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  • JQuery autocomplete problem

    - by heffaklump
    Im using JQuerys Autocomplete plugin, but it doesn't autocomplete upon entering anything. Any ideas why it doesnt work? The basic example works, but not mine. var ppl = {"ppl":[{"name":"peterpeter", "work":"student"}, {"name":"piotr","work":"student"}]}; var options = { matchContains: true, // So we can search inside string too minChars: 2, // this sets autocomplete to begin from X characters dataType: 'json', parse: function(data) { var parsed = []; data = data.ppl; for (var i = 0; i < data.length; i++) { parsed[parsed.length] = { data: data[i], // the entire JSON entry value: data[i].name, // the default display value result: data[i].name // to populate the input element }; } return parsed; }, // To format the data returned by the autocompleter for display formatItem: function(item) { return item.name; } }; $('#inputplace').autocomplete(ppl, options); Ok. Updated: <input type="text" id="inputplace" /> So, when entering for example "peter" in the input field. No autocomplete suggestions appear. It should give "peterpeter" but nothing happens. And one more thing. Using this example works perfectly. var data = "Core Selectors Attributes Traversing Manipulation CSS Events Effects Ajax Utilities".split(" "); $("#inputplace").autocomplete(data);

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  • Titanium TableViewRow classname with custom rows

    - by pancake
    I would like to know in what way the 'className' property of a Ti.UI.TableViewRow helps when creating custom rows. For example, I populate a tableview with custom rows in the following way: function populateTableView(tableView, data) { var rows = []; var row; var title, image; var i; for (i = 0; i < data.length; i++) { title = Ti.UI.createLabel({ text : data[i].title, width : 100, height: 30, top: 5, left: 25 }); image = Ti.UI.createImage({ image : 'some_image.png', width: 30, height: 30, top: 5, left: 5 }); /* and, like, 5+ more views or whatever */ row = Ti.UI.createTableViewRow(); row.add(titleLabel); row.add(image); rows.push(row); } tableView.setData(rows); } Of course, this example of a "custom" row is easily created using the standard title and image properties of the TableViewRow, but that isn't the point. How is the allocation of new labels, image views and other child views of a table view prevented in favour of their reuse? I know in iOS this is achieved by using the method -[UITableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:] to fetch a row object from a 'reservoir' (so 'className' is 'identifier' here) that isn't currently being used for displaying data, but already has the needed child views laid out correctly in it, thus only requiring to update the data contained within (text, image data, etc). As this system is so unbelievably simple, I have a lot of trouble believing the method employed by the Titanium API does not support this. After reading through the API and searching the web, I do however suspect this is the case. The 'className' property is recommended as an easy way to make table views more efficient in Titanium, but its relation to custom table view rows is not explained in any way. If anyone could clarify this matter for me, I would be very grateful.

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  • How to configure C# Typed Datasets when calling OracleDataAdapter.Update() on Oracle Stored Procedur

    - by John_D
    I am writing a C# Windows Forms application which calls Oracle stored procedures. I chose to use typed datasets in the application, these correctly populate various datagrids, but I am having trouble when invoking the UpdateCommand or the InsertCommand. I have manually coded these commands because a) I am using Oracle stored procedures and b) I don't trust CommandBuilder ;) I am using VS2008 and Oracle 9i I don't have trouble executing stored procedures in SQL Server or Oracle when simply calling them from the .ExecuteNonQuery command; neither do I have problems executing SQL statements directly and updating the database. The problems only arise when executing the changed rows with OracleDataAdapter.Update(). I am specifying the correct set of rows (added, changed etc.) The main error I am getting (after a lot of experimentation with increasingly simpler SPs finishing with just one int parameter) is "PLS-00306: wrong number or type of arguments in call to 'PROCNAME'" I have tried prefixing the Oracle parameter both with ':' and without. Suffice to say I am losing the will to live. Has anyone any more ideas I could try next? Thanks

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  • JQuery use variable by name of divID

