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  • How to access controller dynamic properties within a base controller's constructor in Grails?

    - by 4h34d
    Basically, I want to be able to assign objects created within filters to members in a base controller from which every controller extends. Any possible way to do that? Here's how I tried, but haven't got to make it work. What I'm trying to achieve is to have all my controllers extend a base controller. The base controller's constructor would be used to assign values to its members, those values being pulled from the session map. Example below. File grails-app/controllers/HomeController.groovy: class HomeController extends BaseController { def index = { render username } } File grails-app/controllers/BaseController.groovy: abstract class BaseController { public String username public BaseController() { username = session.username } } When running the app, the output shown is: 2010-06-15 18:17:16,671 [main] ERROR [localhost].[/webapp] - Exception sending context initialized event to listener instance of class org.codehaus.groovy.grails.web.context.GrailsContextLoaderListener org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name 'pluginManager' defined in ServletContext resource [/WEB-INF/applicationContext.xml]: Invocation of init method failed; nested exception is java.lang.RuntimeException: Unable to locate constructor with Class parameter for class org.codehaus.groovy.grails.commons.DefaultGrailsControllerClass ... Caused by: java.lang.RuntimeException: Unable to locate constructor with Class parameter for class org.codehaus.groovy.grails.commons.DefaultGrailsControllerClass ... Caused by: java.lang.reflect.InvocationTargetException ... Caused by: org.codehaus.groovy.grails.exceptions.NewInstanceCreationException: Could not create a new instance of class [com.my.package.controller.HomeController]! ... Caused by: groovy.lang.MissingPropertyException: No such property: session for class: com.my.package.controller.HomeController at com.my.package.controller.BaseController.<init>(BaseController.groovy:16) at com.my.package.controller.HomeController.<init>(HomeController.groovy) ... 2010-06-15 18:17:16,687 [main] ERROR core.StandardContext - Error listenerStart 2010-06-15 18:17:16,687 [main] ERROR core.StandardContext - Context [/webapp] startup failed due to previous errors And the app won't run. This is just an example as in my case I wouldn't want to assign a username to a string value, but rather a few objects pulled from the session map. The objects pulled from the session map are being set within filters. The alternative I see is being able to access the controller's instance within the filter's execution. Is that possible? Please help! Thanks a bunch!

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  • Unique_ptr compiler errors

    - by Godric Seer
    I am designing and entity-component system for a project, and C++ memory management is giving me a few issues. I just want to make sure my design is legitimate. So to start I have an Entity class which stores a vector of Components: class Entity { private: std::vector<std::unique_ptr<Component> > components; public: Entity() { }; void AddComponent(Component* component) { this -> components.push_back(std::unique_ptr<Component>(component)); } ~Entity(); }; Which if I am not mistaken means that when the destructor is called (even the default, compiler created one), the destructor for the Entity, will call ~components, which will call ~std::unique_ptr for each element in the vector, and lead to the destruction of each Component, which is what I want. The component class has virtual methods, but the important part is its constructor: Component::Component(Entity parent) { parent.addComponent(this) // I am not sure if this would work like I expect // Other things here } As long as passing this to the method works, this also does what I want. My confusion is in the factory. What I want to do is something along the lines of: std::shared_ptr<Entity> createEntity() { std::shared_ptr<Entity> entityPtr(new Entity()); new Component(*parent); // Initialize more, and other types of Components return entityPtr; } Now, I believe that this setup will leave the ownership of the Component in the hands of its Parent Entity, which is what I want. First a small question, do I need to pass the entity into the Component constructor by reference or pointer or something? If I understand C++, it would pass by value, which means it gets copied, and the copied entity would die at the end of the constructor. The second, and main question is that code based on this sample will not compile. The complete error is too large to print here, however I think I know somewhat of what is going on. The compiler's error says I can't delete an incomplete type. My Component class has a purely virtual destructor with an implementation: inline Component::~Component() { }; at the end of the header. However since the whole point is that Component is actually an interface. I know from here that a complete type is required for unique_ptr destruction. The question is, how do I work around this? For reference I am using gcc 4.4.6.

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  • RMI applet is making requests on random ports and blocked consequently

    - by Dan
    /// I have set up RMI system successfully on local ubuntu srver. Registry port 1099 and remote object export on 1100(fixed by calling super(1100)) Now I am trying to make it work on Ubuntu over internet with a public IP. I could bind service properly with public ip.But the client applet is trying to connect to ubuntu server at random ports. Below is the error thrown by client applet: // Exception network: Connecting public-ip:1100 with proxy=DIRECT network: Connecting public-ip/cgi-bin/java-rmi.cgi?forward=1099 with proxy=DIRECT network: Connecting public-ip:3733 with proxy=DIRECT network: Connecting public-ip:3721 with proxy=DIRECT // java.rmi.ConnectException: Connection refused to host: public-ip; nested exception is: java.net.ConnectException: Connection refused: connect at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPEndpoint.newSocket(Unknown Source)Source) at java.net.AbstractPlainSocketImpl.connectToAddress(Unknown Source) ... // // I have only 2 ports open on server, i.e., 1099(registry) and 1100(export). How can I fix ports in applet requests such that it does always connect server on same open port? // // Another issue.As I have bound service on public IP i.e. //public-ip:1099/ServiceName, a job running on server to send message to clinets is not able to make request to RMI service. public-ip URL does not work on same machine,i.e., server.Do you think I should use fixed socket factory?If so please give me code snippet and guide me how i can set it up. //Exception java.rmi.ConnectException: Connection refused to host: public-ip; nested exception is: java.net.ConnectException: Connection refused at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPEndpoint.newSocket(TCPEndpoint.java:619) at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPChannel.createConnection(TCPChannel.java:216) at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPChannel.newConnection(TCPChannel.java:202) at sun.rmi.server.UnicastRef.invoke(UnicastRef.java:128) at java.rmi.server.RemoteObjectInvocationHandler.invokeRemoteMethod(RemoteObjectInvocationHandler.java:194) at java.rmi.server.RemoteObjectInvocationHandler.invoke(RemoteObjectInvocationHandler.java:148) at $Proxy5.getUserID(Unknown Source) at rmi.source.xxxxxx$JobScheduler.run(xxxxServerImpl.java:293) at java.util.TimerThread.mainLoop(Timer.java:555) at java.util.TimerThread.run(Timer.java:505) Caused by: java.net.ConnectException: Connection refused at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.socketConnect(Native Method) at java.net.AbstractPlainSocketImpl.doConnect(AbstractPlainSocketImpl.java:337) at java.net.AbstractPlainSocketImpl.connectToAddress(AbstractPlainSocketImpl.java:198) at java.net.AbstractPlainSocketImpl.connect(AbstractPlainSocketImpl.java:180) at java.net.SocksSocketImpl.connect(SocksSocketImpl.java:391) at java.net.Socket.connect(Socket.java:579) at java.net.Socket.connect(Socket.java:528) at java.net.Socket.(Socket.java:425) at java.net.Socket.(Socket.java:208) at sun.rmi.transport.proxy.RMIDirectSocketFactory.createSocket(RMIDirectSocketFactory.java:40) at sun.rmi.transport.proxy.RMIMasterSocketFactory.createSocket(RMIMasterSocketFactory.java:146) at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPEndpoint.newSocket(TCPEndpoint.java:613) ... 9 more Coould you please help me? Thanks a lot in advance. Dan

