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  • weird behavior with acts_as_taggable_on

    - by macek
    For some reason, tags aren't showing up on a taggable object when an tagger is specified. testing the post class Post < ActiveRecord::Base acts_as_taggable_on :tags belongs_to :user end >> p = Post.first => #<Post id: 1, ...> >> p.is_taggable? => true >> p.tag_list = "foo, bar" => "foo, bar" >> p.save => true >> p.tags => [#<Tag id: 1, name: "foo">, #<Tag id: 2, name: "bar">] testing the user class User < ActiveRecord::Base acts_as_tagger has_many :posts end >> u = User.first => #<User id: 1, ...> >> u.is_tagger? => true >> u.tag(p, :with => "hello, world", :on => :tags) => true >> u.owned_tags => [#<Tag id: 3, name: "hello">, #<Tag id: 4, name: "world">] refresh the post >> p = Post.first => #<Post id: 1 ...> >> p.tags => [#<Tag id: 2, name: "bar">, #<Tag id: 1, name: "foo">] Where's the hello and world tags? Miraculously, if I modify the database directly to set tagger_id and tagger_type to NULL, the two missing tags will show up. I suspect there's something wrong with my User model? What gives?

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  • Binary Search Help

    - by aloh
    Hi, for a project I need to implement a binary search. This binary search allows duplicates. I have to get all the index values that match my target. I've thought about doing it this way if a duplicate is found to be in the middle: Target = G Say there is this following sorted array: B, D, E, F, G, G, G, G, G, G, Q, R S, S, Z I get the mid which is 7. Since there are target matches on both sides, and I need all the target matches, I thought a good way to get all would be to check mid + 1 if it is the same value. If it is, keep moving mid to the right until it isn't. So, it would turn out like this: B, D, E, F, G, G, G, G, G, G (MID), Q, R S, S, Z Then I would count from 0 to mid to count up the target matches and store their indexes into an array and return it. That was how I was thinking of doing it if the mid was a match and the duplicate happened to be in the mid the first time and on both sides of the array. Now, what if it isn't a match the first time? For example: B, D, E, F, G, G, J, K, L, O, Q, R, S, S, Z Then as normal, it would grab the mid, then call binary search from first to mid-1. B, D, E, F, G, G, J Since G is greater than F, call binary search from mid+1 to last. G, G, J. The mid is a match. Since it is a match, search from mid+1 to last through a for loop and count up the number of matches and store the match indexes into an array and return. Is this a good way for the binary search to grab all duplicates? Please let me know if you see problems in my algorithm and hints/suggestions if any. The only problem I see is that if all the matches were my target, I would basically be searching the whole array but then again, if that were the case I still would need to get all the duplicates. Thank you BTW, my instructor said we cannot use Vectors, Hash or anything else. He wants us to stay on the array level and get used to using them and manipulating them.

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  • How do I set the next available custom color in the ColorDialog?

    - by Hannah
    I'm currently coding in VB.net. A user places the cursor in a table cell and clicks on "Table Background Color" to edit the current background colour. Currently I have been able to detect the current colour (for instance a light blue) and set that colour in the ColorDialog (Colour swatches are correct and RGB values are correct). What I would like to do is enable the user to click on the "Add to Custom Colors" to save the colour. Problem is, it sets the first square in the custom colours area (which happens to already be filled in with another custom colour), rather than finding the next square that is white and set it there instead. Is this possible? If the user selects a new custom colour square when they first load the ColorDialog, the current colour (light blue) disappears and the colour swatches and RGB values are set as white. Thanks

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  • In Flex 3 is there a way to pre-buffer an image so that it appears without flickering?

    - by Brad Urani
    In my application I have an VBox control on top of another VBox that contains an Image control that loads a jpg from a URL (you can't see the bottom panel initially since it's underneath, but the image does fully download). When one clicks on the top VBox, the bottom one gets set to visible=false, then an effect causes the top VBox to vanish, then the bottom VBox is set to visible=true and an effect causes it to appear. Continuously clicking the VBoxes causes them to alternate appearing and disappearing. The problem is that the first time the bottom VBox appears, it flickers once when it draws. After that, there's no problem and it smoothly appears and disappears with the effect with no problem. It's as if the first time the bottom VBox appears, it flickers because even though the image has been downloaded, it has never been displayed before. Can I pre-buffer the image in the bottom VBox somehow to avoid this flicker?

