Search Results

Search found 54018 results on 2161 pages for 'asp net mvc2'.

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

Page 263/2161 | < Previous Page | 259 260 261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269 270  | Next Page >

  • Make a final call to the Database when user leaves website (ASPX)?

    - by Jisaak
    I have a system set up to lock certain content in a database table so only one user can edit that content at a time. Easy enough and that part is working fine. But now I'm at a road block of how to send a request to "unlock" the content. I have the stored procedure to unlock the content, but how/where would I call it when the user just closes their browser?

    Read the article

  • Forcing EditorFor to prefix input items on view with Class Name?

    - by Kohan
    I have an EditorFor: <%: Html.EditorFor(model => model.Client, "ClientTemplate", new { editing = false })%> This will bind coming down to the view fine (as expected) but will not bind bind back when the model gets posted. This is due to the form id's not being prefixed with "Client." Usually in this situation i just pass in model and then bind the inputs to model.Client.PropertyName in the Template but this is not an option in this case as the template is used on two different viewmodels (that have client on). Any suggestions on getting this to bind properly? Many thanks, Kohan.

    Read the article

  • testing controller action which returns RedirectToRouteResult

    - by csetzkorn
    Hi, I have an action in my controller: RedirectToRouteResult Create(UserDTO UserDTO) Which at some point decides with which HTML to respond after a post request by redirecting to an action: return ModelState.IsValid ? RedirectToAction("ThanksCreate") : RedirectToAction("Register"); In my unit tests I would like to get hold of the ‘views’ modelstate somehow like this: var modelState = result.ViewData.ModelState; Assert.IsFalse( modelState.IsValid ); where ‘result’ (ViewResult) is the result of the action ‘Create’ depending on the submitted DTO. My dilemma is that my action ‘returns’ a RedirectToRouteResult which I thought is quite nice but it might not be testable or is it? How could I get hold of the ModelState in my scenario? Thanks. Best wishes, Christian enter code here

    Read the article

  • Post complex types to WebApi Client

    - by BumbleBee
    I am new to WebAPI. I have a MVC project and webApi project both reside under the **same solution**. Also, BLL Class library and DAL class library reside under the same solution. Earlier, my MVC project will talk to the BLL now I am trying to create a WebAPi project which stands in between MVC and BLL. Here is what I have come up with so far : I'm using the HTTPClient to post to a WebApi project. My post method on my controller accepts a single parameter (a model). StatsCriteria criteria = new StatsCriteria(); ...... var client = new HttpClient(); var response = client.PostAsJsonAsync("http://localhost:52765/api/reports", criteria).Result; ....... Here's the signature for my controller in Webapi [HttpPost] public CMAReportVM Reports([FromBody] StatsCriteria criteria) { var cmaReport = Service3.GetCMAReport(criteria.Mlsnums); //Create Map to enable mapping business object to View Model Mapper.CreateMap<CMAReport, CMAReportVM>(); // Maps model to VM model class var cmaVM = Mapper.Map<CMAReport, CMAReportVM>(cmaReport); reutn cmaVM; } // and here's my routing: config.Routes.MapHttpRoute( name: "DefaultApi", routeTemplate: "api/{controller}/{id}", defaults: new { id = RouteParameter.Optional } I am getting the following 405 : Method not allowed. As the WebAPI and MVC project both reside under same sloution I am not sure where/how to host my webapi.

    Read the article

  • varchar data type to datetime data type resulted in an out-of-range??

    - by leen3o
    Very weird problem occurred, I have moved a site from one server to another - All is working, but any query involving a date is playing up. I get the following: DELETE FROM MYTABLE WHERE categoryId = -2 AND datecreated < '3/23/2010'; The conversion of a varchar data type to a datetime data type resulted in an out-of-range value Now what's strange is I have changed the LCID to 1033 on the new server as the date is showing as US format and its still throwing an error! I then tried 2057 and again the same error? Made no difference. I'm a little confused, as this is a working site from a server with IIS6 - The locale is 1033 on that server and it works perfectly!! :S I have just tried thrown a Cdate() around the date too and yet again the same error??? Any ideas??

    Read the article

  • implementing security with session variables, how it is insecure

    - by haansi
    I am doing web based projects in dotnet. Currently I am implementing security using session variables. I keep current user id and user type in session and authenticate user from these session variables (say Session["UserId"],Session["UserName"] and Session["UserType"]). Please help me understand how this could be insecure. I've heard that such security can be broken and applications can be hacked very easily, like it is possible to get session id and directly connect to that session id etc. Please guide me on this.

    Read the article

  • how to access a label form user control in Parent class ?