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  • Parallel Task Library WaitAny Design

    - by colithium
    I've just begun to explore the PTL and have a design question. My Scenario: I have a list of URLs that each refer to an image. I want each image to be downloaded in parallel. As soon as at least one image is downloaded, I want to execute a method that does something with the downloaded image. That method should NOT be parallelized -- it should be serial. I think the following will work but I'm not sure if this is the right way to do it. Because I have separate classes for collecting the images and for doing "something" with the collected images, I end up passing around an array of Tasks which seems wrong since it exposes the inner workings of how images are retrieved. But I don't know a way around it. In reality there is more to both of these methods but that's not important for this. Just know that they really shouldn't be lumped into one large method that both retrieves and does something with the image. Task<Image>[] downloadTasks = collector.RetrieveImages(listOfURLs); for (int i = 0; i < listOfURLs.Count; i++) { //Wait for any of the remaining downloads to complete int completedIndex = Task<Image>.WaitAny(downloadTasks); Image completedImage = downloadTasks[completedIndex].Result; //Now do something with the image (this "something" must happen serially) } /////////////////////////////////////////////////// public Task<Image>[] RetrieveImages(List<string> urls) { Task<Image>[] tasks = new Task<Image>[urls.Count]; int index = 0; foreach (string url in urls) { string lambdaVar = url; //Required... Bleh tasks[index] = Task<Image>.Factory.StartNew(() => { using (WebClient client = new WebClient()) { //TODO: Replace with live image locations string fileName = String.Format("{0}.png", i); client.DownloadFile(lambdaVar, Path.Combine(Application.StartupPath, fileName)); } return Image.FromFile(Path.Combine(Application.StartupPath, fileName)); }, TaskCreationOptions.LongRunning | TaskCreationOptions.AttachedToParent); index++; } return tasks; }

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  • Polymorphic :has_many, :through as module in Rails 3.1 plugin

    - by JohnMetta
    I've search everywhere for a pointer to this, but can't find one. Basically, I want to do what everyone else wants to do when they create a polymorphic relationship in a :has_many, :through way… but I want to do it in a module. I keep getting stuck and think I must be overlooking something simple. To wit: module ActsPermissive module PermissiveUser def self.included(base) base.extend ClassMethods end module ClassMethods def acts_permissive has_many :ownables has_many :owned_circles, :through => :ownables end end end class PermissiveCircle < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :ownable, :polymorphic => true end end With a migration that looks like this: create_table :permissive_circles do |t| t.string :ownable_type t.integer :ownable_id t.timestamps end The idea, of course, is that whatever loads acts_permissive will be able to have a list of circles that it owns. For simple tests, I have it "should have a list of circles" do user = Factory :user user.owned_circles.should be_an_instance_of Array end which fails with: Failure/Error: @user.circles.should be_an_instance_of Array NameError: uninitialized constant User::Ownable I've tried: using :class_name => 'ActsPermissive::PermissiveCircle' on the has_many :ownables line, which fails with: Failure/Error: @user.circles.should be_an_instance_of Array ActiveRecord::HasManyThroughSourceAssociationNotFoundError: Could not find the source association(s) :owned_circle or :owned_circles in model ActsPermissive::PermissiveCircle. Try 'has_many :owned_circles, :through => :ownables, :source => <name>'. Is it one of :ownable? while following the suggestion and setting :source => :ownable fails with Failure/Error: @user.circles.should be_an_instance_of Array ActiveRecord::HasManyThroughAssociationPolymorphicSourceError: Cannot have a has_many :through association 'User#owned_circles' on the polymorphic object 'Ownable#ownable' Which seems to suggest that doing things with a non-polymorphic-through is necessary. So I added a circle_owner class similar to the setup here: module ActsPermissive class CircleOwner < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :permissive_circle belongs_to :ownable, :polymorphic => true end module PermissiveUser def self.included(base) base.extend ClassMethods end module ClassMethods def acts_permissive has_many :circle_owners, :as => :ownable has_many :circles, :through => :circle_owners, :source => :ownable, :class_name => 'ActsPermissive::PermissiveCircle' end end class PermissiveCircle < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :circle_owners end end With a migration: create_table :permissive_circles do |t| t.string :name t.string :guid t.timestamps end create_table :circle_owner do |t| t.string :ownable_type t.string :ownable_id t.integer :permissive_circle_id end which still fails with: Failure/Error: @user.circles.should be_an_instance_of Array NameError: uninitialized constant User::CircleOwner Which brings us back to the beginning. How can I do what seems to be a rather common polymorphic :has_many, :through on a module? Alternatively, is there a good way to allow an object to be collected by arbitrary objects in a similar way that will work with a module?

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  • zend_application showing blank page