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  • ASP.NET variable scope

    - by c11ada
    hey all, im really new to ASP.Net and still havnt got my head round most of the concepts, im really having problems with variable, when creating a desktop application, any variable created in code for example int n = 10; this variable will be there until the program is running right. but in asp iv created variables which are supposed to last until the user gets of that page, so for example say i have a page which takes the users value ( call this variable n say the user type in 10) and every time the user presses the next button the code add 10 to this value. so the first time the user presses the next button n= n + 10; what i have found is no matter how many times i press the next button n will always equal 20, because the previous value is not saved !! these values are populated the first time the user enters that page, once the user clicks the next button the content of these values disappear! how can stop this from happening ?? hope this makes sense !! thanks

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  • Objective C Array and Object Release

    - by david
    Hi, I have a newbie question regarding when to release the elements of a NSArray. See following pseudo code: NSMutalbeArray *2DArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:10]; for (int i=0;i<10;i++) { NSMutableArray *array = [[MSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:5]; for (int j=0;j<5;j++) { MyObject *obj = [[MyObject alloc] init]; [array addObject:obj]; [obj release]; } [2DArray addObject:array]; [array release]; } // use 2DArray to do something [2DArray release] My question here is, when I release 2DArray, do I need to explicitly release each of its element (array) first? Also, before I release the "array" object, do I need to release each of its element (MyObject) first? I am new to Objective C. Please help. thanks.

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  • Custom iterator for a class based on two sets

    - by Dan Hook
    I have a class that contains two sets. They both contain the same key type but have different compare operations. I would like to provide an iterator for the class that iterates through the elements of both sets. I want to start with one set, then when I increment an iterator pointing to the last element of the first set, I want to go to the first element of the second set. How do I do this? I would like to preserve the bidirectional iterator semantics of std::set, but if it turns out that implementing a forward iterator is much easier, so be it. I'm willing to use the Boost Iterator library if that would help.

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  • How switch UIViewController by flip from 3 controllers ?

    - by Sergey
    Hello, all. I've got next problem: i've got 3 UIViewController and need to switch controllers by UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal. Next code working fine: testController.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController:testController animated:YES]; where testController - next controller to switch, self - current controller. And when i've set 3rd controller - it's working fine, but i have problem with back to first controller - when i back to first controller - i can't go to second controller. 1 - 2 - 3 - 1 - it's working fine, but - 2 - don't show. what's mistake ?

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  • Sorting a nodeset before passing to xsl:for-each

    - by Zack Mulgrew
    I have a situation where loop through a sorted nodeset and apply a template on each of the nodes: <div id="contractscontainer"> <xsl:for-each select="document"> <xsl:sort select="content[@name='ClientName']/text()" /> <xsl:apply-templates select="." mode="client-contract" /> </xsl:for-each> </div> I want to do something special with the "first" 5 nodes in the node set and render them nested element. The problem is that they need to be in the same order as if they were sorted (as they are in the loop). I had planned on doing this by using two xsl:for-each elements, each with the correct nodes selected from the set. I can't do this, however, because they need to be sorted before I can select the "first" 5. Example: <div id="contractscontainer"> <div class="first-five"> <xsl:for-each select="document[position() < 6]"> <xsl:sort select="content[@name='ClientName']/text()" /> <xsl:apply-templates select="." mode="client-contract" /> </xsl:for-each> </div> <div class="rest-of-them"> <xsl:for-each select="document[position() > 5]"> <xsl:sort select="content[@name='ClientName']/text()" /> <xsl:apply-templates select="." mode="client-contract" /> </xsl:for-each> </div> </div> I don't think this will work because I'm selecting the nodes by position before sorting them, but I can't use xsl:sort outside of the xsl:for-each. Am I approaching this incorrectly?

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  • [change] Vlookup onto another workbook

    - by Arcadian
    Hello, here is my dilemma. I have two worksheets one that has the name of clients and one that i want to copy the names to depending on the city. For instance: associated to each column is last name, first name and city. i have hundreds of names associated to different cities and what i would like is from worksheet1.xls to copy all the New York clients to worksheet2.xls either when i open worksheet2 or via macro what ever is easier and because last name is in one cell and the first name is in the other i would have to copy both. I saw that its possible to link cells from one worksheet to another and then do a vlookup depending on the criteria. Is that the best easiest way or is there another? thanks in advance and cheers oleg

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  • NSNumber floatValue not equal to NSNumber value

    - by Mirkules
    Hi Everyone, First post here. Having a problem with NSNumber's floatValue method -- somehow, it returns an imprecise number. Here's the problem: I store a bunch of NSNumbers in an array, like this: NSArray *a = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: [NSNumber numberWithFloat:0.04f], [NSNumber numberWithFloat:0.028f], [NSNumber numberWithFloat:0.016f], [NSNumber numberWithFloat:0.004f], nil]; Then I try to retrieve the first value (for example): NSNumber n = (NSNumber) [a objectAtIndex:0]; CGFloat f = [n floatValue]; In the debugger, n shows a value of 0.04 (in the summary column), but f shows a value of 0.0399999991. What am I doing wrong here? Thanks everyone.