    - by Russell Parrott
    Just a quick question, that I cannot fathom out, hope you guys and girls can help. I have a div (with ID) that when clicked opens a new div - great works well, what I really want is to "populate" the new div with predefined text based on the clicked div's ID. example: <div class="infobox" id="help_msg1">Click me</div> I may have say 3 (actually more but...) of these div's This opens: <div id="helpbox">text in here</div> In/on my .js page I have doc ready etc then: var help_msg1 ='text that is a help message'; var help_msg2 ='text that is another help message'; var help_msg3 ='text that is yet another help message'; Then $('.infobox').live('click',function() { $('#helpbox').remove(); $('label').css({'font-weight': '400'}); $(this).next('label').css({'font-weight': '900'}); var offset = $(this).next().next().offset(); var offsetby = $(this).next().next().width(); var leftitby = offset.left+offsetby+10; $('body').append('text in here'); $('#helpbox').css( { 'left': leftitby, 'top': offset.top } ); }); Note I remove each #helpbox before appending the new one and the .next().next() identifies the appropriate text input that lot all works. What I need is how do I put var help_msg1 into the append when id="help_msg1" is clicked or var help_msg2 when id="help_msg2" is clicked etc. I have tried

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  • JavaScript change to DropDownList.SelectedIndex not submitted

    - by Bellfalasch
    Hi So, I have a form to submit fighters. You write his/her name, country, and then the team they fight for + the team's country. When you start typing the name I have constructed my own Ajax AutoCompleter. It will find existing fighters that might match. When you click on one of the suggestions it will populate up to four fields depending on existing data in the database. If you're lucky the fighter already exists with information on country, team, and the team's country. The problems starts when submitting. The JavaScript follows and just get's the id of the country to select (also the value of the select-option), and the select-element itself. function dropdownSelect(value, element) { var dropdown = document.getElementById(element); for (var i = 0; i < dropdown.options.length; i++) { if (dropdown.options[i].value == value) { dropdown.options[i].selected = true; return true; } } } When submitting the ASP.NET-code halt's and says that my country-field is null. So my JavaScript-change of selected field couldn't be read by ASP.NET. Is this a limitation of how ASP.NET works? Or a limitation of my skills? ;P

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  • SQL query for an access database needed

    - by masfenix
    Hey guys, first off all sorry, i can't login using my yahoo provider. anyways I have this problem. Let me explain it to you, and then I'll show you a picture. I have a access db table. It has 'report id', 'recpient id', and 'recipient name' and 'report req'. What the table "means" is that do the user using that report still require it or can we decommission it. Here is how the data looks like (blocked out company userids and usernames): *check the link below, I cant post pictures cuz yahoo open id provider isnt working. So basically I need to have 3 select queries: 1) Select all the reports where for each report, ALL the users have said no to 'reportreq'. In plain English, i want a listing of all the reports that we have to decommission because no user wants it. 2) Select all the reports where the report is required, and the batchprintcopy is more then 0. This way we can see which report needs to be printed and save paper instead of printing all the reports. 3)A listing of all the reports where the reportreq field is empty. I think i can figure this one out myself. This is using Access/VBA and the data will be exported to an excel spreadsheet. I just a simple query if it exists, OR an alogorithm to do it quickly. I just tried making a "matrix" and it took about 2 hours to populate. https://docs.google.com/uc?id=0B2EMqbpeBpQkMTIyMzA5ZjMtMGQ3Zi00NzRmLWEyMDAtODcxYWM0ZTFmMDFk&hl=en_US

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  • How can I replace a UITableViewController with a UIViewController that contains a UITableView?

