql = "UPDATE users SET user_key = '', user_active = '1' WHERE user_key = '" . $key . "'"; $result = mysql_query(sql) or die(mysql_error()); if($result) { $_SESSION['PROCESS'] = $lang['Account_activated']; header("Location: ../index.php"); } else { $_SESSION['ERROR'] = $lang['Key_error']; header("Location: ../index.php"); } } else { $_SESSION['ERROR'] = $lang['Invalid_key']; header("Location: ../index.php"); } } It doesn't even work at all, I looked in the database with the user with that key, it matches but it keeps coming up as an error which is extremely annoying me. The database is right, the table and column is right, nothing wrong with the database, it's the script that isn't working. Help me out, guys. Thanks :)

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• Potential problem with C standard malloc'ing chars.

  - by paxdiablo

  When answering a comment to another answer of mine here, I found what I think may be a hole in the C standard (c1x, I haven't checked the earlier ones and yes, I know it's incredibly unlikely that I alone among all the planet's inhabitants have found a bug in the standard). Information follows: Section 6.5.3.4 ("The sizeof operator") para 2 states "The sizeof operator yields the size (in bytes) of its operand". Para 3 of that section states: "When applied to an operand that has type char, unsigned char, or signed char, (or a qualified version thereof) the result is 1". Section 7.20.3.3 describes void *malloc(size_t sz) but all it says is "The malloc function allocates space for an object whose size is specified by size and whose value is indeterminate". It makes no mention at all what units are used for the argument. Annex E startes the 8 is the minimum value for CHAR_BIT so chars can be more than one byte in length. My question is simply this: In an environment where a char is 16 bits wide, will malloc(10 * sizeof(char)) allocate 10 chars (20 bytes) or 10 bytes? Point 1 above seems to indicate the former, point 2 indicates the latter. Anyone with more C-standard-fu than me have an answer for this?

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• How should I define a JavaScript 'namespace' to satisfy JSLint?

  - by Matthew Murdoch

  I want to be able to package my JavaScript code into a 'namespace' to prevent name clashes with other libraries. Since the declaration of a namespace should be a simple piece of code I don't want to depend on any external libraries to provide me with this functionality. I've found various pieces of advice on how to do this simply but none seem to be free of errors when run through JSLint (using 'The Good Parts' options). As an example, I tried this from Advanced JavaScript (section Namespaces without YUI): "use strict"; if (typeof(MyNamespace) === 'undefined') { MyNamespace = {}; } Running this through JSLint gives the following errors: Problem at line 2 character 12: 'MyNamespace' is not defined. Problem at line 3 character 5: 'MyNamespace' is not defined. Implied global: MyNamespace 2,3 The 'Implied global' error can be fixed by explicitly declaring MyNamespace... "use strict"; if (typeof(MyNamespace) === 'undefined') { var MyNamespace = {}; } ...and the other two errors can be fixed by declaring the variable outside the if block. "use strict"; var MyNamespace; if (typeof(MyNamespace) === 'undefined') { MyNamespace = {}; } So that works, but it seems to me that (since MyNamespace will always be undefined at the point it is checked?) it is equivalent to the much simpler: "use strict"; var MyNamespace = {}; JSLint is content with this but I'm concerned that I've simplified the code to such an extent that it will no longer function correctly as a namespace. Is this final formulation sensible?

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• JAVASCRIPT - What am I doing incorrectly?