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  • Normalization in plain English

    - by Yada
    I sort of understand the concept of database normalization but always have a hard time explaining it in plain English especially for a job interview. I have read the wikipedia post, but still find it hard to explain the concept to none developers. "Design a database in a way not to get duplicated data" is the first thing that comes to mind. Does anyone was a nice way to explain the concept of database normalization in plain English. And what are some nice examples to show the differences between first, second and third normal forms. Say you go to a job interview and the person asks: Explain the concept of normalization and how would go about designing a normalized database. What key points are the interviewer looking for?

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  • Problems using wxWidgets (wxMSW) within multiple DLL instances

    Preface I'm developing VST-plugins which are DLL-based software modules and loaded by VST-supporting host applications. To open a VST-plugin the host applications loads the VST-DLL and calls an appropriate function of the plugin while providing a native window handle, which the plugin can use to draw it's GUI. I managed to port my original VSTGUI code to the wxWidgets-Framework and now all my plugins run under wxMSW and wxMac but I still have problems under wxMSW to find a correct way to open and close the plugins and I am not sure if this is a wxMSW-only issue. Problem If I use any VST-host application I can open and close multiple instances of one of my VST-plugins without any problems. As soon as I open another of my VST-plugins besides my first VST-plugin and then close all instances of my first VST-plugin the application crashes after a short amount of time within the wxEventHandlerr::ProcessEvent function telling me that the wxTheApp object isn't valid any longer during execution of wxTheApp-FilterEvent (see below). So it seems to be that the wxTheApp objects was deleted after closing all instances of the first plugin and is no longer available for the second plugin. bool wxEvtHandler::ProcessEvent(wxEvent& event) { // allow the application to hook into event processing if ( wxTheApp ) { int rc = wxTheApp->FilterEvent(event); if ( rc != -1 ) { wxASSERT_MSG( rc == 1 || rc == 0, _T("unexpected wxApp::FilterEvent return value") ); return rc != 0; } //else: proceed normally } .... } Preconditions 1.) All my VST-plugins a dynamically linked against the C-Runtime and wxWidgets libraries. With regard to the wxWidgets forum this seemed to be the best way to run multiple instances of the software side by side. 2.) The DllMain of each VST-Plugin is defined as follows: // WXW #include "wx/app.h" #include "wx/defs.h" #include "wx/gdicmn.h" #include "wx/image.h" #ifdef __WXMSW__ #include <windows.h> #include "wx/msw/winundef.h" BOOL APIENTRY DllMain ( HANDLE hModule, DWORD ul_reason_for_call, LPVOID lpReserved ) { switch (ul_reason_for_call) { case DLL_PROCESS_ATTACH: { wxInitialize(); ::wxInitAllImageHandlers(); break; } case DLL_THREAD_ATTACH: break; case DLL_THREAD_DETACH: break; case DLL_PROCESS_DETACH: wxUninitialize(); break; } return TRUE; } #endif // __WXMSW__ class Application : public wxApp {}; IMPLEMENT_APP_NO_MAIN(Application) Question How can I prevent this behavior respectively how can I properly handle the wxTheApp object if I have multiple instances of different VST-plugins (DLL-modules), which are dynamically linked against the C-Runtime and wxWidgets libraries? Best reagards, Steffen

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  • Running Visual Studio 2008 and 2010 at the same time

    - by aip.cd.aish
    A group of us are working on a project which we built with .NET 3.5 in Visual Studio 2008. I want to test out Visual Studio 2010 and .NET 4 (well, mainly for WPF 4). I am just wondering if I install VS 2010, will I still be able to use VS 2008 to open the first project. I know when I open older projects made in VS 2003/2005, I get an upgrade wizard. I do not want to upgrade the first project to 2010, since that would probably mean every one else has to use it too. I have not done this before, is it possible to run both versions of Visual Studio, where each version opens its own projects (this may not even be an issue, but I just wanted someone to confirm this, so that I don't spend a lot of time trying to undo changes)?

