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  • Entity Framework Validation & usage

    - by kmsellers
    I'm aware there is an AssociationChanged event, however, this event fires after the association is made. There is no AssociationChanging event. So, if I want to throw an exception for some validation reason, how do I do this and get back to my original value? Also, I would like to default values for my entity based on information from other entities but do this only when I know the entitiy is instanced for insertion into the database. How do I tell the difference between that and the object getting instanced because it is about to be populated based on existing data? Am I supposed to know? Is that considiered business logic that should be outside of my entity business logic? If that's the case, then should I be designing controller classes to wrap all these entities? My concern is that if I deliver back an entity, I want the client to get access to the properties, but I want to retain tight control over validations on how they are set, defaulted, etc. Every example I've seen references context, which is outside of my enity partial class validation, right? BTW, I looked at the EFPocoAdapter and for the life of me cannot determine how to populate lists of from within my POCO class... anyone know how I get to the context from a EFPoco Class?

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  • web site in pure php with clean url

    - by Testadmin
    Hi I have enabled mod_rewrite in my Xampp apache. When I run my php info page, I saw mod_rewrite under Loaded Modules. So I think it's enabled. Then I create a folder clean-url under htdocs. Inside clean-url folder I have 3 files 1) index.php here I put Welcome 2) Test. php 3) .htaccess Here I put RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^([a-z]+)/([a-z-]+)$ /$1/$2.php [L] I want to run the index page, and by clicking on that hyper link I want to display the test.php page with URL mydomain/clean-url/test I know I am in a wrong path. Does any one help me? Or correct me? ALso i don't know any idea about url rewriting and .htaccess. Please help me.

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  • Drupal 6 Validation for Form Callback Function

    - by Wade
    I have a simple form with a select menu on the node display page. Is there an easy way to validate the form in my callback function? By validation I don't mean anything advanced, just to check that the values actually existed in the form array. For example, without ajax, if my select menu has 3 items and I add a 4th item and try to submit the form, drupal will give an error saying something similar to "an illegal choice was made, please contact the admin." With ajax this 4th item you created would get saved into the database. So do I have to write validation like if ($select_item > 0 && $select_item <= 3) { //insert into db } Or is there an easier way that will check that the item actually existed in the form array? I'm hoping there is since without ajax, drupal will not submit the form if it was manipulated. Thanks. EDIT: So I basically need this in my callback function? $form_state = array('storage' => NULL, 'submitted' => FALSE); $form_build_id = $_POST['form_build_id']; $form = form_get_cache($form_build_id, $form_state); $args = $form['#parameters']; $form_id = array_shift($args); $form_state['post'] = $form['#post'] = $_POST; $form['#programmed'] = $form['#redirect'] = FALSE; drupal_process_form($form_id, $form, $form_state); To get $_POST['form_build_id'], I sent it as a data param, is that right? Where I use form_get_cache, looks like there is no data. Kind of lost now.

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  • Spring MessageSource not being used during validation

    - by Jeremy
    I can't get my messages in messages.properties to be used during Spring validation of my form backing objects. app-config.xml: <bean id="messageSource" class="org.springframework.context.support.ResourceBundleMessageSource"> <property name="basename" value="messages" /> </bean> WEB-INF/classes/messages.properties: NotEmpty=This field should not be empty. Form Backing Object: ... @NotEmpty @Size(min=6, max=25) private String password; ... When I loop through all errors in the BindingResult and output the ObjectError's toString I get this: Field error in object 'settingsForm' on field 'password': rejected value []; codes [NotEmpty.settingsForm.password,NotEmpty.password,NotEmpty.java.lang.String,NotEmpty]; arguments [org.springframework.context.support.DefaultMessageSourceResolvable: codes [settingsForm.password,password]; arguments []; default message [password]]; default message [may not be empty] As you can see the default message is "may not be empty" instead of my message "This field should not be empty". I do get my correct message if I inject the messageSource into a controller and output this: messageSource.getMessage("NotEmpty", new Object [] {"password"}, "default empty message", null); So why isn't the validation using my messages.properties? I'm running Spring 3.1.1. Thanks!

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  • Where should I put validation code?

    - by D Lawson
    I'm creating interfaces and abstract classes that represent a messaging framework for short text-based messages like SMS, email, twitter, xml, etc.. and I was wondering where I should put the message validation code. The thing is that I am only writing the superclasses and interfaces, so I'm not putting the actual implementation in, I'll just put the hooks in that allow others to validate the content of the messages. The way I see it, I could do it several ways: in the abstract superclass "Message", have an abstract method 'isValid'. A variation on this would be to have isValid be called when the Message constructor is called, throwing a MalformedMessageException if the message is formatted incorrectly. in the transport layer, immediately before sending, validate the message. I would have a send(Message) method that calls an isValid(Message) method immediately before it sends. have a singleton message validator with a static method isValid(Message) that is called at some point. I'm sure there are other options that I'm missing. Currently, I'm leaning towards the first one, but it doesn't feel right to me to have validation code in what should be a domain object.