  - by DarkLightA

  LIVE CODE: http://jsfiddle.net/vy4nY/ I'm following this challenge, but I'm having some issues. I'm trying to make the Email Address box only appear when the checkbox is clicked on. What have I done incorrectly? <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/strict.dtd"> <html lang="en"> <head> <title>JavaScript Challenges</title> <style type="text/css"> #emailpara {visibility:hidden;} </style> </head> <body> <form action=""> <fieldset> <legend>Email subscriptions</legend> <p id="subscribepara"> <label> <input type="checkbox" name="subscribe" id="subscribe"> Yes! I would like to receive the occasional newsletter via email. </label> </p> <p id="emailpara"> <label> Email Address: <input type="text" name="email" id="email"> </label> </p> </fieldset> </form> <script type="text/javascript"> document.getElementById('subscribe').onclick = (document.getElementById('subscribe').checked ? (document.getElementById('emailpara').style.visibility = 'visible') : (document.getElementById('emailpara').style.visibility = 'hidden')); </script> </body> </html>

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• Batch File to Delete Folders

  - by Homebrew

  I found some code to delete folders, in this case deleting all but 'n' # of folders. I created 10 test folders, plus 1 that was already there. I want to delete all but 4. The code works, it leaves 4 of my test folders, except that it also leaves the other folder. Is there some attribute of the other folder that's getting checked in the batch file that's stopping it from getting deleted ? It was created through a job a couple of weeks ago. Here's the code I stole (but don't really understand the details): rem DOS - Delete Folders if # folders > n @Echo Off :: User Variables :: Set this to the number of folders you want to keep Set _NumtoKeep=4 :: Set this to the folder that contains the folders to check and delete Set _Path=C:\MyFolder_Temp\FolderTest If Exist "%temp%\tf}1{" Del "%temp%\tf}1{" PushD %_Path% Set _s=%_NumtoKeep% If %_NumtoKeep%==1 set _s=single For /F "tokens=* skip=%_NumtoKeep%" %%I In ('dir "%_Path%" /AD /B /O-D /TW') Do ( If Exist "%temp%\tf}1{" ( Echo %%I:%%~fI >>"%temp%\tf}1{" ) Else ( Echo.>"%temp%\tf}1{" Echo Do you wish to delete the following folders?>>"%temp%\tf}1{" Echo Date Name>>"%temp%\tf}1{" Echo %%I:%%~fI >>"%temp%\tf}1{" )) PopD If Not Exist "%temp%\tf}1{" Echo No Folders Found to delete & Goto _Done Type "%temp%\tf}1{" | More Set _rdflag= /q Goto _Removeold Set _rdflag= :_Removeold For /F "tokens=1* skip=3 Delims=:" %%I In ('type "%temp%\tf}1{"') Do ( If "%_rdflag%"=="" Echo Deleting rd /s%_rdflag% "%%J") :_Done If Exist "%temp%\tf}1{" Del "%temp%\tf}1{"

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• rails not recognizing project

  - by tipu

  I can create a new project using rails and I can use stuff like rails migration ... and i (correctly) get a error because the sqlite gem is missing. but when i try using rails migration ... with a project i checked out from github, it doesn't recognize that it is a rails project i get: Usage: rails new APP_PATH [options] Options: -d, [--database=DATABASE] # Preconfigure for selected database (options: mysql/oracle/postgresql/sqlite3/frontbase/ibm_db) # Default: sqlite3 -O, [--skip-active-record] # Skip Active Record files [--dev] # Setup the application with Gemfile pointing to your Rails checkout -J, [--skip-prototype] # Skip Prototype files -T, [--skip-test-unit] # Skip Test::Unit files -G, [--skip-git] # Skip Git ignores and keeps -b, [--builder=BUILDER] # Path to an application builder (can be a filesystem path or URL) [--edge] # Setup the application with Gemfile pointing to Rails repository -m, [--template=TEMPLATE] # Path to an application template (can be a filesystem path or URL) -r, [--ruby=PATH] # Path to the Ruby binary of your choice # Default: /usr/bin/ruby1.8 [--skip-gemfile] # Don't create a Gemfile and it goes on. any ideas? edit: it's probably an important detail that earlier my rails wasn't working at all. i had to cp /usr/bin/ruby to /usr/bin/local/ruby

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• Choosing a W3C valid DOCTYPE and charset combination?

