Search Results

Search found 18424 results on 737 pages for 'load balance'.

Page 267/737 | < Previous Page | 263 264 265 266 267 268 269 270 271 272 273 274 | Next Page >

Experiences in Upgrading from Exchange 2003 to Exchange 2010

- by gWaldo

I'm currently running Exchange 2003 SP2 Cluster on a Server 2003 AD Forest (in native 2003 mode), and we beginning to plan the upgrade to Server 2008 AD and Exchange 2010. We have two main sites, one middle-sized office, and a couple of smaller sites which have DCs (which may be RODCs after the upgrade). Currently all of our Exchange cluster is in my main site, but we are considering using the new datastore paradigm for load-balance/failover at the other large site, but this is not set in stone. Right now we are in the information-gathering and planning phases. I am looking for input of any gotchas experienced while performing either upgrade, but especially the Exchange upgrade. Gotchas? What surprised you? What wasn't documented? What said one thing but was misleading? (Confusing either in content or severity.) What is great or horrible about the new system? What worked well? What worked poorly? If you were to do it over again...? (I know that this isn't so much a question that can be definitively answered, but I'm happy to reward insight and useful resources (not the Microsoft documentation, but Blogposts are welcome) with upvotes.) UPDATE A couple items of note: -We are not currently using OWA (currently only the admins), but it may become more of a consideration with iOS devices. -We do have a small number of Blackberries in the environment (< 10%). -In addition to the standard Exchange connectors, we have a third-party connector for Captaris RightFax integration.

Read the article
I have got this error : Failed to create InitialContext using factory specified in hashtable

- by user85121

I just want to add a servlet in web.xml, like this : <servlet> <display-name>AxisJMSServlet</display-name> <servlet-name>JMSListener</servlet-name> <servlet-class>com.sinosoft.prpall.web.jms.JMSListenServlet</servlet-class> <load-on-startup>110</load-on-startup> </servlet> Everything is just fine, and when i started my programs, I got this : javax.naming.NoInitialContextException: Failed to create InitialContext using factory specified in hashtable [Root exception is java.lang.NullPointerException] at javax.naming.spi.NamingManager.getInitialContext(NamingManager.java:258) at javax.naming.InitialContext.initializeDefaultInitCtx(InitialContext.java:318) at javax.naming.InitialContext.getDefaultInitCtx(InitialContext.java:348) at javax.naming.InitialContext.internalInit(InitialContext.java:286) at javax.naming.InitialContext.<init>(InitialContext.java:211) at org.apache.axis.components.jms.JNDIVendorAdapter.getConnectionFactory(JNDIVendorAdapter.java:85) at org.apache.axis.components.jms.JNDIVendorAdapter.getQueueConnectionFactory(JNDIVendorAdapter.java:55) at org.apache.axis.transport.jms.JMSConnectorFactory.createConnector(JMSConnectorFactory.java:227) at org.apache.axis.transport.jms.JMSConnectorFactory.createServerConnector(JMSConnectorFactory.java:156) at com.sinosoft.prpall.web.jms.JMSListenServlet.init(JMSListenServlet.java:60) at javax.servlet.GenericServlet.init(GenericServlet.java:241) at weblogic.servlet.internal.StubSecurityHelper$ServletInitAction.run(StubSecurityHelper.java:283) at weblogic.security.acl.internal.AuthenticatedSubject.doAs(AuthenticatedSubject.java:321) at weblogic.security.service.SecurityManager.runAs(SecurityManager.java:120) at weblogic.servlet.internal.StubSecurityHelper.createServlet(StubSecurityHelper.java:64) at weblogic.servlet.internal.StubLifecycleHelper.createOneInstance(StubLifecycleHelper.java:58) at weblogic.servlet.internal.StubLifecycleHelper.<init>(StubLifecycleHelper.java:48) at weblogic.servlet.internal.ServletStubImpl.prepareServlet(ServletStubImpl.java:539) at weblogic.servlet.internal.WebAppServletContext.preloadServlet(WebAppServletContext.java:1981) at weblogic.servlet.internal.WebAppServletContext.loadServletsOnStartup(WebAppServletContext.java:1955) at weblogic.servlet.internal.WebAppServletContext.preloadResources(WebAppServletContext.java:1874) Can anybody tell me what is going on ?