    - by daniel
    Hi, I'm using Zend_Application to bootstrap my app. class Bootstrap extends Zend_Application_Bootstrap_Bootstrap { public static $frontController = null; public static $registry = null; protected function _initEnvironment() { ini_set('display_errors', true); //date_default_timezone_set('Europe/London'); } protected function _initRegistry() { self::$registry = new Zend_Registry(array(), ArrayObject::ARRAY_AS_PROPS); Zend_Registry::setInstance(self::$registry); } protected function _initConfiguration() { $config = new Zend_Config_Ini( BASE_PATH . '/data/server/settings.ini', APPLICATION_ENV ); self::$registry->configuration = $config; } protected function _initLogging() { $config = self::$registry->configuration; $logger = new Zend_Log(new Zend_Log_Writer_Stream($config->logging->file)); Zend_Registry::set('logger', $logger); } protected function _initFrontController() { self::$frontController = Zend_Controller_Front::getInstance(); self::$frontController->throwExceptions(true); self::$frontController->returnResponse(true); self::$frontController->setControllerDirectory( APPLICATION_PATH .'/controllers' ); self::$frontController->setParam('registry', self::$registry); return self::$frontController; } protected function _initView() { $config = self::$registry->configuration; $view = new Zend_View; $viewRenderer = new Zend_Controller_Action_Helper_ViewRenderer($view); Zend_Controller_Action_HelperBroker::addHelper($viewRenderer); Zend_Layout::startMvc( array( 'layoutPath' => APPLICATION_PATH . "/layouts/scripts", 'layout' => "layout" ) ); return $view; } protected function _initDatabase() { $config = self::$registry->configuration; $params = array('host' => $config->database->hostname, 'username' => $config->database->username, 'password' => $config->database->password, 'dbname' => $config->database->database); $db = Zend_Db::factory($config->database->type, $params); Zend_Registry::set('db', $db); } protected function _initPlaceholders() { $view = $this->getResource('View'); $view->doctype('XHTML1_STRICT'); $view->headTitle('Greplin') ->setSeparator(' / '); $view->headLink()->prependStylesheet('/src/css/header.css'); $view->headScript()->prependFile('/js/site.js'); return $view; } } When I run the app I get a blank page. Filenames / paths are intact. If I add die() to the bottom of my layout.phtml, I get the page. Something is resetting the headers and sending a blank page. My error reporting is on and I get unrelated errors. What could this be?! Thanks!

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  • Design patterns and interview question

    - by user160758
    When I was learning to code, I read up on the design patterns like a good boy. Long after this, I started to actually understand them. Design discussions such as those on this site constantly try to make the rules more and more general, which is good. But there is a line, over which it becomes over-analysis starts to feed off itself and as such I think begins to obfuscate the original point - for example the "What's Alternative to Singleton" post and the links contained therein. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1300655/whats-alternative-to-singleton I say this having been asked in both interviews I’ve had over the last 2 weeks what a singleton is and what criticisms I have of it. I have used it a few times for items such as user data (simple key-value eg. last file opened by this user) and logging (very common i'm sure). I've never ever used it just to have what is essentially global application data, as this is clearly stupid. In the first interview, I reply that I have no criticisms of it. He seemed disappointed by this but as the job wasn’t really for me, I forgot about it. In the next one, I was asked again and, as I wanted this job, I thought about it on the spot and made some objections, similar to those contained in the post linked to above (I suggested use of a factory or dependency injection instead). He seemed happy with this. But my problem is that I have used the singleton without ever using it in this kind of stupid way, which I had to describe on the spot. Using it for global data and the like isn’t something I did then realised was stupid, or read was stupid so didn’t do, it was just something I knew was stupid from the start. Essentially I’m supposed to be able to think of ways of how to misuse a pattern in the interview? Which class of programmers can best answer this question? The best ones? The medium ones? I'm not sure.... And these were both bright guys. I read more than enough to get better at my job but had never actually bothered to seek out criticisms of the most simple of the design patterns like this one. Do people think such questions are valid and that I ought to know the objections off by heart? Or that it is reasonable to be able to work out what other people who are missing the point would do on the fly? Or do you think I’m at least partially right that the question is too unsubtle and that the questions ought to be better thought out in order to make sure only good candidates can answer. PS. Please don’t think I’m saying that I’m just so clever that I know everything automatically - I’ve learnt the hard way like everyone else. But avoiding global data is hardly revolutionary.

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  • How to use Mozilla ActiveX Control without registry

    - by Andrew McKinlay
    I've been using the IE Browser component that is part of Windows. But I'm running into problems with security settings. For example, users get security warnings on pages with Javascript. So I'm looking at using the Mozilla ActiveX control instead. It's especially nice because it has a compatible interface. It works well if I let it install the control in the registry. But my users don't always have administrator rights to install things in the registry. So I'm trying to figure out how to use the control without registry changes. I'm using DllGetClassObject to get the class factory (IID_ICLASSFACTORY) and then CoRegisterClassObject to register it. All the API calls appear to succeed. And when I create an AtlAxWin window with the CLSID, it also appears to work. But when I try to call Navigate on the AtlAxGetControl it doesn't work - the interface doesn't have Navigate. I would show the code but it's in an obscure language (Suneido) so it wouldn't mean much. An example in C or C++ would be easy for me to translate. Or an example in another dynamic language like Python or Ruby might be helpful. Obviously I'm doing something wrong. Maybe I'm passing the wrong thing to CoRegisterClassObject? The MSDN documentation isn't very clear on what to pass and I haven't found any good examples. Or if there is another approach, I'm ok with that too. Note: I'm using the AtlAxWin window class so I'm not directly creating the control and can't use this approach. Another option is registry free com with a manifest. But again, I couldn't find a good example, especially since I'm not using Visual Studio. I tried to use the MT manifest tool, but couldn't figure it out. I don't think I can use DLL redirection since that doesn't get around the registry issue AFAIK. Another possibility is using WebKit but it seems even harder to use.

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  • No unique bean of type [javax.persistence.EntityManager] is defined

    - by sebajb
    I am using JUnit 4 to test Dao Access with Spring (annotations) and JPA (hibernate). The datasource is configured through JNDI(Weblogic) with an ORacle(Backend). This persistence is configured with just the name and a RESOURCE_LOCAL transaction-type The application context file contains notations for annotations, JPA config, transactions, and default package and configuration for annotation detection. I am using Junit4 like so: ApplicationContext <bean id="entityManagerFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="workRequest"/> <property name="dataSource" ref="dataSource" /> <property name="jpaVendorAdapter"> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.vendor.HibernateJpaVendorAdapter"> <property name="databasePlatform" value="${database.target}"/> <property name="showSql" value="${database.showSql}" /> <property name="generateDdl" value="${database.generateDdl}" /> </bean> </property> </bean> <bean id="dataSource" class="org.springframework.jndi.JndiObjectFactoryBean"> <property name="jndiName"> <value>workRequest</value> </property> <property name="jndiEnvironment"> <props> <prop key="java.naming.factory.initial">weblogic.jndi.WLInitialContextFactory</prop> <prop key="java.naming.provider.url">t3://localhost:7001</prop> </props> </property> </bean> <bean id="txManager" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="entityManagerFactory" /> </bean> <bean class="org.springframework.dao.annotation.PersistenceExceptionTranslationPostProcessor"/> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.support.PersistenceAnnotationBeanPostProcessor" /> JUnit TestCase @RunWith(SpringJUnit4ClassRunner.class) @ContextConfiguration(locations = { "classpath:applicationContext.xml" }) public class AssignmentDaoTest { private AssignmentDao assignmentDao; @Test public void readAll() { assertNotNull("assignmentDao cannot be null", assignmentDao); List assignments = assignmentDao.findAll(); assertNotNull("There are no assignments yet", assignments); } } regardless of what changes I make I get: No unique bean of type [javax.persistence.EntityManager] is defined Any hint on what this could be. I am running the tests inside eclipse.