    - by Dr Dork
    I created a new SplitView iPad project in Xcode and setup the code to populate the TableView (in the RootView on the left) with data. Now I'd like to customize the RootView to contain a DatePicker view along with the TableView, but I'm unsure how to accomplish this. Since the default RootViewController is a subclass of a UITableViewController, I couldn't add a DatePicker view to it in IB (since you can't add a DatePicker to a UITableView). The only way I understand to accomplish my goal of adding a DatePicker to the "Left" RootView is to change the RootViewController from a subclass of a UITableViewController to a subclass of a UIViewController, then I'll be able to add a view to it that contains a DatePicker view and a TableView using IB. Questions... Is this the correct approach to add a DatePicker to the "Left" RootView? If so and I change the RootViewController to a subclass of a UIViewController (instead of a UITableViewController) and add to it a TableView (along with the DatePicker), how will that affect the code I currently have in place for populating my current TableView? Thanks so much for all your help! Below is my current interface code for my RootViewController, if it'll help any. @interface RootViewController : UITableViewController <NSFetchedResultsControllerDelegate> { DetailViewController *detailViewController; NSFetchedResultsController *fetchedResultsController; NSManagedObjectContext *managedObjectContext; } @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet DetailViewController *detailViewController; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSFetchedResultsController *fetchedResultsController; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSManagedObjectContext *managedObjectContext; - (void)insertNewObject:(id)sender; @end

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  • .NET Error with Dynamic T-SQL

    - by Phillip Theriault
    I am trying to create a TableAdapter in .NET using a stored procedure, but I'm getting an error "Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'WHERE'". I have narrowed down the problem in the stored procedure to the following lines: IF @NumRows > 0 SET @SQL += N' WHERE T1.RowNumber BETWEEN 1 and 10' ELSE SET @SQL += N' WHERE T1.RowNumber > 0' @NumRows is an input parameter that defaults to 0. However, if I remove either of those lines everything works fine (both WHERE clauses work fine by themselves when there is no IF/ELSE statement). It almost looks like .NET is ignoring the IF/ELSE and attempting to add the WHERE clause twice. It also works fine if I change it like so: IF @NumRows > 0 SET @SQL += N'' ELSE SET @SQL += N' WHERE T1.RowNumber > 0' One of the WHERE clauses has been removed, and there's no longer a conflict on the .NET side. So I'm pretty sure it has to do with the 2 WHERE clauses, and not with anything else. The sproc runs perfectly fine in SQL Server, and it even runs in .NET despite the error if I click "Preview Data". The only problem is that it won't auto-populate the list of fields, which I need for creating a report. Has anybody seen this before and have a suggestion?

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  • C# Dataset Dynamically Add DataColumn

    - by Wesley
    I am trying to add a extra column to a dataset after a query has completed. I have a database relationship of the following: Employees / \ Groups EmployeeGroups Empoyees holds all the data for that individual, I'll name the unique key the UserID. Groups holds all the groups that a employee can be a part of, i.e. Super User, Admin, User; etc. I will name the unique key GroupID EmployeeGroups holds all the associations of which groups each employee belongs too. (UserID | GroupID) What I am trying to accomplish is after querying for a all users I want to loop though each user and add what groups that user is a part of by adding a new column to the dataset named 'Groups' which is a string to insert the values of the next query to get all the groups that user is a part of. Then by user of databinding populate a listview with all employees and their group associations My code is as follows; Position 5 is the new column I am trying to add to the dataset. string theQuery = "select UserID, FirstName, LastName, EmployeeID, Active from Employees"; DataSet theEmployeeSet = itsDatabase.runQuery(theQuery); DataColumn theCol = new DataColumn("Groups", typeof(string)); theEmployeeSet.Tables[0].Columns.Add(theCol); foreach (DataRow theRow in theEmployeeSet.Tables[0].Rows) { theRow.ItemArray[5] = "1234"; } At the moment, the code will create the new column but when i assign the data to that column nothing will be assigned, what am I missing? If there is any further explination or information I can provide, please let me know. Thank you all

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  • How do I determine if form field is empty with jQuery?