Read the article
Caching and accessing configuration data in ASP.NET MVC app.

- by Sosh

I'm about to take a look at how to implement internationalisation for an ASP.NET MVC project. I'm looking at how to allow the user to change languages. My initial though is a dropdownlist containing each of the supported langauages. Whoever a few questions have come to mind: How to store the list of supported languages? (e.g. just "en", "English"; "fr", "French" etc.) An xml file? .config files? If I store this in a file I'll have to cache this (at startup I guess). So, what would be best, load the xml data into a list (somehow) and store this list in the System.Web.Cache? Application State? How then to load this data into the view (for display in a dropdown)? Give the view direct access to the cache? Just want to make sure I'm going in the right direction here... Thank you.

Read the article
How do I setup NInject? (i.e.

- by Greg

Hi, I'm getting confused in the doco how I should be setting up Ninject. I'm seeing different ways of doing it, some v2 versus v1 confusion probably included... Question - What is the best way in my WinForms application to set things up for NInject (i.e. what are the few lines of code required). I'm assuming this would go into the MainForm Load method. In other words what code do I have to have prior to getting to: Bind<IWeapon>().To<Sword>(); I have the following code, so effectively I just want to get clarification on the setup and bind code that would be required in my MainForm.Load() to end up with a concrete Samurai instance? internal interface IWeapon { void Hit(string target); } class Sword : IWeapon { public void Hit(string target) { Console.WriteLine("Chopped {0} clean in half", target); } } class Samurai { private IWeapon _weapon; [Inject] public Samurai(IWeapon weapon) { _weapon = weapon; } public void Attack(string target) { _weapon.Hit(target); } } thanks

Read the article
XamlReader.Parse throws exception on empty String

- by sub-jp

In our app, we need to save properties of objects to the same database table regardless of the type of object, in the form of propertyName, propertyValue, propertyType. We decided to use XamlWriter to save all of the given object's properties. We then use XamlReader to load up the XAML that was created, and turn it back into the value for the property. This works fine for the most part, except for empty strings. The XamlWriter will save an empty string as below. <String xmlns="clr-namespace:System;assembly=mscorlib" xml:space="preserve" /> The XamlReader sees this string and tries to create a string, but can't find an empty constructor in the String object to use, so it throws a ParserException. The only workaround that I can think of is to not actually save the property if it is an empty string. Then, as I load up the properties, I can check for which ones did not exist, which means they would have been empty strings. Is there some workaround for this, or is there even a better way of doing this?

Read the article
Problem with Deploying a ASP.NET MVC Project on a IIS 7.0. BadImageFormatException

- by Markus

Hello world, I am stuck with my web application. As known from the title its a ASP.NET MVC(1,0) application so i do the only 2 things that a needed do deploy a application like this. I made a build an copied it to the IIS Folder. In the IDE (VS2008) all works fine :(. This worked a long time. But know i get a error for my included dll of a other project. (I have a German version so the Error is Translated from google sry for that) BadImageFormatException: File or assembly 'DataService.WebInterface.BusinessLogic "or one of its dependencies was not found. An attempt was made to load a file with an incorrect format.] System.Reflection.Assembly._nLoad (AssemblyName fileName, String codeBase, Evidence assemblySecurity, Assembly locationHint, StackCrawlMark & stackMark, throwOnFileNotFound Boolean, Boolean forIntrospection) +0 System.Reflection.Assembly.InternalLoad (AssemblyName assemblyRef, Evidence assemblySecurity, StackCrawlMark & stackMark, Boolean forIntrospection) +416 System.Reflection.Assembly.InternalLoad (String String assemblyName, Evidence assemblySecurity, StackCrawlMark & stackMark, Boolean forIntrospection) +166 System.Reflection.Assembly.Load (String string assemblyName) +35 System.Web.Configuration.CompilationSection.LoadAssemblyHelper (String assemblyName, Boolean starDirective) +190 What does that mean? Is the File corrupted or do i have to change the web.config? Thank your for your support!