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  • Jquery Ajax Call In For Loop Only Runs Once - Possible Issue with Timing & Exit Condition?

    - by Grumps
    Background I'm building a form that uses autocomplete against the EchoNest API. First the users picks an artist, using the Artist Suggest call. Next they select a song but the Song and/Or Artist song search doesn't provide a "wild card" search. It only returns exact matches. So based on the forums they suggest building an array of the songs and using auto complete on the array. I can only get a maximum of 100 responses at a time. I do know based on the initial response the number of songs. My Plan: Wrap the ajax call in a for loop ('runonceloop'). Amend the loop exit condition after the first response with the total number of songs. Challenge I'm having: The 'runonceloop' only completes a singe loop because or at least that's what I believe: The exit condition is satisfied before the first response [1] is received. I've tried to adjust the 'exit condition' and 'counter' such that they are set and and increased at the end of the success block. This seems to lock up my browser. Can someone provide some guidance on this situation?[2] I'd really appreciate it. I also don't think turning async off is a good idea because it locks the browser. Response[1]: { "response": { "status": { "code": "0", "message": "Success", "version": "4.2" }, "start": 0, "total": 121, //Used for "songs": [ { "id": "SOXZYYG127F3E1B7A2", "title": "Karma police" }, { "id": "SOXZABD127F3E1B7A2", "title" : "Creep" } ] } } } Code[2] var songsList = []; function getSongs() { var numsongs = 2; //at least 2 runs. var startindex = 0; runonceloop: //<~~~~Referenced in question for (var j = 0;j >= numsongs;) { console.log('numsongs' + numsongs); $.ajax({ url: "http://developer.echonest.com/api/v4/artist/songs", dataType: "jsonp", data: { results: 100, api_key: "XXXXXXXXXXX", format: "jsonp", name: $("#artist").val(), start: startindex }, success: function (data) { var songs = data.response.songs; numsongs = data.response.total; //modify exit condition for (var i = 0; i < songs.length; i++) { songsList.push(songs[i].title); } j +=100;// increase by 100 to match number of responses. } }); }};

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  • Get forum page by PostID

    - by cem
    I can't figure out how it's working. Like this. How is this get page number -and records- by post id? I think the first option is; declare an index / int variable in post table and increase-decrease it when adding and deleting post. but whats happen when i delete first row and if table has one million records? Do you have any idea about this? by the way, i'm using nhibernate and sql server 2005. Thank you

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  • writing 'remove' function in prolog

    - by Adrian
    I am desperately trying to create a remove function, that will simply remove all items that equal to X from a list. After many changes, this is my code so far: remove([], X, L1). /* when the source list is empty, stop*/ remove([X|T], X, L1) :- remove(T, X, L1). /* when first element in the list equals X, don't append it to L1 */ remove([H|T], X, L1) :- remove(T, X, [H|L1]). /*when first element in the list doesn't equal X, append it to L1 */ when running on remove([1,2,3,4,5], 3, R). it returns two trues and nothing else. Anyone has any idea what I'm doing wrong?

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  • Executing codes in viewDidLoad

    - by iSharreth
    In my .m file : (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; /* Some codes for picker view and slider */ } I used a button to navigate to second view by using the below code: (IBAction)goToPlay{ [self presentModalViewController: secondViewController animated: YES]; } I used another button to go back to first view by using below code: (IBAction)goBack{ [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; } Now the viewDidLoad method is not calling. I had written some codes in viewDidLoad in first view and I want to execute it when pressing goBack button in second view. What should I do? Anyone please help.

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  • Multiple join query in eSql

    - by Syma
    Hi guys, This is my first question in stackoverflow but really not the first time to get solution here. I am struggling with multiple join in entity framework 4. I have three tables (Accounts, Users and AccountUsers) that am finding difficult to query. What I want is to get all the users for the provided accountId including the account creator. I can get all the account users with no problem but the hard side for me is getting the account creator since it's not added to AccountUsers table. below is a quick preview how the tables are related. Accounts AccountId UserId (account creator) ...other columns Users UserId ...other columns AccountUsers AccountId UserId I would prefer the query to be esql, but Linq to Entities will do. I trust you guys on stackoverflow, so I know this won't take long to get the 'Answer' mark. Thanks for even reading.

