Search Results

Search found 7583 results on 304 pages for 'roger guess'.

Page 265/304 | < Previous Page | 261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269 270 271 272  | Next Page >

  • How can I unobtrusively disable submit buttons with Javascript and Prototype?

    - by Frew
    So I found this recommendation, but I can't quite seem to figure out how. This is the code I originally started with: function greySubmits(e) { var value = e.srcElement.defaultValue; // This doesn't work, but it needs to $(e).insert('<input type="hidden" name="commit" value="' + value + '" />'); // This causes IE to not submit at all $$("input[type='submit']").each(function(v) {v.disabled = true;}) } // This works fine Event.observe(window, 'load', function() { $$("input[type='submit']").each(function(e) { Event.observe(e, 'click', greySubmits); }); }); Anyway, I am pretty close, but I can't seem to get any further. Thanks for any help at all! Update: Sorry, I guess I wasn't entirely clear. I'd like to disable all of the submit buttons when someone clicks a submit button. But I do need to send along the value of the submit button so the server knows which button I clicked, hence the insert call. (Note: insert does not create a child of the element you call it on.) And then after disabling the submit buttons I need to call the containing form of the submit buttons submit call, as IE will not submit after you disable the button. Does that make sense?

    Read the article

  • Strategies for testing reactive, asynchronous code

    - by Arne
    I am developing a data-flow oriented domain-specific language. To simplify, let's just look at Operations. Operations have a number of named parameters and can be asked to compute their result using their current state. To decide when an Operation should produce a result, it gets a Decision that is sensitive to which parameter got a value from who. When this Decision decides that it is fulfilled, it emits a Signal using an Observer. An Accessor listens for this Signal and in turn calls the Result method of the Operation in order to multiplex it to the parameters of other Operations. So far, so good, nicely decoupled design, composable and reusable and, depending on the specific Observer used, as asynchronous as you want it to be. Now here's my problem: I would love to start coding actual Tests against this design. But with an asynchronous Observer... how should I know that the whole signal-and-parameters-plumbing worked? Do I need to use time outs while waiting for a Signal in order to say that it was emitted successfully or not? How can I be, formally, sure that the Signal will not be emitted if I just wait a little longer (halting problem? ;-)) And, how can I be sure that the Signal was emitted because it was me who set a parameter, and not another Operation? It might well be that my test comes to early and sees a Signal that was emitted way before my setting a parameter caused a Decision to emit it. Currently, I guess the trivial cases are easy to test, but as soon as I want to test complex many-to-many - situations between operations I must resort to hoping that the design Just Works (tm)...

    Read the article

  • How to transfer Eclipse workspace and project from Windows to Linux and Mac

    - by Li Ma
    We have a a product developed on Windows for years. The product is composed of one Eclipse workspace and about 20 projects. On Windows, we ask every developer check out projects into d:\dev\product folder, and copy a unified Workspace to d:\dev\prod_workspace. This way, whenever a new machine is set, we simply copy files to the same folder, and we can start working immediately. No We need to move our development environment to Linux and Mac. But there's no D:\ on Unix. And home folder for Linux is mostly like /home/username and /Users/username for Mac. We found Eclipse keeps absolute path in workspace when referring to projects, so simply copy workspace over does not work anymore. Even when we manually create/configure workspace on a Linux machine, it still cannot be copied over to another user, because the absolute path is changed. I guess our goal is to allow easy setup of development environment. Do you have any suggestion to move eclipse workspace around? Thanks! Li

    Read the article

  • Why isn't my leak detected by Xcode Intrumensts?