Read the article
Exception handling in biztalk 2006 R2

- by IB

Hello I have a Biztalk 2006 R2 project (used with ESB Guidance 1) I am calling from orchstration to a static method in c# code, this method uses a class to load a file data into xlang message body at part 0 When i pass filepath which doesnt exists the inside class catch the exception but dont throw it up (in the static method there is a catch block and in the orchstration there is the real handling of the exception) The static method is : public static XLANGMessage LoadFileIntoMessage(XLANGMessage message, string filePath,Encoding encoding) { try { IStreamFactory sf = new FileStreamFactory(filePath,encoding); message[0].LoadFrom(sf); return message; } catch (Exception ex) { throw ex; } } The Class which load the file stream is : private class FileStreamFactory : IStreamFactory { string _fname; Encoding _encoding; public FileStreamFactory(string fname,Encoding encoding) { _fname = fname; _encoding = encoding; } public Stream CreateStream() { try { StreamReader sr; sr = new StreamReader ( _fname, _encoding ); return sr.BaseStream; } catch (Exception ex) { throw ex; } } } I call the static method from the orchstration and expect to catch the exception in my orchstration after the class and the emthod gets it

Read the article
Help with my PHP template class

- by blerh

I want to separate the output of HTML from my program code in my projects, so I wrote a very simple database class. <?php class Template { private $template; function load($filePath) { if(!$this->template = file_get_contents($filePath)) $this->error('Error: Failed to open <strong>' . $filePath . '</strong>'); } function replace($var, $content) { $this->template = str_replace("{$var}", $content, $this->template); } function display() { echo $this->template; } function error($errorMessage) { die('die() by template class: <strong>' . $errorMessage . '</strong>'); } } ?> The thing I need help with is the display() method. Say for example I use this code: $tplObj = new Template(); $tplObj->load('index.php'); $tplObj->replace('{TITLE}', 'Homepage'); $tplObj->display(); And the index.php file is this: <html> <head> <title>{TITLE}</title> </head> <body> <h1>{TITLE}</h1> <?php if($something) { echo '$something is true'; } else { echo '$something is false'; } ?> </body> </html> I'm just wondering if the PHP code in there would be run? Or would it just be sent to the browser as plaintext? I was using eval() in my template class but I hate that function :P Thanks.

Read the article
Setting nested object to null when selected option has empty value

- by Javi

Hello, I have a Class which models a User and another which models his country. Something like this: public class User{ private Country country; //other attributes and getter/setters } public class Country{ private Integer id; private String name; //other attributes and getter/setters } I have a Spring form where I have a combobox so the user can select his country or can select the undefined option to indicate he doen't want to provide this information. So I have something like this: <form:select path="country"> <form:option value="">-Select one-</form:option> <form:options items="${countries}" itemLabel="name" itemValue="id"/> </form:select> In my controller I get the autopopulated object with the user information and I want to have country set to null when the "-Select one-" option has been selected. So I have set a initBinder with a custom editor like this: @InitBinder protected void initBinder(WebDataBinder binder) throws ServletException { binder.registerCustomEditor(Country.class, "country", new CustomCountryEditor()); } and my editor do something like this: public class CustomCountryEditor(){ @Override public String getAsText() { //I return the Id of the country } @Override public void setAsText(String str) { //I search in the database for a country with id = new Integer(str) //and set country to that value //or I set country to null in case str == null } } When I submit the form it works because when I have country set to null when I have selected "-Select one-" option or the instance of the country selected. The problem is that when I load the form I have a method like the following one to load the user information. @ModelAttribute("user") public User getUser(){ //loads user from database } The object I get from getUser() has country set to a specific country (not a null value), but in the combobox is not selected any option. I've debugged the application and the CustomCountryEditor works good when setting and getting the text, thoughgetAsText method is called for every item in the list "countries" not only for the "country" field. Any idea? Is there a better way to set null the country object when I select no country option in the combobox? Thanks

Read the article
What is the best way to deserialize generics written with a different version of a signed assembly?