    - by user338413
    I've got a form with two fields, firstname and lastname. The user does not have to fill in the fields. When the user clicks the submit button, a jquery dialog displays with the data the user entered in the form. I only want to show the data for the fields that were entered. I'm trying to do an if statement and use the length() function but it isn't working. Help would be great! Here is my dialog jquery script: $(function(){ //Initialize the validation dialog $('#validation_dialog').dialog({ autoOpen: false, height: 600, width: 600, modal: true, resizable: false, buttons: { "Submit Form": function() { document.account.submit(); }, "Cancel": function() { $(this).dialog("close"); } } }); // Populate the dialog with form data $('form#account').submit(function(){ $("p#dialog-data").append('<span>First Name: </span>'); $("p#dialog-data").append('<span>'); $("p#dialog-data").append($("input#firstname").val()); $("p#dialog-data").append('</span><br/>'); if (("input#lastname").val().length) > 0) { $("p#dialog-data").append('<span>Last Name: </span>'); $("p#dialog-data").append('<span>'); $("p#dialog-data").append($("input#lastname").val()); $("p#dialog-data").append('</span><br/>'); }; $('#validation_dialog').dialog('open'); return false; }); });

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  • Can I delay the keyup event for jquery?

    - by Paul
    I'm using the rottentomatoes movie API in conjunction with twitter's typeahead plugin using bootstrap 2.0. I've been able to integerate the API but the issue I'm having is that after every keyup event the API gets called. This is all fine and dandy but I would rather make the call after a small pause allowing the user to type in several characters first. Here is my current code that calls the API after a keyup event: var autocomplete = $('#searchinput').typeahead() .on('keyup', function(ev){ ev.stopPropagation(); ev.preventDefault(); //filter out up/down, tab, enter, and escape keys if( $.inArray(ev.keyCode,[40,38,9,13,27]) === -1 ){ var self = $(this); //set typeahead source to empty self.data('typeahead').source = []; //active used so we aren't triggering duplicate keyup events if( !self.data('active') && self.val().length > 0){ self.data('active', true); //Do data request. Insert your own API logic here. $.getJSON("http://api.rottentomatoes.com/api/public/v1.0/movies.json?callback=?&apikey=MY_API_KEY&page_limit=5",{ q: encodeURI($(this).val()) }, function(data) { //set this to true when your callback executes self.data('active',true); //Filter out your own parameters. Populate them into an array, since this is what typeahead's source requires var arr = [], i=0; var movies = data.movies; $.each(movies, function(index, movie) { arr[i] = movie.title i++; }); //set your results into the typehead's source self.data('typeahead').source = arr; //trigger keyup on the typeahead to make it search self.trigger('keyup'); //All done, set to false to prepare for the next remote query. self.data('active', false); }); } } }); Is it possible to set a small delay and avoid calling the API after every keyup?

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  • read xml in javascript problem

    - by Najmi
    hai all, i have a problem with my code to read the xml.I have use ajax to read xml data and populate it in combobox. My problem is it only read the first data.Here is my code my xml like this <area> <code>1</code> <name>area1</name> </area> <area> <code>2</code> <name>area2</name> </area> and my javascript if(http.readyState == 4 && http.status == 200) { //get select elements var item = document.ProblemMaintenanceForm.elements["probArea"]; //empty combobox item.options.length = 0; //read xml data from action file var test = http.responseXML.getElementsByTagName("area"); alert(test.length); for ( var i=0; i < test.length; i++ ){ var tests = test[i]; item.options[item.options.length] = new Option(tests.getElementsByTagName("name")[i].childNodes[i].nodeValue,tests.getElementsByTagName("code")[i].childNodes[i].nodeValue); } }

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  • Axis2 SOAP Envelope Header Information