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  • One Controller is Sometimes Bound Twice with Ninject

    - by Dusda
    I have the following NinjectModule, where we bind our repositories and business objects: /// <summary> /// Used by Ninject to bind interface contracts to concrete types. /// </summary> public class ServiceModule : NinjectModule { /// <summary> /// Loads this instance. /// </summary> public override void Load() { //bindings here. //Bind<IMyInterface>().To<MyImplementation>(); Bind<IUserRepository>().To<SqlUserRepository>(); Bind<IHomeRepository>().To<SqlHomeRepository>(); Bind<IPhotoRepository>().To<SqlPhotoRepository>(); //and so on //business objects Bind<IUser>().To<Data.User>(); Bind<IHome>().To<Data.Home>(); Bind<IPhoto>().To<Data.Photo>(); //and so on } } And here are the relevant overrides from our Global.asax, where we inherit from NinjectHttpApplication in order to integrate it with Asp.Net Mvc (The module lies in a separate dll called Thing.Web.Configuration): protected override void OnApplicationStarted() { base.OnApplicationStarted(); //routes and areas AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); //Initializes a singleton that must reference this HttpApplication class, //in order to provide the Ninject Kernel to the rest of Thing.Web. This //is necessary because there are a few instances (currently Membership) //that require manual dependency injection. NinjectKernel.Instance = new NinjectKernel(this); //view model factory. NinjectKernel.Instance.Kernel.Bind<IModelFactory>().To<MasterModelFactory>(); } protected override NinjectControllerFactory CreateControllerFactory() { return base.CreateControllerFactory(); } protected override Ninject.IKernel CreateKernel() { var kernel = new StandardKernel(); kernel.Load("Thing.Web.Configuration.dll"); return kernel; } Now, everything works great, with one exception: For some reason, sometimes Ninject will bind the PhotoController twice. This leads to an ActivationException, because Ninject can't discern which PhotoController I want. This causes all requests for thumbnails and other user images on the site to fail. Here is the PhotoController in it's entirety: public class PhotoController : Controller { public PhotoController() { } public ActionResult Index(string id) { var dir = Server.MapPath("~/" + ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["UserPhotos"]); var path = Path.Combine(dir, id); return base.File(path, "image/jpeg"); } } Every controller works in exactly the same way, but for some reason the PhotoController gets double-bound. Even then, it only happens occasionally (either when re-building the solution, or on staging/production when the app pool kicks in). Once this happens, it continues to happen until I redeploy without changing anything. So...what's up with that?

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  • Why does every thread in my application use a different hibernate session?

    - by Ittai
    Hi, I have a web-application which uses hibernate and for some reason every thread (httprequest or other threads related to queueing) uses a different session. I've implemented a HibernateSessionFactory class which looks like this: public class HibernateSessionFactory { private static final ThreadLocal<Session> threadLocal = new ThreadLocal<Session>(); private static Configuration configuration = new AnnotationConfiguration(); private static org.hibernate.SessionFactory sessionFactory; static { try { configuration.configure(configFile); sessionFactory = configuration.buildSessionFactory(); } catch (Exception e) {} } private HibernateSessionFactory() {} public static Session getSession() throws HibernateException { Session session = (Session) threadLocal.get(); if (session == null || !session.isOpen()) { if (sessionFactory == null) { rebuildSessionFactory();//This method basically does what the static init block does } session = (sessionFactory != null) ? sessionFactory.openSession(): null; threadLocal.set(session); } return session; } //More non relevant methods here. Now from my testing it seems that the threadLocal member is indeed initialized only once when the class is first loaded by the JVM but for some reason when different threads access the getSession() method they use different sessions. When a thread first accesses this class (Session) threadLocal.get(); will return null but as expected all other access requests will yeild the same session. I'm not sure how this can be happening as the threadLocal variable is final and the method threadLocal.set(session) is only used in the above context (which I'm 99.9% sure has to yeild a non null session as I would have encountered a NullPointerException at a different part of my app). I'm not sure this is relevant but these are the main parts of my hibernate.cfg.xml file: <hibernate-configuration> <session-factory> <property name="connection.url">someURL</property> <property name="connection.driver_class"> com.microsoft.sqlserver.jdbc.SQLServerDriver</property> <property name="dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.SQLServerDialect</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.isolation">1</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.username">User</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.password">Password</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.pool_size">10</property> <property name="show_sql">false</property> <property name="current_session_context_class">thread</property> <property name="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto">update</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_second_level_cache">false</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.provider_class">org.hibernate.cache.NoCacheProvider</property> <!-- Mapping files --> I'd appreciate any help granted and of course if anyone has any questions I'd be happy to clarify. Ittai

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  • When transactionManager is not named "transactionManager" ...

    - by smallufo
    I am trying Spring 3(.0.2.RELEASE) and JPA2 and Hibernate 3.5.1-Final... One thing upsets me is that spring seems only accept a transaction Manager named "transactionManager" If I don't name it "transactionManager" , Spring will throws NoSuchBeanDefinitionException: No bean named 'transactionManager' is defined. Here is my config : <context:component-scan base-package="destiny.data.mining"/> <context:annotation-config/> <bean id="miningEntityManagerFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="mining"/> </bean> <bean id="miningTransactionManager" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager" > <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="miningEntityManagerFactory"/> </bean> <tx:advice id="txAdviceMining" transaction-manager="miningTransactionManager"> <tx:attributes> <tx:method name="get*" read-only="true"/> <tx:method name="save*" propagation="REQUIRED"/> <tx:method name="update*" propagation="REQUIRED"/> <tx:method name="delete*" propagation="REQUIRED"/> <tx:method name="*" propagation="SUPPORTS" read-only="true"/> </tx:attributes> </tx:advice> <aop:config> <aop:pointcut id="methods" expression="execution(* destiny.utils.AbstractDao+.*(..))"/> <aop:advisor advice-ref="txAdviceMining" pointcut-ref="methods"/> </aop:config> <tx:annotation-driven transaction-manager="miningTransactionManager"/> In this config , an Entity Manager Factory is not necessarily named "entityManagerFactory" , and "txAdvice" is not necessarily named "txAdvice" , either. But I don't know why on earth Spring requires a transaction manager named "transactionManager" ? Is there any way not to name a transaction manager "transactionManager" ? (I'm running multiple spring config files , so I try my best to avoid name-conflicting) test code : @RunWith(SpringJUnit4ClassRunner.class) @ContextConfiguration(locations={"classpath:mining.xml"}) public class MiningPersonDaoTest { @Inject private EntityManagerFactory miningEntityManagerFactory; @Inject private MiningPersonDao miningPersonDao; @Transactional @Test public void testUpdate() { MiningPerson p = miningPersonDao.get(42L); p.setLocationName("OOXX"); miningPersonDao.update(p); System.out.println(p); } } ii