- by Rick Minerich

In other cases it has been suggested that you simply add a SerializationBinder which removes the version from the assembly type. However, when using generic collections of a type found in a signed assembly, that type is strictly versioned based on its assembly. Here is what I've found works. internal class WeaklyNamedAssemblyBinder : SerializationBinder { public override Type BindToType(string assemblyName, string typeName) { ResolveEventHandler handler = new ResolveEventHandler(CurrentDomain_AssemblyResolve); AppDomain.CurrentDomain.AssemblyResolve += handler; Type returnedType; try { AssemblyName asmName = new AssemblyName(assemblyName); var assembly = Assembly.Load(asmName); returnedType = assembly.GetType(typeName); } catch { returnedType = null; } finally { AppDomain.CurrentDomain.AssemblyResolve -= handler; } return returnedType; } Assembly CurrentDomain_AssemblyResolve(object sender, ResolveEventArgs args) { string truncatedAssemblyName = args.Name.Split(',')[0]; Assembly assembly = Assembly.Load(truncatedAssemblyName); return assembly; } } However, causing the binding process to change globally seems rather dangerous to me. Strange things could happen if serialization was happening in multiple threads. Perhaps a better solution is to do some regex manipulation of the typeName? What do you think?

Read the article
How do I simulate the usage of a sequence of web pages?

- by Rory Becker

I have a simple sequence of web pages written in ASP.Net 3.5 SP1. Page1 - A Logon Form.... txtUsername, txtPassword and cmdLogon Page2 - A Menu (created using DevExpress ASP.Net controls) Page3 - The page redirected to by the server in the event that the user picks the right menu option in Page2 I would like to create a threaded program to simulate many users trying to use this sequence of pages. I have managed to create a host Winforms app which Launches a new thread for each "User" I have further managed to work out the basics of WebRequest enough to perform a request which retrieves the Logon page itself. Dim Request As HttpWebRequest = TryCast(WebRequest.Create("http://MyURL/Logon.aspx"), HttpWebRequest) Dim Response As HttpWebResponse = TryCast(Request.GetResponse(), HttpWebResponse) Dim ResponseStream As StreamReader = New StreamReader(Response.GetResponseStream(), Encoding.GetEncoding(1252)) Dim HTMLResponse As String = ResponseStream.ReadToEnd() Response.Close() ResponseStream.Close() Next I need to simulate the user having entered information into the 2 TextBoxes and pressing logon.... I have a hunch this requires me to add the right sort of "PostData" to the request. before submitting. However I'm also concerned that "ViewState" may be an issue. Am I correct regarding the PostData? How do I add the postData to the request? Do I need to be concerned about Viewstate? Update: While I appreciate that Selenium or similar products are useful for acceptance testing , I find that they are rather clumsy for what amounts to load testing. I would prefer not to load 100 instances of Firefox or IE in order to simulate 100 users hitting my site. This was the reason I was hoping to take the ASPNet HttpWebRequest route.

Read the article
using the ASP.NET Caching API via method annotations in C#

- by craigmoliver

In C#, is it possible to decorate a method with an annotation to populate the cache object with the return value of the method? Currently I'm using the following class to cache data objects: public class SiteCache { // 7 days + 6 hours (offset to avoid repeats peak time) private const int KeepForHours = 174; public static void Set(string cacheKey, Object o) { if (o != null) HttpContext.Current.Cache.Insert(cacheKey, o, null, DateTime.Now.AddHours(KeepForHours), TimeSpan.Zero); } public static object Get(string cacheKey) { return HttpContext.Current.Cache[cacheKey]; } public static void Clear(string sKey) { HttpContext.Current.Cache.Remove(sKey); } public static void Clear() { foreach (DictionaryEntry item in HttpContext.Current.Cache) { Clear(item.Key.ToString()); } } } In methods I want to cache I do this: [DataObjectMethod(DataObjectMethodType.Select)] public static SiteSettingsInfo SiteSettings_SelectOne_Name(string Name) { var ck = string.Format("SiteSettings_SelectOne_Name-Name_{0}-", Name.ToLower()); var dt = (DataTable)SiteCache.Get(ck); if (dt == null) { dt = new DataTable(); dt.Load(ModelProvider.SiteSettings_SelectOne_Name(Name)); SiteCache.Set(ck, dt); } var info = new SiteSettingsInfo(); foreach (DataRowView dr in dt.DefaultView) info = SiteSettingsInfo_Load(dr); return info; } Is it possible to separate those concerns like so: (notice the new annotation) [CacheReturnValue] [DataObjectMethod(DataObjectMethodType.Select)] public static SiteSettingsInfo SiteSettings_SelectOne_Name(string Name) { var dt = new DataTable(); dt.Load(ModelProvider.SiteSettings_SelectOne_Name(Name)); var info = new SiteSettingsInfo(); foreach (DataRowView dr in dt.DefaultView) info = SiteSettingsInfo_Load(dr); return info; }