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  • How to update attributes without validation

    - by Brian Roisentul
    I've got a model with its validations, and I found out that I can't update an attribute without validating the object before. I already tried to add on => :create syntax at the end of each validation line, but I got the same results. My announcement model have the following validations: validates_presence_of :title validates_presence_of :description validates_presence_of :announcement_type_id validate :validates_publication_date validate :validates_start_date validate :validates_start_end_dates validate :validates_category validate :validates_province validates_length_of :title, :in => 6..255, :on => :save validates_length_of :subtitle, :in => 0..255, :on => :save validates_length_of :subtitle, :in => 0..255, :on => :save validates_length_of :place, :in => 0..50, :on => :save validates_numericality_of :vacants, :greater_than_or_equal_to => 0, :only_integer => true validates_numericality_of :price, :greater_than_or_equal_to => 0, :only_integer => true My rake task does the following: task :announcements_expiration => :environment do announcements = Announcement.expired announcements.each do |a| #Gets the user that owns the announcement user = User.find(a.user_id) puts a.title + '...' a.state = 'deactivated' if a.update_attributes(:state => a.state) puts 'state changed to deactivated' else a.errors.each do |e| puts e end end end This throws all the validation exceptions for that model, in the output. Does anybody how to update an attribute without validating the model?

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  • Domain Redirection While Maintaining Original URL

    - by Steve
    I have two domains ("this_site.com" and "that_site.com") that I want to point to the same place (same set of files). BUT What I really want to do is maintain the original URL in the address bar while the visitor accesses the different pages. Example: The primary domain holding the web files is "this_site.com". If I type in "that_site.com" in the address bar, I want the address bar to keep displaying "that_site.com" no matter where they go on the web site. Normal domain redirection causes the URL displayed in the address bar to change to the 'master' domain (i.e. the visitor that typed in "that_site.com" will see the address bar's URL change to "this_site.com"). Is there some sort of .htaccess trick that I can employ to do this? What I'm trying to do is NOT confuse visitors who visit one URL and find themselves on a different URL as well as avoid the additional expense and trouble of having to maintain two separate hosting accounts.

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  • Trouble with jQuery Form Validation

    - by Sennheiser
    I'm making a form that has the following validation rules: no fields are "required", but if you enter an email, it must be valid, and if you enter a password, it must be at least 6 characters and match the confirm password field value. The form works flawlessly with no validation so I know it's not a PHP or HTML problem. Here's the jQuery code handling the form: $('#success').hide(); $('#pwerror').hide(); $('#emailError').hide(); $('#subSet').live('click',function() { //if any of the fields have a value if($("#chfn").val() != "" || $("#chln").val() != "" || $("#chpw").val() != "" || $("#chpw2").val() != "" || $("#chem").val() != "") { $ev = 1; $pv = 1; //validates an email if there is one, trips the valid variable flag if($("#chem").val() != "") { $("#profSet").validate({ rules: { chem: { email: true }, chpw: { required: false, minlength: 6 }, chpw2: { required: false, minlength: 6, equalTo: $("#chpw").val() } }, messages:{ chpw2: { equalTo: "Passwords must be the same." }, chpw: { minlength: "Password must be at least 6 characters." } } }); if(!($("#profSet").valid())) { $ev = 0; } } //if either password field is filled, start trying to validate it if($("#chpw").val() != "" || $("#chpw2").val() != "") { if(!($("#profSet").valid())) { $pv = 0; } } //if those two were valid if($pv == 1 && $ev == 1) { $.post('php/profSet.php', $('#profSet').serialize(), function(){ $('#profSet').hide(); $('#success').show(); }); } //if either was invalid, the error was already tripped, and this code exits here } }); The problem I'm having now is that the "passwords must be the same" error keeps getting triggered even if both fields are blank, or if they actually are the same. Therefore, the form cannot submit. Any help?

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  • form validation with jquery and livevalidation

    - by ImpY
    I'm trying to do some form validation with livevaldation & jquery. I've a formular with an input field like that: <div id="prenameDiv" class="control-group"> `<input id="prename" name="prename" class="input-large" placeholder="Max" >` </div> So if there's an error on validation 'livevalidaton' adds the class 'LV_invalid_field' to the input - it looks like that: <div id="prenameDiv" class="control-group"> <input id="prename" name="prename" class="input-large LV_invalid_field" placeholder="Max" > </div> That's ok, but now I'll add another class 'error' to the div 'prenameDiv' when the DOM changes that it looks like that: <div id="prenameDiv" class="control-group error"> `<input id="prename" name="prename" class="input-large LV_invalid_field" placeholder="Max" ` </div> I tried it that way: if ($("#prenameDiv").bind("DOMSubtreeModified")){ `if ($("#prename").hasClass("LV_invalid_field")) {` $("#prenameDiv").addClass("error"); } } But nothing changes? Do you have some ideas?