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  • Duplicate Blob field with foreach

    - by JGSilva
    I have some fields (blob) where I have uploaded some images. The images display correctly and I can open it without problem in Photoshop for example. I created a button where user can duplicate the product and everything works fine, but when it comes to duplicate the image entry I got some errors, like 1064 and others ones that I can't remember cause I am working 3 days inside this. Because de original product have 3 or more images I select then and gave an foreach. What I notice when a print de blob is that in the end it eats the next array, like if don't have an end. In other words, the next item got inside that utf-8 character in the print. That gave me some clue. The next approach was to save it in somewhere, and reupload it. The problem is that only the first one works. When I download the image saved, it opens normally so, it is not a saving in disk problem. When I gave a print in the $result, the same happens, is like the image is hungry and ate the next one. Here is the code. Notice = I created the [$count] to see if was not an rewrite in array error. Even tried to , in beging of the foreach, kind of clean the vars… $count=0; foreach ($original_image as $key => $val) { $count++; //$arquivo = ''; //$image = ''; //$file = ''; //$this->image = ''; //$return = ''; $arquivo[$count] = $val['pi_id'].'.'.$val['pi_type']; $image[$count] = $caminho_url.$arquivo[$count]; if (file_exists($image[$count])) { $this->image = Image::factory($image[$count]); $this->image->save($image[$count]); $file[$count]=mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes(fread(fopen($image[$count], "r"), filesize($image[$count])))); $return[$count] = Product::add_image($id_prod, $file[$count], $val['pi_type'],$val['pi_main']); }else { die('no'); } }

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  • Problem with character encoding on email sent via PHP?

    - by cosgrove
    Hi everybody, Having some trouble sending properly formatted HTML e-mail from a PHP script. I am running PHP 5.3.0 and Apache 2.2.11 on Windows XP Professional. The output looks like this: Agent Summary for Support on Tuesday April 20 2010=20 Ext. Name Time Volume 137 Agent Name 01:27:25 1 138 =09 00:00:00 0 139 =09 00:00:00 0 You see the =20 and =09 in there? If you look at the HTML you also see = signs being turned into =3D. I figure this is a character encoding issue as I read the following at Wikipedia: ISO-8859-1 and Windows-1252 confusion It is very common to mislabel text data with the charset label ISO-8859-1, even though the data is really Windows-1252 encoded. In Windows-1252, codes between 0x80 and 0x9F are used for letters and punctuation, whereas they are control codes in ISO-8859-1. Many web browsers and e-mail clients will interpret ISO-8859-1 control codes as Windows-1252 characters in order to accommodate such mislabeling but it is not standard behaviour and care should be taken to avoid generating these characters in ISO-8859-1 labeled content. This looks like the problem but I don't know how to fix. My code looks like this: ob_start(); report_queue_summary($yesterday,$yesterday,$first_extension,$last_extension,$queue); $body_report = ob_get_contents(); ob_end_clean(); $body_footer = "This is an automatically generated e-mail."; $message = new Mail_mime(); $html = $body_header.$body_report.$body_footer; $message->setHTMLBody($html); $body = $message->get(); $extraheaders = array("From"=>"***redacted***","To"=>$recipient, "Subject"=>"Agent Summary for $yesterday [$queue]", "Content-type"=>"text/html; charset=iso-8859-1"); $headers = $message->headers($extraheaders); # setup e-mail; $host = "*********"; $port = "26"; $username = "*****"; $password = "*****"; # Send e-mail $smtp = Mail::factory('smtp', array ('host' => $host, 'port' => $port, 'auth' => true, 'username' => $username, 'password' => $password)); $mail = $smtp->send($recipient, $extraheaders, $body); if (PEAR::isError($mail)) { echo("" . $mail->getMessage() . ""); } else { echo("Message successfully sent!"); } Is the problem that I'm using output buffering?

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  • Separation of domain and ui layer in a composite

    - by hansmaad
    Hi all, i'm wondering if there is a pattern how to separate the domain logic of a class from the ui responsibilities of the objects in the domain layer. Example: // Domain classes interface MachinePart { CalculateX(in, out) // Where do we put these: // Draw(Screen) ?? // ShowProperties(View) ?? // ... } class Assembly : MachinePart { CalculateX(in, out) subParts } class Pipe : MachinePart { CalculateX(in, out) length, diamater... } There is an application that calculates the value X for machines assembled from many machine parts. The assembly is loaded from a file representation and is designed as a composite. Each concrete part class stores some data to implement the CalculateX(in,out) method to simulate behaviour of the whole assembly. The application runs well but without GUI. To increase the usability a GUi should be developed on top of the existing implementation (changes to the existing code are allowed). The GUI should show a schematic graphical representation of the assembly and provide part specific dialogs to edit several parameters. To achieve these goals the application needs new functionality for each machine part to draw a schematic representation on the screen, show a property dialog and other things not related to the domain of machine simulation. I can think of some different solutions to implement a Draw(Screen) functionality for each part but i am not happy with each of them. First i could add a Draw(Screen) method to the MachinePart interface but this would mix-up domain code with ui code and i had to add a lot of functionality to each machine part class what makes my domain model hard to read and hard to understand. Another "simple" solution is to make all parts visitable and implement ui code in visitors but Visitor does not belong to my favorite patterns. I could derive UI variants from each machine part class to add the UI implementation there but i had to check if each part class is suited for inheritance and had to be careful on changes to the base classes. My currently favorite design is to create a parallel composite hierarchy where each component stores data to define a machine part, has implementation for UI methods and a factory method which creates instances of the corresponding domain classes, so that i can "convert" a UI assembly to a domain assembly. But there are problems to go back from the created domain hierarchy to the UI hierarchy for showing calculation results in the drawing for example (imagine some parts store some values during the calculation i want to show in the schematic representation after the simluation). Maybe there are some proven patterns for such problems?

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  • Is this a problem typically solved with IOC?