    - by Arlaharen
    I am trying to analyze some code of mine, looking for memory leaks. My problem is that some of my objects are leaking (at least as far as I can see), but the Leaks tool doesn't detect the leaks. My guess is that some iPhone OS object still holds pointers to my leaked objects. The objects I am talking about are subclasses of UIViewController that I use like this: MyController *controller = [[MyController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MyController" bundle:nil]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:controller animated:YES]; When these objects are no longer needed I do: [self.navigationController popViewControllerAnimated:YES]; Without a [controller release] call right now. Now when I look at what objects that gets created I see a lot of MyController instances that never gets destroyed. To me these are memory leaks, but to the Leaks tool they are not. Can someone here tell me if there is some way Instruments can tell me what objects are pointing to my MyController instances and thereby making them not count as memory leaks? Or better yet, tell me why these leaks are not detecetd.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to reference remote content from chrome.manifest? (XULRunner)

    - by siemaa
    Hi, I have a xulrunner application and I've been trying to reference remote content from chrome.manifest file. Tt's an application for the company I work in; it's run on a number of computers (most of them are used by other employees as well) as a kind of an internet monitoring service. The problem I'd like to solve is this: updating the code of such application usually requires me to manually copy the modified files to every computer that the application is running on (I've had no luck trying to make automatic updates via xulrunner platform). This process has become very tedious. What I'd like to have is a web server, where all of the xul and js files would be accessible, so that every application could reference them from there. This would require me only to update the code on that server, and the applications (when restarted) would automatically get the latest code. What I managed to do: I can reference js scripts from a xul file using http based urls and everything works fine (I can use local, binary components etc.), although the xul file has to be local - that I'd like to change. But when I write in chrome.manifest a line like: content my_app http://path/to/app/files/ and then use the line in default/preferences/pref.js pref("toolkit.defaultChromeURI", "chrome://my_app/content/my_app.xul"); it just opens a console window (to test I manually run the application with the -console option) and no code gets executed. The file can be downloaded remotely using wget so I guess this isn't the web server issue. The applications work on Windows machines. Is there some kind of security issue causing such behavior or am I doing something wrong? Is it even possible to register remote, http based content as chrome?

    Read the article

  • .NET List Thread-Safe Implementation Suggestion needed

    - by Bamboo
    .Net List class isn't thread safe. I hope to achieve the minimal lock needed and yet still fulfilling the requirement such that as for reading, phantom record is allowed, and for writing, they must be thread-safe so there won't be any lost updates. So I have something like public static List<string> list = new List<string>(); In Methods that have **List.Add**/**List.Remove** , I always lock to assure thread safety lock (lockHelper) { list.Add(obj); or list.Remove(obj); } In Methods that requires **List Reading** I don't care about phantom record so I go ahead to read without any locking. In this case. Return a bool by checking whether a string had been added. if (list.Count() != 0) { return list.Contains("some string") } All I did was locking write accesses, and allow read accesses to go through without any locking. Is my thread safety idea valid? I understand there is List size expansion. Will it be ok? My guess is that when a List is expanding, it may uses a temp. list. This is ok becasue the temp list size will always have a boundary, and .Net class is well implemented, ie. there shouldn't be any indexOutOfBound or circular reference problems when reading was caught in updates.

    Read the article

  • Javascript - Wait for function to return

    - by LoadData
    So, I am working on a project which requires me to call upon a function to get data from an external source. The issue I am having, I call upon the function - However the code after the function call is continuing before the function has returned a value. Here is the function - function getData() { var myVar; var xmlLoc = $.get("http://ec.urbentom.co.uk/StudentAppData.xml", function(data) { $xml = $(data); myVar = $xml; console.log(myVar); console.log(String($xml)); localStorage.setItem("Data", $xml); console.log(String(localStorage.getItem("Data"))); return myVar; }); return myVar; console.log("Does this continue"); } And here is where it is called upon - $(document).on("pageshow","#Information",function() { $xml = $(getData()); //Here is the function call console.log($xml); //However, it will instantly go to this line before 'getData' has returned a value. $xml.find('AllData').each(function() { $(this).find('item').each(function() { if ($(this).find('Category').text()=="Facilities") { console.log($(this).find('Title').text()); //Do stuff here } else if ($(this).find('Category').text()=="Contacts" || $(this).find('Category').text()=="Information") { console.log($(this).find('Title').text()); //Do stuff here too } }); $('#informationList').html(output).listview().listview("refresh"); console.log("Finished"); }); }); Right now, I'm unsure of why it is not working. My guess is that it is because I am calling a function within a function. Does anyone have any ideas on how this issue can be fixed?