Read the article
Using MEF with exporting project that uses resources (xml) contained in the xap.

- by JSmyth

I'm doing a proof of concept app in SL4 using MEF and as part of the app I am importing another xap from an existing Silverlight Project and displaying it in my host project. The problem is that the existing app uses some .xml files (as content) and it uses linq2xml to load these files which are (assumed to be) bundled in the xap. When I compose the application the initalization fails because the host app doesn't contain the xml files. If I copy these xml files into the host project and run it the composition works fine. However, I need to keep the xml files in the original project. Is there a way that I can download a xap and look at it's contents for xml files and then load them into the host xap at runtime so that after the compostion takes place the xml resources that are required can be found? Or should I work out some kind of contract with an import/export to pass the xml files to the host xap? As the people developing the imported xaps (should the project go ahead) are from a different company, I would like to keep changes to the way they develop their apps to a minimum.

Read the article
Pass Variable to Java Method from an Ant Target

- by user200317

At the moment I have a .properties file to store settings related to the framework. Example: default.auth.url=http://someserver-at008:8080/ default.screenshots=false default.dumpHTML=false And I have written a class to extract those values and here is the method of that class. public static String getResourceAsStream(String defaultProp) { String defaultPropValue = null; //String keys = null; try { InputStream inputStream = SeleniumDefaultProperties.class.getClassLoader().getResourceAsStream(PROP_FILE); Properties properties = new Properties(); //load the input stream using properties. properties.load(inputStream); defaultPropValue = properties.getProperty(defaultProp); }catch (IOException e) { log.error("Something wrong with .properties file, check the location.", e); } return defaultPropValue; } Throughout the application I use method like follows to just exact property needed, public String getBrowserDefaultCommand() { String bcmd = SeleniumDefaultProperties.getResourceAsStream("default.browser.command"); if(bcmd.equals("")) handleMissingConfigProperties(SeleniumDefaultProperties.getResourceAsStream("default.browser.command")); return bcmd; } But I have not decided do a change to this and use ant and pass a parameter instead of using it from .properties file. I was wondering how could I pass a value to a Java Method using ANT. Non of these classes have Main methods and will not have any main. Due to this I was unable to use it as a java system properties. Thanks in advance.

Read the article
Apache HTTP and WEblogic Plug-in Location Directive question

- by user275633

All, We are using Weblogic Portal and Apache 2.x http server with the weblogic plug-in for apache for load-balancing. We have an application that right now can only be accessed from one of our managed servers. What I would like to do is us the Location directive to direct all requests for that page to the one managed server and I can't get it to work. The context that the portal tries to forward to is something like /MyWebApp?portalusername= (where equals a legitimate user. For example /MyWebApp?portalusername=joesmith All other applications and the plug-in is load balancing as expected because every now and then you'll get sent to teh second managed server for this particular application and its not deployed. I tried various things in the apache http.conf like the following but can't seem to get it work? Any suggestions? The followign is a snippet of the httpd.conf: (Note formatting did not come thru properly but it is formatted correctly in my httpd.conf) Blockquote Location /MyWebApp SetHandler weblogic-handler WebLogicCluster myserver:7011 Location Blockquote Location / SetHandler weblogic-handler WebLogicCluster myserver:7011, myserver2:7012 Location Thanks in advance.