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  • C# Spell checker Problem

    - by reggie
    I've incorporated spell check into my win forms C# project. This is my code. public void CheckSpelling() { try { // declare local variables to track error count // and information int SpellingErrors = 0; string ErrorCountMessage = string.Empty; // create an instance of a word application Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.Application WordApp = new Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.Application(); // hide the MS Word document during the spellcheck //WordApp.WindowState = WdWindowState.wdWindowStateMinimize; // check for zero length content in text area if (this.Text.Length > 0) { WordApp.Visible = false; // create an instance of a word document _Document WordDoc = WordApp.Documents.Add(ref emptyItem, ref emptyItem, ref emptyItem, ref oFalse); // load the content written into the word doc WordDoc.Words.First.InsertBefore(this.Text); // collect errors form new temporary document set to contain // the content of this control Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.ProofreadingErrors docErrors = WordDoc.SpellingErrors; SpellingErrors = docErrors.Count; // execute spell check; assumes no custom dictionaries WordDoc.CheckSpelling(ref oNothing, ref oIgnoreUpperCase, ref oAlwaysSuggest, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing); // format a string to contain a report of the errors detected ErrorCountMessage = "Spell check complete; errors detected: " + SpellingErrors; // return corrected text to control's text area object first = 0; object last = WordDoc.Characters.Count - 1; this.Text = WordDoc.Range(ref first, ref last).Text; } else { // if nothing was typed into the control, abort and inform user ErrorCountMessage = "Unable to spell check an empty text box."; } WordApp.Quit(ref oFalse, ref emptyItem, ref emptyItem); System.Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.ReleaseComObject(WordApp); // return report on errors corrected // - could either display from the control or change this to // - return a string which the caller could use as desired. // MessageBox.Show(ErrorCountMessage, "Finished Spelling Check"); } catch (Exception e) { MessageBox.Show(e.ToString()); } } The spell checker works well, the only problem is when I try to move the spell checker the main form blurs up for some reason. Also when I close the spell checker the main form is back to normal. It seems like it is opening up Microsoft word then hiding the window, only allowing the spell checker to be seen. Please help.

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  • SQL: How to join a view with a table?

    - by gamerzfuse
    CREATE VIEW qtyorderedview AS SELECT titleditors.title_id, titleditors.ed_id, salesdetails.title_id, salesdetails.qty_shipped FROM titleditors, salesdetails WHERE titleditors.title_id = salesdetails.title_id I am using the above SQL statement to create a view. I need to show Editors First Name, Last Name, City where they shipped more than 50 books. The three tables I have are: create table editors ( ed_id char(11), ed_lname varchar(20), ed_fname varchar(20), ed_pos varchar(12), phone varchar(10), address varchar(30), city varchar(20), state char(2), zip char(5), ed_boss char(11)); create table titleditors ( ed_id char(11), title_id char(6), ed_ord integer); create table salesdetails ( sonum integer, qty_ordered integer, qty_shipped integer, title_id char(6), date_shipped date); Can anyone tell me what the second Join code would be to create this result? My first view works fine, but I don't know how to join it to the second table to achieve this result? I didn't make the tables, I just have to work with what I was given. Thanks in advance!

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  • Modelling boost::Lockable with semaphore rather than mutex (previously titled: Unlocking a mutex fr