    - by Dirk
    My current application allows users to define custom web forms through a set of admin screens. it's essentially an EAV type application. As such, I can't hard code HTML or ASP.NET markup to render a given page. Instead, the UI requests an instance of a Form object from the service layer, which in turn constructs one using a several RDMBS tables. Form contains the kind of classes you would expect to see in such a context: Form= IEnumerable<FormSections>=IEnumerable<FormFields> Here's what the service layer looks like: public class MyFormService: IFormService{ public Form OpenForm(int formId){ //construct and return a concrete implementation of Form } } Everything works splendidly (for a while). The UI is none the wiser about what sections/fields exist in a given form: It happily renders the Form object it receives into a functional ASP.NET page. A few weeks later, I get a new requirement from the business: When viewing a non-editable (i.e. read-only) versions of a form, certain field values should be merged together and other contrived/calculated fields should are added. No problem I say. Simply amend my service class so that its methods are more explicit: public class MyFormService: IFormService{ public Form OpenFormForEditing(int formId){ //construct and return a concrete implementation of Form } public Form OpenFormForViewing(int formId){ //construct and a concrete implementation of Form //apply additional transformations to the form } } Again everything works great and balance has been restored to the force. The UI continues to be agnostic as to what is in the Form, and our separation of concerns is achieved. Only a few short weeks later, however, the business puts out a new requirement: in certain scenarios, we should apply only some of the form transformations I referenced above. At this point, it feels like the "explicit method" approach has reached a dead end, unless I want to end up with an explosion of methods (OpenFormViewingScenario1, OpenFormViewingScenario2, etc). Instead, I introduce another level of indirection: public interface IFormViewCreator{ void CreateView(Form form); } public class MyFormService: IFormService{ public Form OpenFormForEditing(int formId){ //construct and return a concrete implementation of Form } public Form OpenFormForViewing(int formId, IFormViewCreator formViewCreator){ //construct a concrete implementation of Form //apply transformations to the dynamic field list return formViewCreator.CreateView(form); } } On the surface, this seems like acceptable approach and yet there is a certain smell. Namely, the UI, which had been living in ignorant bliss about the implementation details of OpenFormForViewing, must possess knowledge of and create an instance of IFormViewCreator. My questions are twofold: Is there a better way to achieve the composability I'm after? (perhaps by using an IoC container or a home rolled factory to create the concrete IFormViewCreator)? Did I fundamentally screw up the abstraction here?

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  • Google Map lng + lat to hidden field not working

    - by user547794
    Hello, I am trying to get Marker data into hidden fields on my form. I'm not sure why this isn't working, it must be something in my js syntax: var initialLocation; var siberia = new google.maps.LatLng(60, 105); var newyork = new google.maps.LatLng(40.69847032728747, -73.9514422416687); var browserSupportFlag = new Boolean(); function initialize() { var myOptions = { zoom: 6, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.HYBRID }; var map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map_canvas"), myOptions); myListener = google.maps.event.addListener(map, 'click', function(event) { placeMarker(event.latLng), google.maps.event.removeListener(myListener); }); // Try W3C Geolocation (Preferred) if(navigator.geolocation) { browserSupportFlag = true; navigator.geolocation.getCurrentPosition(function(position) { initialLocation = new google.maps.LatLng(position.coords.latitude,position.coords.longitude); map.setCenter(initialLocation); }, function() { handleNoGeolocation(browserSupportFlag); }); // Try Google Gears Geolocation } else if (google.gears) { browserSupportFlag = true; var geo = google.gears.factory.create('beta.geolocation'); geo.getCurrentPosition(function(position) { initialLocation = new google.maps.LatLng(position.latitude,position.longitude); map.setCenter(initialLocation); }, function() { handleNoGeoLocation(browserSupportFlag); }); // Browser doesn't support Geolocation } else { browserSupportFlag = false; handleNoGeolocation(browserSupportFlag); } function handleNoGeolocation(errorFlag) { if (errorFlag == true) { alert("Geolocation service failed."); initialLocation = newyork; } else { alert("Your browser doesn't support geolocation. We've placed you in Siberia."); initialLocation = siberia; } } function placeMarker(location) { var marker = new google.maps.Marker({ position: location, map: map, draggable: true }); map.setCenter(location); } } var lat = latlng.lat(); var lng = latlng.lng(); document.getElementById("t1").value=lat; document.getElementById("t2").value=lng; <input type="hidden" name="lat" id="t1"> <input type="hidden" name="long" id="t2">

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  • Any suggestions for improvement on this style for BDD/TDD?

    - by Sean B
    I was tinkering with doing the setups with our unit test specifciations which go like Specification for SUT when behaviour X happens in scenario Y Given that this thing And also this other thing When I do X... Then It should do ... And It should also do ... I wrapped each of the steps of the GivenThat in Actions... any feed back whether separating with Actions is good / bad / or better way to make the GivenThat clear? /// <summary> /// Given a product is setup for injection /// And Product Image Factory Is Stubbed(); /// And Product Size Is Stubbed(); /// And Drawing Scale Is Stubbed(); /// And Product Type Is Stubbed(); /// </summary> protected override void GivenThat() { base.GivenThat(); Action givenThatAProductIsSetupforInjection = () => { var randomGenerator = new RandomGenerator(); this.Position = randomGenerator.Generate<Point>(); this.Product = new Diffuser { Size = new RectangularProductSize( 2.Inches()), Position = this.Position, ProductType = Dep<IProductType>() }; }; Action andProductImageFactoryIsStubbed = () => Dep<IProductBitmapImageFactory>().Stub(f => f.GetInstance(Dep<IProductType>())).Return(ExpectedBitmapImage); Action andProductSizeIsStubbed = () => { Stub<IDisplacementProduct, IProductSize>(p => p.Size); var productBounds = new ProductBounds(Width.Feet(), Height.Feet()); Dep<IProductSize>().Stub(s => s.Bounds).Return(productBounds); }; Action andDrawingScaleIsStubbed = () => Dep<IDrawingScale>().Stub(s => s.PixelsPerFoot).Return(PixelsPerFoot); Action andProductTypeIsStubbed = () => Stub<IDisplacementProduct, IProductType>(p => p.ProductType); givenThatAProductIsSetupforInjection(); andProductImageFactoryIsStubbed(); andProductSizeIsStubbed(); andDrawingScaleIsStubbed(); andProductTypeIsStubbed(); }

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  • Fastest way to copy a set (100+) of related SQLAlchemy objects and change attribute on each one