    - by BigZig
    I'm consuming a web service that places an authentication token in the SOAP envelope header. It appears (through looking at the samples that came with the WS WSDL) that if the stub is generated in .NET, this header information is exposed through a member variable in the stub class. However, when I generate my Axis2 java stub using WSDL2Java it doesn't appear to be exposed anywhere. What is the correct way to extract this information from the SOAP envelope header? WSDL: http://www.vbar.com/zangelo/SecurityService.wsdl C# Sample: using System; using SignInSample.Security; // web service using SignInSample.Document; // web service namespace SignInSample { class SignInSampleClass { [STAThread] static void Main(string[] args) { // login to the Vault and set up the document service SecurityService secSvc = new SecurityService(); secSvc.Url = "http://localhost/AutodeskDM/Services/SecurityService.asmx"; secSvc.SecurityHeaderValue = new SignInSample.Security.SecurityHeader(); secSvc.SignIn("Administrator", "", "Vault"); DocumentServiceWse docSvc = new DocumentServiceWse(); docSvc.Url = "http://localhost/AutodeskDM/Services/DocumentService.asmx"; docSvc.SecurityHeaderValue = new SignInSample.Document.SecurityHeader(); docSvc.SecurityHeaderValue.Ticket = secSvc.SecurityHeaderValue.Ticket; docSvc.SecurityHeaderValue.UserId = secSvc.SecurityHeaderValue.UserId; } } } The sample illustrates what I'd like to do. Notice how the secSvc instance has a SecurityHeaderValue member variable that is populated after a successful secSvc.SignIn() invocation. Here's some relevant API documentation regarding the SignIn method: Although there is no return value, a successful sign in will populate the SecurityHeaderValue of the security service. The SecurityHeaderValue information is then used for other web service calls.

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  • What is a good approach to preloading data?

    - by Bob Horn
    Are there best practices out there for loading data into a database, to be used with a new installation of an application? For example, for application foo to run, it needs some basic data before it can even be started. I've used a couple options in the past: TSQL for every row that needs to be preloaded: IF NOT EXISTS (SELECT * FROM Master.Site WHERE Name = @SiteName) INSERT INTO [Master].[Site] ([EnterpriseID], [Name], [LastModifiedTime], [LastModifiedUser]) VALUES (@EnterpriseId, @SiteName, GETDATE(), @LastModifiedUser) Another option is a spreadsheet. Each tab represents a table, and data is entered into the spreadsheet as we realize we need it. Then, a program can read this spreadsheet and populate the DB. There are complicating factors, including the relationships between tables. So, it's not as simple as loading tables by themselves. For example, if we create Security.Member rows, then we want to add those members to Security.Role, we need a way of maintaining that relationship. Another factor is that not all databases will be missing this data. Some locations will already have most of the data, and others (that may be new locations around the world), will start from scratch. Any ideas are appreciated.

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  • Visitor Pattern can be replaced with Callback functions?

    - by getit
    Is there any significant benefit to using either technique? In case there are variations, the Visitor Pattern I mean is this: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Visitor_pattern And below is an example of using a delegate to achieve the same effect (at least I think it is the same) Say there is a collection of nested elements: Schools contain Departments which contain Students Instead of using the Visitor pattern to perform something on each collection item, why not use a simple callback (Action delegate in C#) Say something like this class Department { List Students; } class School { List Departments; VisitStudents(Action<Student> actionDelegate) { foreach(var dep in this.Departments) { foreach(var stu in dep.Students) { actionDelegate(stu); } } } } School A = new School(); ...//populate collections A.Visit((student)=> { ...Do Something with student... }); *EDIT Example with delegate accepting multiple params Say I wanted to pass both the student and department, I could modify the Action definition like so: Action class School { List Departments; VisitStudents(Action<Student, Department> actionDelegate, Action<Department> d2) { foreach(var dep in this.Departments) { d2(dep); //This performs a different process. //Using Visitor pattern would avoid having to keep adding new delegates. //This looks like the main benefit so far foreach(var stu in dep.Students) { actionDelegate(stu, dep); } } } }

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  • Accurately and securely measure the time spent viewing a web page