    - by haansi
    I have a class UserControlBase that inherits System.Web.UI.UserControl and my user controls inherit UserControlBase class. UserControlBase has some common functions that are used in all user controls. I want to put error display funtion to UserControlBase as well so that I may not have to declare and manage it in all user controls. Error will be displayed in some label in usercontrol. Issue is how to access label which is in usercontrol in UserControlBase in function ? I dont want to pass label as argument. Please guide me on this issue. thanks

    Read the article

  • NHibernate 3 and MySQL setup tutorial

    - by ryanzec
    Since I have given up on using the entity framework 4 as my ORM (getting it to work with MySQL and mapping table/field names like this_table/this_field to object naming like ThisTable/ThisField is POCO) I am now looking at NHibernate as it seems the the next big well know ORM for C# that probably with not die off any time soon. I am trying to lookup some tutorials and a lot of them in the configuration section have 2-2 in it and was wondering if those configuration would work with NHibernate 3? I am just curious if the 2-2 refers to the version of NHibernate or something different.

    Read the article

  • how to change the value of a control in a master page

    - by Azhar
    how to change the value of a control e.g. Literal in a user control and that User control is in master page and I want to change the value of that literal from content page. ((System.Web.UI.UserControl)this.Page.Master.FindControl("ABC")).FindControl("XYZ").Text = ""; here ABC is user control and XYZ is Literal control

    Read the article

  • showing content from subdomain

    - by coure06
    I have a root site in httpdocs folder. There is another website (for subdomain) at httpdocs/demo1 Mapping is like www.abc.com to httpdocs demo1.abco.com to httpdocs/demo1 How can I show image from demo1 folder? I want to access it like www.abc.com/demo1/images/some.png Error: Parser Error Message: It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level. This error can be caused by a virtual directory not being configured as an application in IIS.

    Read the article

  • validation controls are not validating on enabling on client side using java script, plz guide

    - by haansi
    Hi, As per requirement I disabled all validation controls in page on PageLoad event in server side. On clicking submit button I want to activate them and validate the page and if the page is ok submit other wise not. I am able to enable all validaters but one thing that I am unable to understand is that they do not validate the page. I set alerts and check they are being enabled but they do not validate the page and let the page submit. I am sorry I couldn't get where I am wrong, may be there need to call some validation method as well or I should prevent default behavior of button. please guide me. Below is my script: <script type="text/javascript"> function NextClicked() { var _ddlStatus = document.getElementById("<%=ddlEmpStatus.ClientID%>"); var _selectedIndex = _ddlStatus.selectedIndex; if (_selectedIndex == 0) { alert("Nothing selected"); }<br/> else<br/> if (_selectedIndex == 1) { for (i = 0; i < Page_Validators.length; i++) { Page_Validators[i].Enabled = true; } } } </script> thanks in anticipation.

    Read the article

  • Pass parameter from page to ActiveX

    - by nCdy
    <object id="Bacs_DBTableRepX" classid="CLSID:CA8B72B3-3B15-40D7-9364-478E25AF5B41" codebase="Bacs_DBTableRepX.cab" style=" Z-INDEX: 102; LEFT: 20px; WIDTH: 1200px; POSITION: absolute; TOP: 80px; HEIGHT: 600px"> <param name="ax_Command" value='<%=GetText()%>'/> </object> Here is my try but it made no sense. Parameter had not being sent. Is there any examples how to sent parameter to my ActiveX or some mistakes in my code ?

    Read the article

  • How to use StructureMap to inject repository classes to the controller?

    - by Lorenzo
    In the current application I am working on I have a custom ControllerFactory class that create a controller and automatically sets the Elmah ErrorHandler. public class BaseControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { public override IController CreateController( RequestContext requestContext, string controllerName ) { var controller = base.CreateController( requestContext, controllerName ); var c = controller as Controller; if ( c != null ) { c.ActionInvoker = new ErrorHandlingActionInvoker( new HandleErrorWithElmahAttribute() ); } return controller; } protected override IController GetControllerInstance( RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType ) { try { if ( ( requestContext == null ) || ( controllerType == null ) ) return base.GetControllerInstance( requestContext, controllerType ); return (Controller)ObjectFactory.GetInstance( controllerType ); } catch ( StructureMapException ) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine( ObjectFactory.WhatDoIHave() ); throw new Exception( ObjectFactory.WhatDoIHave() ); } } } I would like to use StructureMap to inject some code in my controllers. For example I would like to automatically inject repository classes in them. I have already created my repository classes and also I have added a constructor to the controller that receive the repository class public FirmController( IContactRepository contactRepository ) { _contactRepository = contactRepository; } I have then registered the type within StructureMap ObjectFactory.Initialize( x => { x.For<IContactRepository>().Use<MyContactRepository>(); }); How should I change the code in the CreateController method to have the IContactRepository concrete class injected in the FirmController? EDIT: I have changed the BaseControllerFactory to use Structuremap. But I get an exception on the line return (Controller)ObjectFactory.GetInstance( controllerType ); Any hint?

    Read the article

  • How do you handle ajax requests when user is not authenticated?

    - by LukLed
    How do you handle ajax requests when user is not authenticated? Someone enters the page, leaves room for an hour, returns, adds comment on the page that goes throuh ajax using jQuery ($.post). Since he is not authenticated, method return RedirectToRoute result (redirects to login page). What do you do with it? How do you handle it on client side and how do you handle it in controller?