    Read the article

  • Show dialog while loading new screen

    - by darkdusky
    I have a front screen with a button which opens a second screen. The second screen can take a few seconds to load so I want to display a dialog while loading. My problem is the dialog does not display while loading second screen, but it displays when I return to first page from the second page. If I comment out the "startActivity" to open second page the dialog shows fine. I'm fairly new to android programming - I guess it has something to do with threads. //code snippet from inside onCreate: NewGame.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View arg0) { //does not get displayed before 2nd page opens showDialog(DIALOG2_KEY); //shows fine if next 2 lines commented out Intent i = new Intent(screen1.this, SudukuXL.class); startActivity(i); I've dealt with the dialog showing on returning to the front screen using onPause(). I've tried using threads to seperate the dialog from the startActivity but I've had no luck. Any help would be appreciated. I used code from Android examples to create dialog. I include below for reference: protected Dialog onCreateDialog(int id) { switch (id) { case DIALOG2_KEY: { ProgressDialog dialog = new ProgressDialog(this); dialog.setMessage("Loading..."); dialog.setIndeterminate(true); dialog.setCancelable(true); return dialog; } } return null; }

    Read the article

  • EventHandlers saved to databases.

    - by Stacey
    In a database application (using Sql Server right now, in C#, with Entity Framework 4.0) I have a situation where I need to trigger events when some values change. For instance assume a class "Trackable". class Trackable { string Name { get; set; } int Positive { get; set; } int Negative { get; set; } int Total { get; set; } // event OnChanged } Trackable is represented in the database as follows; table Trackables Id | guid name | varchar(32) positive | int negative | int Total is of course, calculated at runtime. When a trackable event changes, I want to inspect its previous value, and then see what it is changing to, and be capable of reacting accordingly. However different trackables need to trigger different events (to avoid a huge, massive cascading switch/if block). If this were just only C# code it would be easy - but they have to be saved to the database. I can't divide up each different trackable into a different table/class, that would be silly - they are all identical, but the event raised is different based on how they are made. So I guess my question is, is there any way to store an event handler in a database such that.. Trackable t1 = new Trackable() { Name = "Trackable1" OnChange += TrackableChangedEventHandler(OnTrackable1Change) } Trackable t2 = new Trackable() { Name = "Trackable2", OnChange += TrackableChangedEventHandler(OnTrackable2Change) }

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC: How to show value in a label from selected Drop Down List item?

    - by Lillie
    Hi! I'm trying to show a value of selected Drop Down List item in a label. I managed to make this work with Web Forms but with MVC I'm totally lost. My Index looks like this: [...] <% using (Html.BeginForm()) { %> <table> <tr> <td>Processor</td> <td><%= Html.DropDownList("lstProcessor1", new SelectList((IEnumerable)ViewData["Processor1List"], "product_price", "product_description")) %></td> </tr> <tr> <td>Total Amount</td> <td>0,00 €</td> </tr> </table> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> <% } %> [...] And my HomeController starts with: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Mvc; using System.Web.Mvc.Ajax; using MvcApplication1.Models; namespace MvcApplication1.Controllers { [HandleError] public class HomeController : Controller { // Connect database DB50DataContext _ctx = new DB50DataContext(); // GET: /Home/ public ActionResult Index() { // Search: Processors var products = from prod in _ctx.products where prod.product_searchcode == "processor1" select prod; ViewData["Processort1List"] = products; return View(); } I would like the product_price to show on the second line of the table, where it now says 0,00 €. It should also update the price automatically when the item from the Drop Down List is changed. I guess I should use JQuery but I have no idea how. Could someone please give me some tips how to do this?