Read the article
Personal Cache vs Memcache?

- by Kerry

I have a personal caching class, which can be seen here ( based off WordPress' ): http://pastie.org/988427 I recently learned about memcache and it said to memcache EVERYTHING: http://highscalability.com/blog/2010/5/17/7-lessons-learned-while-building-reddit-to-270-million-page.html My first thought was just to keep my class with the current functions and make it use memcache instead -- is there any downside to doing this? The main difference I see is that memcache stays on with the server from page to page, while mine is for 1 page load. The problem I see arising, and this is with any system, is that they're dynamic. They change all the time. Whether its search results, visible products, etc. etc. If it's all cached, won't the create a problem? Is there a way to handle this? Obviously if something is bringing back the same results everytime it would be cached, but that's why I was doing it on a per page load basis. I'm sure there is a way to handle this, or is the cache time usually set between 5 minutes and an hour?

Read the article
AS3 URLRequest in for Loop problem

- by Adrian

Hi guys, I read some data from a xml file, everything works great besides urls. I can't figure what's the problem with the "navigateURL" function or with the eventListener... on which square I click it opens the last url from the xml file for(var i:Number = 0; i <= gamesInput.game.length() -1; i++) { var square:square_mc = new square_mc(); //xml values var tGame_name:String = gamesInput.game.name.text()[i];//game name var tGame_id:Number = gamesInput.children()[i].attributes()[2].toXMLString();//game id var tGame_thumbnail:String = thumbPath + gamesInput.game.thumbnail.text()[i];//thumb path var tGame_url:String = gamesInput.game.url.text()[i];//game url addChild(square); square.tgname_txt.text = tGame_name; square.tgurl_txt.text = tGame_url; //load & attach game thumb var getThumb:URLRequest = new URLRequest(tGame_thumbnail); var loadThumb:Loader = new Loader(); loadThumb.load(getThumb); square.addChild(loadThumb); // square.y = squareY; square.x = squareX; squareX += square.width + 10; square.buttonMode = true; this.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, navigateURL); } function navigateURL(event:MouseEvent):void { var url:URLRequest = new URLRequest(tGame_url); navigateToURL(url, "_blank"); trace(tGame_url); } Many thanks!

Read the article
How to override the default init.tcl

- by Sean Murphy

I'm working on a project where I want to make use of TCL as the command interpreter. I have a working c library object which I can load from within the tcl shell but my problem is finding a way to automatically do this while starting a tclsh. Essentially my ultimate goal is to be able to run a script and have it load my library and run some initial startup tcl code before dropping me back to the tclsh command prompt in interactive mode. e.g. tclsh -f myscript.tcl --then-switch-to-interactive or EXPORT TCLINIT=myscript.tcl tclsh The basic goal is to avoid having to distribute tclsh but rather rely in local user installations of tcl. All I would like to distribute is my library, a startup script and a shell command to launch the tclsh with the library preloaded. I've tried using the environment variables TCLINIT and TCL_LIBRARY but they seem to have no effect. The only workable solutions I've found so far are to add "source myscript.tcl" to either the end of /usr/share/tcltk/tcl8.5.init.tcl or ~/.tclshrc However both of these "solutions" are non perfect as they require modification of the default users workspace. It strikes me that there must be a way to handle this in TCL, but my research so far hasn't yielded anything. Does anyone have any suggestions?

Read the article
C# How to perform a live xslt transformation on an in memory object?