  - by George Carter

  I have a homepage with the following: <DOCTYPE html> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"> My choice of the DOCTYPE "html" is based on a recommendation for html pages using jQuery. My choice of charset=utf=8 is based on a recommendation to make my pages readable on most browsers. But these choices may be wrong. When I run this page thru the W3C HTML validator, I get messages you see below. Any way I can eliminate the 2 errors? ! Using experimental feature: HTML5 Conformance Checker. The validator checked your document with an experimental feature: HTML5 Conformance Checker. This feature has been made available for your convenience, but be aware that it may be unreliable, or not perfectly up to date with the latest development of some cutting-edge technologies. If you find any issue with this feature, please report them. Thank you. Validation Output: 2 Errors 1. Error Line 18, Column 70: Changing character encoding utf-8 and reparsing. …ntent-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"> 2. Error Line 18, Column 70: Changing encoding at this point would need non-streamable behavior. …ntent-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8">

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• Declare models elsewhere than in "models.py"

  - by sebpiq

  Hi ! I have an application that splits models into different files. Actually the folder looks like : >myapp __init__.py models.py >hooks ... ... myapp don't care about what's in the hooks, folder, except that there are models, and that they have to be declared somehow. So, I put this in myapp.__init__.py : from django.conf import settings for hook in settings.HOOKS : try : __import__(hook) except ImportError as e : print "Got import err !", e #where HOOKS = ("myapp.hooks.a_super_hook1", ...) The problem is that it doesn't work when I run syncdb(and throws some strange "Got import err !"... strange considering that it's related to another module of my program that I don't even import anywhere :/ ) ! So I tried successively : 1) for hook in settings.HOOKS : try : exec ("from %s import *" % hook) doesn't work either : syncdb doesn't install the models in hooks 2) from myapp.hooks.a_super_hook1 import * This works 3) exec("from myapp.hooks.a_super_hook1 import *") This works to So I checked that in the test 1), the statement executed is the same than in tests 2) and 3), and it is exactly the same ... Any idea ???

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• ASP can't connect to SQL Server database

  - by birdus

  I'm trying to get a classic ASP application to connect to a local SQL Server 2008 database. The app and database were built by someone else. I'm just trying to get them installed and running on my machine (Windows 7). I'm getting the following error when when the ASP app tries to connect to the database: Could not connect to database: Error Number: -2147467259 Error Message: [ConnectionOpen (Connect()).] does not exist or access denied. I don't see any messages in the Windows Event Viewer. I'm looking at: Event Viewer-Windows Logs-Application. It's a fresh database install using a simple restore. The SQL Server install uses the default instance. SQL Server and Windows authentication are both allowed. I left the existing connection string (in the ASP code) in tact and just tried adding that to my SQL Server installation. Here's the connection string: strConn = "PROVIDER=SQLOLEDB;SERVER=localhost;UID=TheUser;PWD=ThePassword;DATABASE=TheDatabase;" To add that user to SQL Server, I went to Security/Logins in SSMS and added the user and the password. I selected the database in question as the Default database. I thought that might do the trick, but it didn't. Then, I went into TheDatabase, then went into Security there. I added a new user there, referencing the new user I had already added in server Security. Under Owned Schemas, I clicked db_owner and under Role Members I checked db_accessadmin and db_owner. None of this gave the ASP application access to the database. The sid values match in sys.database_principals and sys.server_principals for the login in question. I am able to login to SSMS using this login. The app needs to execute selects against the database like this: oConn.Execute('select * from someTable') I'm not a DBA and am sort of grasping at straws here. How do I get this thing connected? Thanks, Jay

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• Django IntegrityError: foreign key violation upon delete