    Read the article

  • Is re-throwing an exception legal in a nested 'try'?

    - by Alexander Gessler
    Is the following well-defined in C++, or not? I am forced to 'convert' exceptions to return codes (the API in question is used by many C users, so I need to make sure all C++ exceptions are caught & handled before control is returned to the caller). enum ErrorCode {…}; ErrorCode dispatcher() { try { throw; } catch (std::bad_alloc&) { return ErrorCode_OutOfMemory; } catch (std::logic_error&) { return ErrorCode_LogicError; } catch (myownstdexcderivedclass&) { return ErrorCode_42; } catch(...) { return ErrorCode_UnknownWeWillAllDie; } } ErrorCode apifunc() { try { // foo() might throw anything foo(); } catch(...) { // dispatcher rethrows the exception and does fine-grained handling return dispatcher(); } return ErrorCode_Fine; } ErrorCode apifunc2() { try { // bar() might throw anything bar(); } catch(...) { return dispatcher(); } return ErrorCode_Fine; } I hope the sample shows my intention. My guess is that this is undefined behaviour, but I'm not sure. Please provide quotes from the standard, if applicable. Alternative approaches are appreciated as well. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How is machine code understood by the machine

    - by Kraken
    I have a very naive question here, and I would like you to correct me on whatever wrong concepts I put out here. The question is as follows: I have ubuntu installed on my machine, now I write a helloWorld.c program in C language. Now, on the operating system I have a compiler installed, when I execute my helloWorld.c program, the OS schedules the compiler and that basically compiles my code into machine code, which eventually, I execute. Now my kernel code is written in C, then how does my machine interprets that code? Say my kernel code is helloWorld.c, now would not I require any compiler, to compile this code. Also, if I hardcode a compiler in maybe ROM or something, then what language is it written in? Assembly language? Let me know if I have made myself clear with the problem. Thanks. EDIT: By kernel code I mean, the code for operating system. Operating System code. I guess it is written in C right?

    Read the article

  • JAR file: Could not find main class

    - by ApertureT3CH
    Okay, I have a strange problem. I wanted to run one of my programs as a .jar file, but when I open it by double-clicking it, I get an error message like "Could not find main class, program is shutting down". I'm pretty sure I did everything right, the jar should work afaik. I also tried other programs, it's the same with every single one. (I'm creating the .jar's through BlueJ) There is no problem when I run them through a .bat . And here comes the strangest thing of all: The .jar's have worked some time ago (one or two months I guess), and I don't remember doing anything different. It's the same BlueJ-Version. Okay, maybe Java updated and something got messed up... I googled, but I couldn't find a solution. (some people seem to have a similar problem, and it seems to be only them who can't run their .jar's; they uploaded them and other people say the .jar's run fine.) What could be the problem? How can I solve it? I'd really appreciate some help here. Thank you :) ApertureT3CH EDIT: okay guys, you're making me unsure here. Imma check the manifest again, at this unholy time ( 1:34 am ) :P EDIT2: This is my MANIFEST.MF Manifest-Version: 1.0 Class-Path: Main-Class: LocalChatClientGUI [empty line] [empty line] The Main class is correct. EDIT3: Thanks to hgrey: There is nothing wrong with the jar. I can run it from a bat file, which actually should not be different from double-clicking the jar, right? Yet I get the error when clicking it, and it works fine through the bat. EDIT4: I finally solved the problem. I re-installed the JRE and now it works, although I can't see any version differences. Thanks to everyone!

    Read the article

  • PHP: Trying to come up with a "prev" and "next" link

    - by fwaokda
    I'm displaying 10 records per page. The variables I have currently that I'm working with are.. $total = total number of records $page = whats the current page I'm displaying I placed this at the top of my page... if ( $_GET['page'] == '' ) { $page = 1; } //if no page is specified set it to `1` else { $page = ($_GET['page']); } // if page is specified set it Here are my two links... if ( $page != 1 ) { echo '<div style="float:left" ><a href="index.php?page='. ( $page - 1 ) .'" rev="prev" >Prev</a></div>'; } if ( !( ( $total / ( 10 * $page ) ) < $page ) ) { echo '<div style="float:right" ><a href="index.php?page='. ( $page + 1 ) .'" rev="next" >Next</a></div>'; } Now I guess (unless I'm not thinking of something) that I can display the "Prev" link every time except when the page is '1'. How can make it where the "Next" link doesn't show on the last page though?