    - by rebus
    I am developing an app that keeps track of items going in and out of factory. For example, lets say you have 3 kinds of plastic coming in, they are mixed in various ratios and then sent out as a new product. So to keep track of this I've created following database structure: This is very simplified overview of my SQLAlchemy models: IN <- RATIO <- OUT <- REPORT ITEMS -> REPORT IN are products coming in, RATIO is various information on measurements, and OUT is a final product. REPORT is basically a header model which has a lot of REPORT ITEMS attached to it, which in turn relate it to OUT products. This would all work perfectly, but IN and RATION values can change. These changes ultimately change the OUT product which would mean the REPORT values would change. So in order to change an attribute on IN object for example I should copy that object with that attribute changed. I would think this is basically a question about database normalization, because i didn't want to duplicate all the IN, RATIO and OUT information by writing it in REPORT ITEMS table for example, but I've came across this problem (well not really a problem but rather a feature I'd like for a user to have). When the attribute on IN object is changed I want related objects (RATIO and OUT) automatically copied and related to a new IN object. So I was thinking something like: Take an existing instance of model IN that needs to change (call it old_in) Create a new one out of it with some attributes changed (call it new_in) Collect all the RATIO objects that are related to old_in Copy each RATIO and relate them to a new_in Collect all the OUT objects that are related to old RATIO Copy each OUT and relate them to a new RATIO Few questions pop to mind when i look at this problem: Should i just duplicate the data, does all this copying even make sense? If it does, should i rather do it in plain SQL? If no what would be the best approach to do it with Python and SQLAlchemy? Any general answer would suffice really, at least a pointer in right direction. I really want to free then end user for hassle of having create new ratios and out products.

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  • Spring OpenSessionInViewFilter with @Transactional annotation

    - by Gautam
    This is regarding Spring OpenSessionInViewFilter using with @Transactional annotation at service layer. i went through so many stack overflow post on this but still confused about whether i should use OpenSessionInViewFilter or not to avoid LazyInitializationException It would be great help if somebody help me find out answer to below queries. Is it bad practice to use OpenSessionInViewFilter in application having complex schema. using this filter can cause N+1 problem if we are using OpenSessionInViewFilter does it mean @Transactional not required? Below is my Spring config file <context:component-scan base-package="com.test"/> <context:annotation-config/> <bean id="messageSource" class="org.springframework.context.support.ReloadableResourceBundleMessageSource"> <property name="basename" value="resources/messages" /> <property name="defaultEncoding" value="UTF-8" /> </bean> <bean id="propertyConfigurer" class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer" p:location="/WEB-INF/jdbc.properties" /> <bean id="dataSource" class="org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource" destroy-method="close" p:driverClassName="${jdbc.driverClassName}" p:url="${jdbc.databaseurl}" p:username="${jdbc.username}" p:password="${jdbc.password}" /> <bean id="sessionFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.LocalSessionFactoryBean"> <property name="dataSource" ref="dataSource" /> <property name="configLocation"> <value>classpath:hibernate.cfg.xml</value> </property> <property name="configurationClass"> <value>org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationConfiguration</value> </property> <property name="hibernateProperties"> <props> <prop key="hibernate.dialect">${jdbc.dialect}</prop> <prop key="hibernate.show_sql">true</prop> <!-- <prop key="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto">create</prop> --> </props> </property> </bean> <tx:annotation-driven /> <bean id="transactionManager" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.HibernateTransactionManager"> <property name="sessionFactory" ref="sessionFactory" /> </bean>

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  • NHibernate and MySql is inserting and Selecting, not updating

    - by Chris Brandsma
    Something strange is going on with NHibernate for me. I can select, and I can insert. But I can't do and update against MySql. Here is my domain class public class UserAccount { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string UserName { get; set; } public virtual string Password { get; set; } public virtual bool Enabled { get; set; } public virtual string FirstName { get; set; } public virtual string LastName { get; set; } public virtual string Phone { get; set; } public virtual DateTime? DeletedDate { get; set; } public virtual UserAccount DeletedBy { get; set; } } Fluent Mapping public class UserAccountMap : ClassMap<UserAccount> { public UserAccountMap() { Table("UserAccount"); Id(x => x.Id); Map(x => x.UserName); Map(x => x.Password); Map(x => x.FirstName); Map(x => x.LastName); Map(x => x.Phone); Map(x => x.DeletedDate); Map(x => x.Enabled); } } Here is how I'm creating my Session Factory var dbconfig = MySQLConfiguration .Standard .ShowSql() .ConnectionString(a => a.FromAppSetting("MySqlConnStr")); FluentConfiguration config = Fluently.Configure() .Database(dbconfig) .Mappings(m => { var mapping = m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<TransactionDetail>(); mapping.ExportTo(mappingdir); }); and this is my NHibernate code: using (var trans = Session.BeginTransaction()) { var user = GetById(userId); user.Enabled = false; user.DeletedDate = DateTime.Now; user.UserName = "deleted_" + user.UserName; user.Password = "--removed--"; Session.Update(user); trans.Commit(); } No exceptions are being thrown. No queries are being logged. Nothing.

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  • Starting jetty with spring xml as a background process/thread

    - by compass
    My goal is to set up a jetty test server and inject a custom servlet to test some REST classes in my project. I was able to launch the server with spring xml and run tests against that server. The issue I'm having is sometimes after the server started, the process stopped at the point before running the tests. It seems jetty didn't go to background. It works every time on my computer. But when I deployed to my CI server, it doesn't work. It also doesn't work when I'm on VPN. (Strange.) The server should be completed initialized as when the tests stuck, I was able to access the server using a browser. Here is my spring context xml: .... <bean id="servletHolder" class="org.eclipse.jetty.servlet.ServletHolder"> <constructor-arg ref="courseApiServlet"/> </bean> <bean id="servletHandler" class="org.eclipse.jetty.servlet.ServletContextHandler"/> <!-- Adding the servlet holders to the handlers --> <bean id="servletHandlerSetter" class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.MethodInvokingFactoryBean"> <property name="targetObject" ref="servletHandler"/> <property name="targetMethod" value="addServlet"/> <property name="arguments"> <list> <ref bean="servletHolder"/> <value>/*</value> </list> </property> </bean> <bean id="httpTestServer" class="org.eclipse.jetty.server.Server" init-method="start" destroy-method="stop" depends-on="servletHandlerSetter"> <property name="connectors"> <list> <bean class="org.eclipse.jetty.server.nio.SelectChannelConnector"> <property name="port" value="#{settings['webservice.server.port']}" /> </bean> </list> </property> <property name="handler"> <ref bean="servletHandler" /> </property> </bean> Running latest Jetty 8.1.8 server and Spring 3.1.3. Any idea?

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  • How to manipulate default document with rewrite module on IIS7?