  - by Lukasz Korzybski

  I have Order and Shipment model. Shipment has a foreign key to Order. class Order(...): ... class Shipment() order = m.ForeignKey('Order') ... Now in one of my views I want do delete order object along with all related objects. So I invoke order.delete(). I have Django 1.0.4, PostgreSQL 8.4 and I use transaction middleware, so whole request is enclosed in single transaction. The problem is that upon order.delete() I get: ... File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/backends/__init__.py", line 28, in _commit return self.connection.commit() IntegrityError: update or delete on table "main_order" violates foreign key constraint "main_shipment_order_id_fkey" on table "main_shipment" DETAIL: Key (id)=(45) is still referenced from table "main_shipment". I checked in connection.queries that proper queries are executed in proper order. First shipment is deleted, after that django executes delete on order row: {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_shipment" WHERE "id" IN (17)'}, {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_order" WHERE "id" IN (45)'} Foreign key have ON DELETE NO ACTION (default) and is initially deferred. I don't know why I get foreign key constraint violation. I also tried to register pre_delete signal and manually delete shipment objects before delete on order is called, but it resulted in the same error. I can change ON DELETE behaviour for this key in Postgres but it would be just a hack, I wonder if anyone has a better idea what's going on here. There is also a small detail, my Order model inherits from Cart model, so it actually doesn't have id field but cart_ptr_id and after DELETE on order is executed there is also DELETE on cart, but it seems unrelated? to the shipment-order problem so I simplified it in the example.

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• problem with enable/disable button using javascript

  - by LiveEn

  Im am trying to add a check box that will enable/disable the edit button. Im retrieving a price list and displaying it inside a table. When i add the javascript into the php code it doesn't work. Below is my code <table border="1"> <tr> <td width="100">Fee % </td> <td width="100">Price</td> <td width="100">Total</td> <td width="102">&nbsp;</td> </tr> <tr> <?php $sql1="select * from pricelist"; $result1=mysql_query($sql1) or die(mysql_error()); while ($row=mysql_fetch_array($result1)) { $id=$row['id']; $price=$row['h_price']; $a=0; print "<form id='form1' name='$a+' method='post' action=''>"; print "<td><input name='fees' value ='$fees' type='text' size='4' /></td>"; print "<td><input name='price' value ='$price' type='text' size='15' /></td>"; echo "<td><input type='checkbox' onclick='this.$a+.disabled = !this.checked;'><td>"; print"<td><input type='submit' name='$a+' value='Submit' disabled='disabled' /></td>"; print "</tr>"; print "</form>"; } ?> </table> Can someone please tell me what am i doing wrong? Thanks

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• Unit testing a Grails custom taglib based on built-in Grails taglib

  - by dipess

  I've an app based on Grails 1.3.7. And I need to write a unit test for a custom taglib that is based on the built-in taglib, <g:select /> to be specific. I checked out the solution on this previous SO post but the solution stated is not working in my case (some properties are not being prooperly mocked up). The other solution that I found was this. Using this approach, I get most of the properties of FormTagLib mocked up except for the grailsApplication property that select requires. The actual error that I get is Cannot invoke method getArtefact() on null object. How can I properly write the unit test in such a case? Edit Here are my test class and the full stacktrace. Line #45 on the stacktrace is the call to the g.select from my custom taglib. My custom taglib is something like def clientSpecificQueues = {attrs-> def queueList = taskService.getClientSpecificQueues(session.clientName) def queueLabel = "Some String" if (queueList.size() > 0){ out << queueLabel else out << g.select(name:'queueId', from: queueList, optionKey: 'id', optionValue: 'name') }

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• detect shutdown in window service

  - by deepu

  hi, i have a windows service that get user details and save the result into log text file. and, my problem is when i shut down or log off my system, i also would like to save the time that i down my system into that log file. but, i don't know how to do that. I checked the winproc method to detect shutdown operation but i was not able to use it on window service, on googling found it can be used with forms only. how can we detect user have clicked shutdown or log off and do some action. so,please give me some idea or suggestion on that. i have used it for logoff but on log entry is made when i logoff the system protected override void OnSessionChange(SessionChangeDescription changeDescription) { this.RequestAdditionalTime(250000); //gives a 25 second delay on Logoff if (changeDescription.Reason == SessionChangeReason.SessionLogoff) { // Add your save code here StreamWriter str = new StreamWriter("D:\\Log.txt", true); str.WriteLine("Service stoped due to " + changeDescription.Reason.ToString() + "on" + DateTime.Now.ToString()); str.Close(); } base.OnSessionChange(changeDescription); }

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• Word forms with too many ActiveX checkboxes load slowly.