    - by balpha
    Suppose the following: You have a web page that presents a simple game to a user (e.g. a quiz, a puzzle, etc). The user solves the puzzle, submits the result, and you want to measure as precisely as possible how long they took to solve it. Assume it's quite simple, so we're talking seconds, not hours. Also assume JavaScript is required anyway, so there's no need to think of JS-disabled browsers. Finally, assume we don't want to use anything like Flash, Silverlight, or the like. I can think of several techniques: Simply take the time between the points when the data was sent from the server and when the submission arrives. Since this is exclusively server-side, there's no chance for cheating. However, issues like network latency and page rendering time might make this unfair for users with slow computers / browsers / internet connections. On the first request, just send the page without the actual game data. When everything is loaded so far, retrieve the game data through an AJAX call and populate it into the page. This is similar to 1., but reduces some of the caveats introduced through time spent on overhead. Have the time measured on the client side using JavaScript and submitted alongside with the solution. This would theoretically be the most accurate, but it introduces the possibility of cheating, because you're relying on client data. Use the request time headers of a "ready to play" AJAX call and the result submission request. Same caveat as 3., as it is still client data. A combination of server side and client side measuring with some kind of plausibility analysis. I can't think of a good way, but maybe you can. Thoughts? Other ideas?

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  • Hundreds of custom UserControls create thousands of USER Objects

    - by Andy Blackman
    I'm creating a dashboard application that shows hundreds of "items" on a FlowLayoutPanel. Each "item" is a UserControl that is made up of 12 or labels. My app queries a database and then creates an "item" instance for each record, populating ethe labels and textboxes with data before adding it to the FlowLayoutPanel. After adding about 560 items to the panel, I noticed that the USER Objects count in my Task Manager had gone up to about 7300, which was much much larger than any other app on my machine. I did a quick spot of mental arithmetic (OK, I might have used calc.exe) and figured that 560 * 13 (12 labels plus the UserControl itself) is 7280. So that suddenly gave away where all the objects were coming from... Knowing that there is a 10,000 USER object limit before windows throws in the towel, I'm trying to figure better ways of drawing these items onto the FlowLayoutPanel. My ideas so far are as follows: 1) User-draw the "item", using graphics.DrawText and DrawImage in place of many of the labels. I'm hoping that this will mean 1 item = 1 USER Object, not 13. 2) Have 1 instance of the "item", then for each record, populate the instance and use the Control.DrawToBitmap() method to grab an image and then use that in the FlowLayoutPanel (or similar) So... Does anyone have any other suggestions ??? P.S. It's a zoomable interface, so I have already ruled out "Paging" as there is a requirement to see all items at once :( Thanks everyone.

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  • How can I assign a name to a task in TPL

    - by mehrandvd
    I'm going to use lots of tasks running on my application. Each bunch of tasks is running for some reason. I would like to name these tasks so when I watch the Parallel Tasks window, I could recognize them easily. With another point of view, consider I'm using tasks at the framework level to populate a list. A developer that use my framework is also using tasks for her job. If she looks at the Parallel Tasks Window she will find some tasks having no idea about. I want to name tasks so she can distinguish the framework tasks from her tasks. It would be very convenient if there was such API: var task = new Task(action, "Growth calculation task") or maybe: var task = Task.Factory.StartNew(action, "Populating the datagrid") or even while working with Parallel.ForEach Parallel.ForEach(list, action, "Salary Calculation Task" Is it possible to name a task? Is it possible to give ???Parallel.ForEach a naming structure (maybe using a lambda) so it creates tasks with that naming? Is there such API somewhere that I'm missing? I've also tried to use an inherited task to override it's ToString(). But unfortunately the Parallel Tasks window doesn't use ToString()! class NamedTask : Task { private string TaskName { get; set; } public NamedTask(Action action, string taskName):base(action) { TaskName = taskName; } public override string ToString() { return TaskName; } }

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  • Can't get DataGridView to refresh over Linq to SQL (WinForm)