    - by dan
    I'm using the C++ boost::thread library, which in my case means I'm using pthreads. Officially, a mutex must be unlocked from the same thread which locks it, and I want the effect of being able to lock in one thread and then unlock in another. There are many ways to accomplish this. One possibility would be to write a new mutex class which allows this behavior. For example: class inter_thread_mutex{ bool locked; boost::mutex mx; boost::condition_variable cv; public: void lock(){ boost::unique_lock<boost::mutex> lck(mx); while(locked) cv.wait(lck); locked=true; } void unlock(){ { boost::lock_guard<boost::mutex> lck(mx); if(!locked) error(); locked=false; } cv.notify_one(); } // bool try_lock(); void error(); etc. } I should point out that the above code doesn't guarantee FIFO access, since if one thread calls lock() while another calls unlock(), this first thread may acquire the lock ahead of other threads which are waiting. (Come to think of it, the boost::thread documentation doesn't appear to make any explicit scheduling guarantees for either mutexes or condition variables). But let's just ignore that (and any other bugs) for now. My question is, if I decide to go this route, would I be able to use such a mutex as a model for the boost Lockable concept. For example, would anything go wrong if I use a boost::unique_lock< inter_thread_mutex for RAII-style access, and then pass this lock to boost::condition_variable_any.wait(), etc. On one hand I don't see why not. On the other hand, "I don't see why not" is usually a very bad way of determining whether something will work. The reason I ask is that if it turns out that I have to write wrapper classes for RAII locks and condition variables and whatever else, then I'd rather just find some other way to achieve the same effect. EDIT: The kind of behavior I want is basically as follows. I have an object, and it needs to be locked whenever it is modified. I want to lock the object from one thread, and do some work on it. Then I want to keep the object locked while I tell another worker thread to complete the work. So the first thread can go on and do something else while the worker thread finishes up. When the worker thread gets done, it unlocks the mutex. And I want the transition to be seemless so nobody else can get the mutex lock in between when thread 1 starts the work and thread 2 completes it. Something like inter_thread_mutex seems like it would work, and it would also allow the program to interact with it as if it were an ordinary mutex. So it seems like a clean solution. If there's a better solution, I'd be happy to hear that also. EDIT AGAIN: The reason I need locks to begin with is that there are multiple master threads, and the locks are there to prevent them from accessing shared objects concurrently in invalid ways. So the code already uses loop-level lock-free sequencing of operations at the master thread level. Also, in the original implementation, there were no worker threads, and the mutexes were ordinary kosher mutexes. The inter_thread_thingy came up as an optimization, primarily to improve response time. In many cases, it was sufficient to guarantee that the "first part" of operation A, occurs before the "first part" of operation B. As a dumb example, say I punch object 1 and give it a black eye. Then I tell object 1 to change it's internal structure to reflect all the tissue damage. I don't want to wait around for the tissue damage before I move on to punch object 2. However, I do want the tissue damage to occur as part of the same operation; for example, in the interim, I don't want any other thread to reconfigure the object in such a way that would make tissue damage an invalid operation. (yes, this example is imperfect in many ways, and no I'm not working on a game) So we made the change to a model where ownership of an object can be passed to a worker thread to complete an operation, and it actually works quite nicely; each master thread is able to get a lot more operations done because it doesn't need to wait for them all to complete. And, since the event sequencing at the master thread level is still loop-based, it is easy to write high-level master-thread operations, as they can be based on the assumption that an operation is complete when the corresponding function call returns. Finally, I thought it would be nice to use inter_thread mutex/semaphore thingies using RAII with boost locks to encapsulate the necessary synchronization that is required to make the whole thing work.

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  • How do I keep existing values from shifting to the right when entering keypresses into a jQuery Mask

    - by Andrew
    I have a text box I'm using as a timer display "hh:mm:ss" When I select the box and press a number, it inserts the number at the cursor location, but instead of replacing the value at that position, it shifts all existing values over. For example, the timer text box reads "01:00:35" and I replace the first minute position with 1, the timer text box will then read "01:10:03." Anybody know how to force the text box to replace, instead of insert, at the cursor position? I've tried intercepting onKeyPress, doing the replace manually, rewriting the entire timer text, and then returning false. But, that doesn't worked with a jQuery masked input, because my function runs first.

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  • Jqeury Validate() special function

    - by kevin
    Hi there, i'm using the Jquery validate() plugin for some forms and it goes great. The only thing is that i have an input field that requires a special validation process. Here is how it goes: The Jquery validate plugin is called in the domready for all the required fields. Here is an exemple for an input: <li> <label for="nome">Nome completo*</label> <input name="nome" type="text" id="nome" class="required"/> </li> And here is how i call my special function: <li> <span id="sprytextfield1"> <label for="cpf">CPF* (xxxxxxxxxxx)</label> <input name="cpf" type="text" id="cpf" maxlength="15" class="required" /> <span class="textfieldInvalidFormatMsg">CPF Inv&aacute;lido.</span> </span> </li> And at the bottom of the file i call the Spry function: <script type="text/javascript"> <!-- var sprytextfield1 = new Spry.Widget.ValidationTextField("sprytextfield1","cpf"); //--> </script> Of course i call the Spry css and js files in the head section as well as my special-validate.js. When i just use the Jquery validate() plugin and click on the send button, the page goes automatically back to the first mistaken input field and shows the error type (not a number, not a valid email etc.). But with this new function, this "going-back-to-the-first-mistake" feature doesnt work, of course, because the validate() function sees it all good. I already added a rule for another form (about pictures upload) and it goes like this: $("#commentForm").validate({ rules: { foto34: { required: true, accept: "jpg|png|gif" } } }); Now my question is, how can i add the special validation function as a rule of the whole validation process ? Here is the page to understand it better: link text and the special field is the first one: CPF. Hope i was clear explaining my problem. Thanks in advance. kevin

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