  - by Luke

  Hi there, my company's software product has a feature that allows users to generate forms from Word templates. The program auto fills some fields from the SQL database and the user can fill in other data that they desire. So we have a .dotx template that holds the design of the form, and then the user gets the .docx file to fill out when they call it from our program. The problem we're having is that some of our users have been finding that the forms take an exceptionally long time to open up and then, once open, are so slow to respond (scroll around, etc) that they're unusable. So in my investigations so far, I've found out that the problem systems are one with lower powered CPUs (unfortunately it happens for systems above our system requirements) and the Word forms that cause the problems are ones with large amount of ActiveX style checkboxes on them. I verified that reducing the ActiveX checkboxes fixes the form loading problems. So I have the following questions about solutions (we're using Word 2007): 1) Is there any way to configure Word, or some other settings, so that there won't be such a strain opening a Word form with lots of ActiveX checkboxes? Any way of speeding up Word's opening? 2) Using Legacy style checkboxes instead of the ActiveX ones makes the forms load fine, but it looks like the user has to double-click the checkbox and change Default Value-Checked. Is there a way to configure it so that they can simply click on the checkbox to tick it? "Legacy Forms" checkbox as a name kind of worries me (Legacy…), does that mean a future version of word at some point wouldn't load the checkboxes because they're "legacy"? 3) Yes, it became clear to me after a little bit of research into solutions that Word is not the tool for the job for forms like I'm describing. InfoPath seems to be exactly what we should have been using all along but unfortunately I wasn't involved in the decision making or development of these forms, just tasked with coming up with a solution. I'd appreciate answers to any of these, or if anyone has any other ideas for solutions to this problem. Thanks

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• Identity.Name is disposed in a IIS7 Asp.NET MVC application Thread

  - by vIceBerg

  I have made the smallest demo project to illustrate my problem. You can download the sources Here Visual Studio 2008, .NET 3.5, IIS7, Windows 7 Ultimate 32 bits. The IIS Website is configured ONLY for Windows Authentication in an Integreated pipeline app pool (DefaultAppPool). Here's the problem. I have an Asp.NET MVC 2 application. In an action, I start a thread. The View returns. The thread is doing it's job... but it needs to access Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name BANG The worker process of IIS7 stops. I have a window that says: "Visual Studio Just-In-Time Debugger An unhandled exception ('System.Object.DisposedException') occured in w3wp.exe [5524]" I checked with the debugger and the Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity is valid, but the Name property is disposed. If I put a long wait in the action before it returns the view, then the Thread can do it's job and the Identity.Name is not disposed. So I think the Name gets disposed when the view is returned. For the sake of the discussion, here's the code that the thread runs (but you can also download the demo project. The link is on top of this post): private void Run() { const int SECTOWAIT = 3; //wait SECTOWAIT seconds long end = DateTime.Now.Ticks + (TimeSpan.TicksPerSecond * SECTOWAIT); while (DateTime.Now.Ticks <= end) continue; //Check the currentprincipal. BANG!!!!!!!!!!!!! var userName = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name; } Here's the code that starts the thread public void Start() { Thread thread = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(ThreadProc)); thread.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.MTA); thread.Name = "TestThread"; thread.Start(this); } static void ThreadProc(object o) { try { Builder builder = (Builder)o; builder.Run(); } catch (Exception ex) { throw; } } So... what am i doing wrong? Thanks

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