    - by GringoFrenzy
    Very strange situation here: I'm using L2S to populate a DataGridView. Code follows: private void RefreshUserGrid() { var UserQuery = from userRecord in this.DataContext.tblUsers orderby userRecord.DisplayName select userRecord; UsersGridView.DataSource = UserQuery; //I have also tried //this.UserBindingSource.DataSource = UserQuery; //UsersGridView.Datasource = UserBindingSource; UsersGridView.Columns[0].Visible = false; } Whenever I use L2S to Add/Delete records from the database, the GridView refreshes perfectly well. However, if someone is editing the grid and makes a mistake, I want them to be able to hit a refresh button and have their mistakes erased by reloading from the datasource. For the life of me, I can't get it to work. The code I am currently using on my refresh button is this: private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { this.DataContext.Refresh(RefreshMode.OverwriteCurrentValues); RefreshUserGrid(); } But the damn GridView remains unaffected. All that happens is the selected row becomes unselected. I have tried .Refresh(), .Invalidate(), I've tried changing the DataSource to NULL and back again (all suggestions from similar posts here)....none of it works. The only time the Grid refreshes is if I restart the app. I must be missing something fundamental, but I'm totally stumped and so are my colleagues. Any ideas? Thanks!

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  • Java data structure suggestion.

    - by techoverflow
    Hi folks, I am a newbie in this field so please excuse my silly mistakes :) So the issue I am facing is: On my webpage, I am displaying a table. For now my issue is concerned with three columns of the table. First is : Area Code Second is : Zone Code Third is: Value The relationship between these three is: 1 Area Code has 6 different Zone code's and all those 6 Zone codes have corresponding "Value" I need a data structer that would give me the flexibility to get a "Value" for a Zone code, which falls under a particular Area code. I have the same zone codes for all the Area codes: Zone codes are: 111, 222, 333, 444, 555, 666 After surfing your stackoverflow, I thought I can go with this structure: Map<Integer, Map<Integer, Double>> retailPrices = new HashMap<Integer, Map<Integer, Double>>(); Map<Integer, Double> codes = new HashMap<Integer, Double>(); where reatailPrices would hold an Area Code and a Map of Zone code as Key and "Value" as Value. but when I am trying to populate this through a SQL resultset, I am getting the following error: The method put(Integer, Map<Integer,Double>) in the type Map is not applicable for the arguments (Integer, Double) on line: `while(oResult.next()) retailPrices.put((new Integer(oResult.getString("AREA"))), (pegPlPrices.put(new Integer(oResult.getString("ZONE_CODE")), new Double(oResult.getString("VALUE"))))); }` please help me figure out this problem. Am I following the right approach?

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  • JQuery Bind click event to appended element with an argument

    - by Gabor Szauer
    Hi guys, I'm trying to populate a ul list with some li elements and give each li element a link that calls the same function with a different argument. However it doesn't seem to work, i've attached the code below, CheckForNewMail is called on document load. Can anyone please help me out? function CheckForNewMail() { ////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// // This will be dynamic MailInInbox[0] = new Array("0", "Mail One"); MailInInbox[1] = new Array("12", "Mail Two"); MailInInbox[2] = new Array("32", "Mail Three"); MailInInbox[3] = new Array("5", "Mail Four"); ////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// $('#mail-in-inbox').children().remove(); size = 4; element = $('#mail-in-inbox'); for(i = 0; i < size; ++i) { var link = $('<a href="#" class="inbox-link">'+ MailInInbox[i][1] +'</a>'); link.live('click', function() { LoadMailById(i); }); li = $('<li></li>'); li.append(link); element.append(li); } } function LoadMailById(id) { alert("Button "+ id +" clicked!"); }

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  • JQuery SelectList Option Changed doesn't refresh