    Read the article

  • Convert long number as string in the serialization

    - by Bruno
    I have a custom made class that use a long as ID. However, when I call my action using ajax, my ID is truncated and it loses the last 2 numbers because javascript loses precision when dealing with large numbers. My solution would be to give a string to my javascript, but the ID have to stay as a long on the server side. Is there a way to serialize the property as a string? I'm looking for some kind of attribute. Controller public class CustomersController : ApiController { public IEnumerable<CustomerEntity> Get() { yield return new CustomerEntity() { ID = 1306270928525862486, Name = "Test" }; } } Model public class CustomerEntity { public long ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } JSON Result [{"Name":"Test","ID":1306270928525862400}]

    Read the article

  • delete data using entity framework

    - by user3474542
    The objective of the method below is to delete the data from the database using entity framework. I am populating the subscriptions entity by passing two parameters and then calling the atttach and remove method of the context class. Bureau entities is the context class. using (BUREAUEntities bureauEntities = new BUREAUEntities()) { var subscription = new SubcriptionRepository().GetSusbcriptionBySubscriptionTypeId(subscriptionTypeId, companyId); bureauEntities.Subscriptions.Attach((DataAccessLayer.DatabaseModel.Subscription)subscription); bureauEntities.Subscriptions.Remove(subscription); bureauEntities.SaveChanges(); } I am getting the following error message at An entity object cannot be referenced by multiple instances of IEntityChangeTracker at line bureauEntities.Subscriptions.Attach((DataAccessLayer.DatabaseModel.Subscription)subscription); Could somebody tell me where am I going wrong ?

    Read the article

  • routing paramenter returns null when only supplying first paramenter in MVC

    - by Ray ForRespect
    My issue is that I customer Map Route in MVC which takes three parameters. When I supply all three or just two, the parameters are passed from the URL to my controller. However, when I only supply the first parameter, it is not passed and returns null. Not sure what causes this behavior. Route: routes.MapRoute( name: "Details", // Route name url: "{controller}/{action}/{param1}/{param2}/{param3}", // URL with parameters defaults: new { controller = "Details", action = "Index", param1 = UrlParameter.Optional, param2 = UrlParameter.Optional, param3 = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); Controller: public ActionResult Map(string param1, string param2, string param3) { StoreMap makeMap = new StoreMap(); var storemap = makeMap.makeStoreMap(param1, param2, param3); var model = storemap; return View(model); } string param1 returns null when I navigate to: /StoreMap/Map/PARAM1NAME but it doesn't return null when I navigate to: /StoreMap/Map/PARAM1NAME/PARAM2NAME

    Read the article

  • MVC Forms Authentication with custom database

    - by AndrewVos
    I'm trying to get forms authentication working for an mvc site. I have a custom database with a users table, and I would like to do my own password validation. I am logging in my user like this: if (PasswordHasher.Hash(password) == dataUser.Password) { FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(email, true); return true; } The problem is, when the session expires obviously the user has to login again. I am thinking I should be storing this Auth cookie in my users table? Update: I'm obviously in desperate need of more education in this area. I just noticed that the user stays authenticated even after an iisreset. I guess what I'm asking is how can I get persistent and non persistent authentication working properly. I want a user to not have to login again if they click "remember", and if they don't then their authentication should expire when the forms authentication is set to expire.

    Read the article

  • Dynamically retrievng UserControl's Virtual Path

    - by Kobojunkie
    I have an application with the FrontEnd separated into one Project file and the Codebehind/classes separated into a completely different class library. What I need is a way to, from the UserControl Type, obtain it's VirtualPath. Typically, we would have this in code Board uc = (Board)Page.LoadControl(@"~\Board.ascx"); But I want is something like this Board uc = (Board)Page.LoadControl(Board.VirtualPath); OR Board uc = Page.LoadControl(Board); Anyone have an idea how I can accomplish this? Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • How can I ajax load new pages/views into MainContent when using a master page

    - by antevirus
    Hello. Instead of using Html.ActionLink to load subpages into MainContent, I would like to load them with ajax. For example (taken from Site.Master): <%= Ajax.ActionLink("HOME", "Index", "Home", new AjaxOptions() { UpdateTargetId = "main" })% <%= Ajax.ActionLink("ABOUT ME", "Index", "About", new AjaxOptions() { UpdateTargetId = "main" })% <%= Ajax.ActionLink("VIEW MY WORK", "Index", "Work", new AjaxOptions() { UpdateTargetId = "main" })% <%= Ajax.ActionLink("SERVICES", "Index", "Services", new AjaxOptions() { UpdateTargetId = "main" })% <%= Ajax.ActionLink("CONTACT", "Index", "Contact", new AjaxOptions() { UpdateTargetId = "main" })% This works, but when i click one of the links it seems to load the master page all over again. http://emma.jabit.se Click a link and see what happens. Any ideas how to solve this?

    Read the article

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

< Previous Page | 259 260 261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269 270  | Next Page >