- by JL

I have a function that takes 2 parameters : 1 = XML file, 2 = XSLT file, then performs a transformation and returns the resulting HTML. Here is the function: /// <summary> /// Will apply an XSLT style to any XML file and return the rendered HTML. /// </summary> /// <param name="xmlFileName"> /// The file name of the XML document. /// </param> /// <param name="xslFileName"> /// The file name of the XSL document. /// </param> /// <returns> /// The rendered HTML. /// </returns> public string TransformXml(string xmlFileName, string xslFileName) { var xtr = new XmlTextReader(xmlFileName) { WhitespaceHandling = WhitespaceHandling.None }; var xd = new XmlDocument(); xd.Load(xtr); var xslt = new System.Xml.Xsl.XslCompiledTransform(); xslt.Load(xslFileName); var stm = new MemoryStream(); xslt.Transform(xd, null, stm); stm.Position = 1; var sr = new StreamReader(stm); xtr.Close(); return sr.ReadToEnd(); } I want to change the function not to accept a file for the XML, but instead just an object. The object is exactly compatible with the xslt, if it was serialized to file. But I don't want to have to serialize it to a file first. So to recap : keep the xslt coming from a file, but the xml input should an object I pass and would like to generate the xml from without any file system interaction.

Read the article
Codeigniter common templates

- by Darthg8r

Let's say that I have a website that has 100 different pages. Each page uses a common header and footer. Inside the header is some dynamic content that comes from a database. I'd like to avoid having to have code in every single controller and action that passes this common code into the view. function index() { // It sucks to have to include this on every controller action. data['title'] = "This is the index page"; data['currentUserName'] = "John Smith"; $this->load->view("main_view", data); } function comments() { // It sucks to have to include this on every controller action. data['title'] = "Comment list"; data['currentUserName'] = "John Smith"; $this->load->view("comment_view", data); } I realize that I could refactor the code so that the common parts are in a single function and the function is called by the action. Doing so would reduce SOME of the pain, but it still doesn't feel right since I'd still have to make a call to that function every time. What's the correct way to handle this?

Read the article
java.security.AccessControlException : access denied (java.util.PropertyPermission http.agent read)

- by Stefano Borini

I have a non-signed java applet interacting with the same host. Every time I click on an element in my page, the applet (which is a third part applet I have no control on) should load data from a URL. I say should, because for some files, I get java.security.AccessControlException : access denied (java.util.PropertyPermission http.agent read) and some other files are correctly loaded. All files are correctly readable and downloadable from the web server, and they are very simple text files. I also found that, in some cases, files that previously returned the error are now loaded and continue to load, so it seems a cache is involved somehow. Does any of you have an idea of what's going on here ? The behavior seems to be absolutely random, and I have no way of performing debug on this thing. Note: I used this applet to perform many other "single shot" file access, and it never gave me any problem. The only apparent difference I have is that now I do it "on-demand" via a javascript event. What could be the cause, in the java of the applet or anywhere else ?

Read the article
Are dots legal in the name property of an HTML button

- by justSteve

a page with a bit of MVC code: <%=Html.SubmitButton("ChooseWebinar.Submit", "Continue to Registration Details")%><br/> that generates an input button where the '.' is embedded in the name: [rendered html] At page load this control (the submit button) is hidden - when one of two different dropdowns registers a value, the button is shown: function toggleChooseWebinarSubmit() { if ($("#ChooseWebinar_RecordedWebinarId").val() || $("#ChooseWebinar_UpcomingWebinarId").val()) { $("#ChooseWebinar_Submit").show(); } else { $("#ChooseWebinar_Submit").hide(); } I've just received a report from an IE8 user who says that after selecting a value in a dropdown, the button is _not displaying. I can't reproduce the condition (i've tried compatibility mode too). Obviously the show/hide is targeting the 'ID' selector but i can't help but wonder about that period in the control's name. Any known issues? - or perhaps the .change is problematic and the toggle's never getting called: $(window).load(function() { toggleChooseWebinarSubmit(); $("#ChooseWebinar_UpcomingWebinarId").change(function() { if ($(this).val()) { $("#ChooseWebinar_RecordedWebinarId").val(""); } toggleChooseWebinarSubmit(); }); $("#ChooseWebinar_RecordedWebinarId").change(function() { if ($(this).val()) { $("#ChooseWebinar_UpcomingWebinarId").val(""); } toggleChooseWebinarSubmit(); }); }); thx