    - by Jean-Philippe
    Hi. I have this select list: <select url="/Admin/SubCategories" name="TopParentId" id="ParentList"> <option value="">Please select a parent category</option> <option value="1" selected="selected">New Store</option> <option value="2">Extensions</option> <option value="3">Remodel</option> <option value="4">Bespoke Signage</option> <option value="5">Tactical Signage</option> <option value="6">Size Chart</option> <option value="7">Contact Info</option> </select> As you can see the option 1 is marked as selected. When I change the selection, I use this code to do an ajax call to get some values to populate a new select list: $("#ParentList").unbind("change"); $("#ParentList").change(function() { var itemId = $(this).val(); var url = $(this).attr("url"); var options; $.getJSON(url, itemId, function(data) { var defaultoption = '<option value="0">Please select a sub-category</option>'; options += defaultoption; $.each(data, function(index, optionData) { var option = '<option value="' + optionData.valueOf + '">' + optionData.Text + '</option>'; options += option; }); $("#SubParentList").html(options); }); }); My problem is that whenever I change the selection, the itemId is always the id of option 1, because it is marked as selected. It doesn't pick up the value of the option it is being changed too. Can someone please enlighten me of their knowledge. Regards, Jean-Philippe

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  • How to take html markup from a string and escape it to work within a script?

    - by zac
    I am using wordpress as a CMS and trying to allow user fields to be input to populate the info windows in a Google Map script. I am using this to select the id and pull in the content from a custom field : $post_id = 222; $my_post = get_post($post_id); $snip = get_post_meta($post_id, 'custom-field', true); $permalink = get_permalink( $post_id ); $pass_to = '<div class="content">'.$snip.'</div><div class="moreLink"><a href="'.$permalink.'">Find out more » </a></div></div>'; var point = new GLatLng('<?php echo $lat; $lat; ?>','<?php echo $long; $long; ?>'); var marker = createMarker(point,"<?php echo $mapTitle; $mapTitle; ?>", '<?php echo $pass_to; ?>') map.addOverlay(marker); It works fine unless there is any html in the custom-field which breaks the script. I looked at htmlspcialchar and htmlentities but rather than strip everything out I would like to have it escaped so it still works and the html is intact. Any suggestions? I am pretty new to PHP and would really appreciate any pointers.

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  • Problem with "moveable-only types" in VC++ 2010

    - by Luc Touraille
    I recently installed Visual Studio 2010 Professional RC to try it out and test the few C++0x features that are implemented in VC++ 2010. I instantiated a std::vector of std::unique_ptr, without any problems. However, when I try to populate it by passing temporaries to push_back, the compiler complains that the copy constructor of unique_ptr is private. I tried inserting an lvalue by moving it, and it works just fine. #include <utility> #include <vector> int main() { typedef std::unique_ptr<int> int_ptr; int_ptr pi(new int(1)); std::vector<int_ptr> vec; vec.push_back(std::move(pi)); // OK vec.push_back(int_ptr(new int(2)); // compiler error } As it turns out, the problem is neither unique_ptr nor vector::push_back but the way VC++ resolves overloads when dealing with rvalues, as demonstrated by the following code: struct MoveOnly { MoveOnly() {} MoveOnly(MoveOnly && other) {} private: MoveOnly(const MoveOnly & other); }; void acceptRValue(MoveOnly && mo) {} int main() { acceptRValue(MoveOnly()); // Compiler error } The compiler complains that the copy constructor is not accessible. If I make it public, the program compiles (even though the copy constructor is not defined). Did I misunderstand something about rvalue references, or is it a (possibly known) bug in VC++ 2010 implementation of this feature?

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  • How to Inserting message into View that depends on session value. ASP.NET MVC. Best practice

    - by Andrew Florko
    User have to populate multistep questionnaire web-forms and step messages depend on the option chosen by user at the very beginning. Messages are stored in web.config file. I use asp.net mvc project, strong typed views and keep business logic separated from controller in static class. I don't want to make business logic dependency on web.config. Well, I have to insert message into view that depends on session value. There are at least 2 options how to implement this: View model has property that is populated in controller/businessLogic and rendered in view like <%: Model.HelpMessage1 %>. I have to pass web.config values from controller to businessLogic that makes business logic methods signature too complex. I don't want to make configuration source abstract (in order to let business logic read configuration values from its methods directly) also. Create static helper class that is called from view like <%: ViewHelper.HelpMessage1(Model.Option1) %>. But in this case logic what to show seems to be separated into two classes: business logic & viewHelper. What will you suggest? Thank you in advance!

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