    Read the article

  • Sort MySQL query result by a alphanumeric field

    - by Jason Shultz
    I'm querying a table in a db using php. one of the fields is a column called "rank" and has data like the following: none 1-bronze 2-silver 3-gold ... 10-ambassador 11-president I want to be able to sort the results based on that "rank" column. any results where the field is "none" get excluded, so those don't factor in. As you can already guess, right now the results are coming back like this: 1-bronze 10-ambassador 11-president 2-silver 3-gold Of course, I would like for it to be sorted so it is like the following: 1-bronze 2-silver 3-gold ... 10-ambassador 11-president Right now the query is being returned as an object. I've tried different sort options like natsort, sort, array_multisort but haven't got it to work the way I'm sure it can. I would prefer keeping the results in an object form if possible. I'm passing the data on to a view in the next step. although, it's perfectly acceptable to pass the object to the view and then do the work there. so it's not an issue after all. :) thank you for your help. i'm hoping I'm making sense.

    Read the article

  • Returning a Value from a jQuery Dialog Button Instead of Running a Function

    - by kamera
    I'm working on an admin UI and I can't wrap my head around how to get a specific kind of modal behaviour. I'm using jQuery. I already have a system for modal dialogs in place, where an openModal(settings) function opens a modal. Based on the settings, it will show/hide or sometimes inject various dialogs. I also have a generic confirmation dialog and this is the one I'm not sure how to make work. The layout is simple: <div id="confirmation-dialog"> <h2>Are you sure?</h2> <button class="button.yes">Yes</button> <button class="button.no">No</button> </div> I could just hard-code each button to do what I need it to do but I would like this to be more generic. Ideally, I would like it to function like this: (I know this doesn't work) function deleteImportantThing() { if (confirmThis() == true) { // Delete the thing } else { // Do nothing, close dialog } } function confirmThis() { openModal({kind: "confirm"}); // Check which button is clicked, then return true or false } I guess I just don't know enough JavaScript to get this to work, or to even figure out where to look. Any advice? I know there are modal dialog plug-ins out there but I'd have to change how the rest of my modals work to integrate them, and I'd like to do this myself if at all possible.

    Read the article

  • Implement two functions with the same name but different, non-covariant return types due to multiple abstract base classes

    - by user1508167
    If I have two abstract classes defining a pure virtual function with the same name, but different, non-covariant return types, how can I derive from these and define an implementation for both their functions? #include <iostream> class ITestA { public: virtual ~ITestA() {}; virtual float test() =0; }; class ITestB { public: virtual ~ITestB() {}; virtual bool test() =0; }; class C : public ITestA, public ITestB { public: /* Somehow implement ITestA::test and ITestB::test */ }; int main() { ITestA *a = new C(); std::cout << a->test() << std::endl; // should print a float, like "3.14" ITestB *b = dynamic_cast<ITestB *>(a); if (b) { std::cout << b->test() << std::endl; // should print "1" or "0" } delete(a); return 0; } As long as I don't call C::test() directly there's nothing ambiguous, so I think that it should work somehow and I guess I just didn't find the right notation yet. Or is this impossible, if so: Why?

    Read the article

  • SDK2 query for counting: which is more efficient?