Read the article
PHP (CodeIgniter) Pass Object Through Session

- by FranticPedantic

I am using PHP5 and CodeIgniter and I am trying to implement a single-sign on feature with facebook (although I don't think that facebook is relevant to the question). I am somewhat of a novice with PHP and definitely one with CodeIgniter, so if you think my approach is just completely off telling me that would be helpful too. So here is in short what I am doing: //Controller 1 $this->load->plugin("facebook"); $facebook = new Facebook(array ( 'appId' => $fbconfig['appid'], 'secret' => $fbconfig['secret'], 'cookie' => true, ) ); $fbsession = $facebook->getSession(); //works fine $this->session->set_userdata('facebook', serialize($facebook); Now I would like to grab that facebook object in a different controller. //Controller 2 $facebook = unserialize($this->session->userdata('facebook')); $fbsession = $facebook->getSession(); Produces the error: Call to undefined method getSession. So I look up more about serialization and think that maybe it just doesn't know what the facebook object's attributes are. So I add in a $this->load->plugin('facebook'); To controller 2 as well and I get a "Cannot redeclare class facebook." I am strongly suspecting that I am misunderstanding sessions here. Do I have to somehow tell PHP what kind of object it is? Thanks for the help.

Read the article
proper use of volatile keyword

- by luke

I think i have a pretty good idea about the volatile keyword in java, but i'm thinking about re-factoring some code and i thought it would be a good idea to use it. i have a class that is basically working as a DB Cache. it holds a bunch of objects that it has read from a database, serves requests for those objects, and then occasionally refreshes the database (based on a timeout). Heres the skeleton public class Cache { private HashMap mappings =....; private long last_update_time; private void loadMappingsFromDB() { //.... } private void checkLoad() { if(System.currentTimeMillis() - last_update_time > TIMEOUT) loadMappingsFromDB(); } public Data get(ID id) { checkLoad(); //.. look it up } } So the concern is that loadMappingsFromDB could be a high latency operation and thats not acceptable, So initially i thought that i could spin up a thread on cache startup and then just have it sleep and then update the cache in the background. But then i would need to synchronize my class (or the map). and then i would just be trading an occasional big pause for making every cache access slower. Then i thought why not use volatile i could define the map reference as volatile private volatile HashMap mappings =....; and then in get (or anywhere else that uses the mappings variable) i would just make a local copy of the reference: public Data get(ID id) { HashMap local = mappings; //.. look it up using local } and then the background thread would just load into a temp table and then swap the references in the class HashMap tmp; //load tmp from DB mappings = tmp;//swap variables forcing write barrier Does this approach make sense? and is it actually thread-safe?

Read the article
google maps not showing actual map and postcode

- by Andy

Im trying to pass a dynamically generated postode to a page. But currently its not showing the map correctly. Any ideas? Heres my head tag <script src="http://www.google.com/jsapi?key=ABQIAAAANQzcZVPOkiHWMZO3zxREGRSlIja3KBL7jZ08tky_uJrV3vVYdxTCwTHJPA2Vn06DLdnCWvRW_w7VYQ" type="text/javascript"></script> <script language="Javascript" type="text/javascript"> var localSearch; var map; var icon; var addressMarkerOptions; google.load("search", "1"); google.load("maps", "2"); google.setOnLoadCallback(initialize); function initialize() { localSearch = new GlocalSearch(); icon = new GIcon(G_DEFAULT_ICON); addressMarkerOptions = { icon:icon , draggable: false}; map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map")); map.addControl(new GLargeMapControl()); map.addControl(new GMapTypeControl()); plotAddress("OX4 1FJ"); } /** * This takes either a postcode or an address string * */ function plotAddress(address) { localSearch.setSearchCompleteCallback(null, function() { if (localSearch.results[0]) { var resultLat = localSearch.results[0].lat; var resultLng = localSearch.results[0].lng; var point = new GLatLng(resultLat,resultLng); var marker = new GMarker(point, addressMarkerOptions); map.addOverlay(marker); map.setCenter(point, 5, G_NORMAL_MAP); } else { alert('address not found'); } }); localSearch.execute(address + ", UK"); } </script> It slots into the code below: <div id="map">Loading...</div>

Read the article

< Previous Page | 263 264 265 266 267 268 269 270 271 272 273 274 | Next Page >