    - by eugeneK
    Until few month ago i've been using IIS 6 where i could add different Default Documents to each websites which are physically same directory. Since II7 which adds Default Document value to web config i couldn't use such technique as web.config was changed for all the directory. So I've found simple solution with rewrite module to change Default Document for each domain <defaultDocument enabled="false" /> <rewrite> <rewriteMaps> <rewriteMap name="ResolveDefaultDocForHost"> <add key="site1.com" value="Default1.aspx" /> <add key="site2.com" value="Default2.aspx" /> </rewriteMap> </rewriteMaps> <rules> <rule name="DefaultDoc Redirect If No Trailing Slash" stopProcessing="true"> <match url=".*[^/]$" /> <conditions> <add input="{REQUEST_FILENAME}" matchType="IsDirectory" /> </conditions> <action type="Redirect" url="{R:0}/" /> </rule> <rule name="PerHostDefaultDocSlash" stopProcessing="true"> <match url="$|.*/$" /> <conditions> <add input="{REQUEST_FILENAME}" matchType="IsDirectory" /> <add input="{ResolveDefaultDocForHost:{HTTP_HOST}}" pattern="(.+)" /> </conditions> <action type="Rewrite" url="{R:0}{C:1}" appendQueryString="true" /> </rule> </rules> </rewrite> Now i've got two other issues. first of all i can't use canonical url rewrite, if i set one then site1.com and site2.com redirected to www.site1.com instead of having www. for each. second problem is that there is a directory within site1' and site2' physical directory called members in which Default.aspx is always a Default Document doesn't matter which domain name was used. It doesn't work as well. Please help me with this issue because i've never thought i will get such problem with supposed to be better IIS7...

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  • Some DHCP clients end up with wrong DNS server

    - by Nic Waller
    The scenario: DC running Windows Server 2008 R2 providing DNS + DHCP Cisco 1811 Router as the gateway 30 Windows XP DHCP clients on the LAN The problem: Some workstations are spontaneously switching to an incorrect DNS server. Specifically, ipconfig /all shows that they start using the gateway as a DNS server. This happens about 5-10 times a day to various computers, sometimes more than once per day. The workaround: Repairing the connection on the XP client always fixes the problem, and the correct DNS server address is obtained. We lost our main DNS/DHCP machine a week ago, and had to bring this one online as a spare. We've been having this issue since then. DHCP leases on the old and new servers are configured for "wired" (8 day) duration. There are definitely no other DHCP servers active on the LAN. So far there is no discernible pattern about which clients will show this problem, or when. When I ran DCDIAG /test:DNS it came back clean. Manual inspection of the DNS zone shows that all the records are appearing as expected, with no traces of the previous machine in there. Update Feb 27: Added screenshots. Here is a screenshot of the DHCP scope options on the 2008 R2 server. And here is a screenshot of ipconfig /all running on a healthy host. I don't have any ailing hosts at the moment, but will grab a screencap next time it happens. Update Feb 28: More screenshots. Here's a screenshot of DHCP and DNS traffic from a healthy client when repairing the local area connection. There's definitely only one server responding, but it does seem strange that the negotiation takes place twice. I'll try to get a similar capture from a sick machine this coming week. Update Mar 01: Caught a bad ipconfig. Here's a screenshot of ipconfig /all from a client that had this issue. It says the lease was issued this morning, but it doesn't even have an entry for the secondary DNS I set up yesterday. Both DNS servers were discovered properly when repairing the connection. Update Mar 01: It even got the sysadmin! This issue finally affected my personal workstation this morning. Unfortunately I had just rebooted and wasn't running a packet dump at the time. I set up a secondary server yesterday, and was logging all DNS traffic to it. My machine had not contacted the secondary DNS in over half an hour, so that says to me that it's just spontaneously reverting to the gateway without even failing over to secondary DNS first. Today I swapped the order of the DNS servers in DHCP, so the secondary is primary and vice versa. I will update again once I know how that goes.

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  • apache mod_cache in v2.2 - enable cache based on url

    - by Janning
    We are using apache2.2 as a front-end server with application servers as reverse proxies behind apache. We are using mod_cache for some images and enabled it like this: <IfModule mod_disk_cache.c> CacheEnable disk / CacheRoot /var/cache/apache2/mod_disk_cache CacheIgnoreCacheControl On CacheMaxFileSize 2500000 CacheIgnoreURLSessionIdentifiers jsessionid CacheIgnoreHeaders Set-Cookie </IfModule> The image urls vary completely and have no common start pattern, but they all end in ".png". Thats why we used the root in CacheEnable / If not served from the cache, the request is forwarded to an application server via reverse proxy. So far so good, cache is working fine. But I really only need to cache all image request ending in ".png". My above configuration still works as my application server send an appropriate Cache-Control: no-cache header on the way back to apache. So most pages send a no-cache header back and they get not cached at all. My ".png" responses doesn't send a Cache-Control header so apache is only going to cache all urls with ".png". Fine. But when a new request enters apache, apache does not know that only .png requests should be considered, so every request is checking a file on disk (recorded with strace -e trace=file -p pid): [pid 19063] open("/var/cache/apache2/mod_disk_cache/zK/q8/Kd/g6OIv@woJRC_ba_A.header", O_RDONLY|O_CLOEXEC) = -1 ENOENT (No such file or directory) I don't want to have apache going to disk every request, as the majority of requests are not cached at all. And we have up to 10.000 request/s at peak time. Sometimes our read IO wait spikes. It is not getting really slow, but we try to tweak it for better performance. In apache 2.4 you can say: <LocationMatch .png$> CacheEnable disk </LocationMatch> This is not possible in 2.2 and as I see no backports for debian I am not going to upgrade. So I tried to tweak apache2.2 to follow my rules: <IfModule mod_disk_cache.c> SetEnvIf Request_URI "\.png$" image RequestHeader unset Cache-Control RequestHeader append Cache-Control no-cache env=!image CacheEnable disk / CacheRoot /var/cache/apache2/mod_disk_cache #CacheIgnoreCacheControl on CacheMaxFileSize 2500000 CacheIgnoreURLSessionIdentifiers jsessionid CacheIgnoreHeaders Set-Cookie </IfModule> The idea is to let apache decide to serve request from cache based on Cache-control header (CacheIgnoreCacheControl default to off). And before simply set a RequestHeader based on the request. If it is not an image request, set a Cache-control header, so it should bypass the cache at all. This does not work, I guess because of late processing of RequestHeader directive, see https://httpd.apache.org/docs/2.2/mod/mod_headers.html#early I can't add early processing as "early" keyword can't be used together with a conditional "env=!image" I can't change the url requesting the images and I know there are of course other solutions. But I am only interested in configuring apache2.2 to reach my goal. Does anybody has an idea how to achieve my goal?

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