    - by user1195996
    I have an app that is displaying metrics about defects in a project. I have the option of making one query that returns all the defects, and from that I can break out about four different metrics (How many defects escaped QA in 90 days, 180 days, and then the same metrics again but only counting sev1/sev2 defects). I could make four queries and limit the results to one so that I just get a count for each. Or I could make one query that encompass them all (all defects that escaped QA in 180 days) and then count up the difference. I'm figuring worst case, the number of defects that escaped QA in the last six months will generally be less than 100, certainly less 500 worst case. Which would you do-- four queryies with one result each, or one single query that on average might return 50, perhaps worst case 500? And I guess the key question is-- where are the inflections points? Perhaps I have more metrics tomorrow (who knows, 8?) and a different average defect counts. Is there a rule of thumb I could use to help choose which approach?

    Read the article

  • Show my website's content on other websites. Is iframe only option?

    - by Jashwant
    In my project, I have created a code snippet which can be copied and then put in any website. It shows my content on other websites. What I am using now is : <script type='text/javascript'> var user = 'abc'; var age = '23'; document.write('<iframe src="http://www.mysite.com/page.php?user='+ user + '&age=' + age + '" ></iframe'); </script> In page.php, I do some processing based on user and age and show dynamic content. My approach works fine. But when I look into some good standard ways to do such tasks, I find a different way. Take an example of google adsense code. <script type='text/javascript'> var a = 'somedata'; var b = 'someotherdata'; </script> <script type='text/javascript' src='http://www.google.com/adsenseurl.js'></script> I guess, since a and b are global; adsenseurl.js must be using it and may be finally they are showing it on iframe. So, now the question. What's the advantage in using google's approach and whats wrong in my approach ? p.s. I know I should try to avoid using iframes but I dont see any other way to accomplish this.

    Read the article

  • How to know the order of component rendering in Flex

    - by Tam
    I have a component that has a sub-component they both use a shared variable from the model. The shared variable needs to be set by the parent component before it can be used by the child component. I did like this in the parent component: <mx:Canvas xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx" ... creationComplete="group1_completeHandler(event)" > .... protected function group1_activateHandler(event:Event):void { model.myVariable = something; } .... <components:myCustomComponent> ... <components:myCustomComponent> ... </mx:Canvas> But for some reason when the code inside myCustomComponent tries to use myVariable for the first time I get a "null" object error. This means I guess that the child component gets rendered before the group1_activateHandler gets called and consequently myVariable gets set. What should I do to ensure that the parent container initializes the variable before the child component gets created?

    Read the article

  • Log4j Logging to the Wrong Directory

    - by John
    I have a relatively complex log4j.xml configuration file with many appenders. Some machines the application runs on need a separate log directory, which is actually a mapped network drive. To get around this, we embed a system property as part of the filename in order to specify the directory. Here is an example: The "${user.dir}" part is set as a system property on each system, and is normally set to the root directory of the application. On some systems, this location is not the root of the application. The problem is that there is always one appender where this is not set, and the file appears not to write to the mapped drive. The rest of the appenders do write to the correct location per the system property. As a unit test, I set up our QA lab to hard-code the values for the appender above, and it worked: however, a different appender will then append to the wrong file. The mis-logged file is always the same for a given configuration: it is not a random file each time. My best educated guess is that there is a HashMap somewhere containing these appenders, and for some reason, the first one retrieved from the map does not have the property set. Our application does have custom system properties loading: the main() method loads a properties file and calls into System.setProperties(). My first instinct was to check the static initialization order, and to ensure the controller class with the main method does not call into log4j (directly or indirectly) before setting the properties just in case this was interfering with log4j's own initialization. Even removing all vestiges of log4j from the initialization logic, this error condition still occurs.

    Read the article

  • What's an effective way to reuse ArrayLists in a for loop?

    - by Patrick
    hi, I'm reusing the same ArrayList in a for loop, and I use for loop results = new ArrayList<Integer>(); experts = new ArrayList<Integer>(); output = new ArrayList<String>(); .... to create new ones. I guess this is wrong, because I'm allocating new memory. Is this correct ? If yes, how can I empty them ? Added: another example I'm creating new variables each time I call this method. Is this good practice ? I mean to create new precision, relevantFound.. etc ? Or should I declare them in my class, outside the method to not allocate more and more memory ? public static void computeMAP(ArrayList<Integer> results, ArrayList<Integer> experts) { //compute MAP double precision = 0; int relevantFound = 0; double sumprecision = 0; thanks

    Read the article

  • Integrating jQuery autocomplete with Google site search

    - by user1715700
    I have a bit of an odd situation. I have to implement search on a public facing website -but, that search must be able to search both web pages and have an autocomplete/suggestion functionality that comes from a list of terms that are in a DB table. So, I'm wondering a couple things: 1) should I be looking at Google search and jQuery autocomplete? 2) is there something else I should be looking at instead? 3) if this is the right path to be heading down are the enough pointers on implementation? The crux of my problem is that the terms that I need to use for the autocomplete/suggest functionality reside within a database and not on the webpages. So, I thought Google would be appropriate for search the webpages and that I could sort of fill in the blanks so to speak with these terms from the DB. I'm going to say that there are roughly 20-40,000 terms or so that need autocomplete. But that is really just a very rough guess -it could be less. I'm open to ideas and not really married to any particular solution. However, I will admit to liking the ideas of offloading the search to Google. I hear they have a good algorithm ;) Any ideas, thoughts, or leads are greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • My UITextView delegate method doesn't respond

    - by user611967
    Hi guys. I would like to start we that i'm not a very good english speaker, so excuse me if something is wrong. So I have this code header file : import @interface macViewController : UIViewController { UINavigationItem *navItem; UITextView *iTextView; } @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UINavigationItem *navItem; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UITextView *iTextView; (IBAction) btnClicked; @end implementation file : import "macViewController.h" @implementation macViewController @synthesize navItem, iTextView; (IBAction) btnClicked { if (self.editing == YES) { self.editing = NO; [iTextView resignFirstResponder]; UIAlertView *alert = [[UIAlertView alloc]initWithTitle:@"Data Saved" message:@"Your data was saved" delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"OK" otherButtonTitles:nil]; [alert show]; } else { self.editing = YES; [iTextView becomeFirstResponder]; } NSLog(@"works"); self.navItem.rightBarButtonItem = self.editButtonItem; self.navItem.rightBarButtonItem.action = @selector(btnClicked); } (void) textViewDidChangeUITextView *)textView { NSLog(@"works"); } So like you guess it's a view based app wich when i tap Edit button the keyboard pops-up then i press Done button and keyboard disappear and appear a alert view. SO I WANTED TO MAKE THEN I TOUCH THE TEXTVIEW, EDIT BUTTON TO BECOME DONE BUTTON ... THE PROBLEM IS THAT THE METHOD I DELEGATE TO IT DOESN'T RESPOND ... (USING CONSOLE I SAW THAT NOTHING HAPPENS) ... I TRIED DIFFERENT CODE BUT ALL = 0 ... PLEASE HELP I'M NEW ...

    Read the article

  • Please explain this delete top 100 SQL syntax

    - by Patrick
    Basically I want to do this: delete top( 100 ) from table order by id asc but MS SQL doesn't allow order in this position The common solution seems to be this: DELETE table WHERE id IN(SELECT TOP (100) id FROM table ORDER BY id asc) But I also found this method here: delete table from (select top (100) * from table order by id asc) table which has a much better estimated execution plan (74:26). Unfortunately I don't really understand the syntax, please can some one explain it to me? Always interested in any other methods to achieve the same result as well. EDIT: I'm still not getting it I'm afraid, I want to be able to read the query as I read the first two which are practically English. The above queries to me are: delete the top 100 records from table, with the records ordered by id ascending delete the top 100 records from table where id is anyone of (this lot of ids) delete table from (this lot of records) table I can't change the third one into a logical English sentence... I guess what I'm trying to get at is how does this turn into "delete from table (this lot of records)". The 'from' seems to be in an illogical position and the second mention of 'table' is logically superfluous (to me).

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269 270 271 272  | Next Page >