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  • Validation Logic

    - by user2961971
    I am trying to create some validation for a form I have. There are two text boxes and two radio buttons on the form. My logic for this validation I know is a little rusty at the moment so any suggestions would be great. Here is the code for what I have so far: Keep in mind that the int errors is a public variable in the class Start Button code: private void btnStart_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { errors = validateForm(); //Here I want the user to be able to fix any errors where I am little stuck on that logic at the moment //validate the form while (errors > 0) { validateForm(); errors = validateForm(); } } ValidateForm Method: private int validateForm() { errors = 0; //check the form if there are any unentered values if (txtDest.Text == "") { errors++; } if (txtExt.Text == "") { errors++; } if (validateRadioBtns() == true) { errors++; } return errors; } ValidateRadioBtns Method: private Boolean validateRadioBtns() { //flag - false: selected, true: none selected Boolean blnFlag = false; //both of the radio buttons are unchecked if (radAll.Checked == false && radOther.Checked == false) { blnFlag = true; } //check if there is a value entered in the text box if other is checked else if(radOther.Checked == true && txtExt.Text == "") { blnFlag = true; } return blnFlag; } Overall I feel like this can somehow be more stream lined which I am fairly stuck on. Also, I am stuck on how to ensure the user can return to the form, fix the errors, and then validate again to ensure said errors are fixed. Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated since I know this is such a nooby question.

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  • WPF ValidationRule Validate when the control is loaded

    - by PaN1C_Showt1Me
    Hi ! I have a control with this validation <MyPicker.SelectedItem> <Binding Path="Person.Value" Mode="TwoWay" UpdateSourceTrigger="PropertyChanged" NotifyOnValidationError="True"> <Binding.ValidationRules> <rules:MyValidationRule ValidationType="notnull"/> </Binding.ValidationRules> </Binding> </MyPicker.SelectedItem> This is the Validation Class: class MyValidationRule : ValidationRule { private string _validationType; public string ValidationType { get { return _validationType; } set { _validationType = value; } } public override ValidationResult Validate(object value, CultureInfo cultureInfo) { ValidationResult trueResult = new ValidationResult(true, null); switch (_validationType.ToLower()) { case "notnull": return value == null ? new ValidationResult(false, "EMPTY FIELD") : trueResult; default: return trueResult; } } } Question: When the property is changed, then the Validate( ) method is called which is correct. But to call this method at the very beginning when the MyControl is created? I need to prove immediate after initialize if the there's a null value in the control (and display a validation error)

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  • .NET ValidationRule problem

    - by PaN1C_Showt1Me
    Hi ! I have a control with this validation <MyPicker.SelectedItem> <Binding Path="Person.Value" Mode="TwoWay" UpdateSourceTrigger="PropertyChanged" NotifyOnValidationError="True"> <Binding.ValidationRules> <rules:MyValidationRule ValidationType="notnull"/> </Binding.ValidationRules> </Binding> </MyPicker.SelectedItem> This is the Validation Class: class MyValidationRule : ValidationRule { private string _validationType; public string ValidationType { get { return _validationType; } set { _validationType = value; } } public override ValidationResult Validate(object value, CultureInfo cultureInfo) { ValidationResult trueResult = new ValidationResult(true, null); switch (_validationType.ToLower()) { case "notnull": return value == null ? new ValidationResult(false, "EMPTY FIELD") : trueResult; default: return trueResult; } } } Question: When the property is changed, then the Validate( ) method is called which is correct. But to call this method at the very beginning when the MyControl is created? I need to prove immediate after initialize if the there's a null value in the control (and display a validation error)

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  • JQuery validate e-mail address regex

    - by RussP
    Hi folks, not too sure about how to do this. I need/want to validate email addresses by regex using something like this: [a-z0-9!#$%&'*+/=?^_`{|}~-]+(?:\.[a-z0-9!#$%&'*+/=?^_`{|}~-]+)*@(?:[a-z0-9](?:[a-z0-9-]*[a-z0-9])?\.)+(?:[A-Z]{2}|com|org|net|edu|gov|mil|biz|info|mobi|name|aero|asia|jobs|museum) Not I need to run this in a JQ function like this: Where does the validation go and wht is the expression? - please $j("#fld_emailaddress").live('change',function() { var emailaddress = $j("#fld_emailaddress").val(); // validation here? if(emailaddress){} // end validation $j.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "../ff-admin/ff-register/ff-user-check.php", data: "fld_emailaddress="+ emailaddress, success: function(msg) { if(msg == 'OK') { $j("#fld_username").attr('disabled',false); $j("#fld_password").attr('disabled',false); $j("#cmd_register_submit").attr('disabled',false); $j("#fld_emailaddress").removeClass('object_error'); // if necessary $j("#fld_emailaddress").addClass("object_ok"); $j('#email_ac').html('&nbsp;<img src="img/cool.png" align="absmiddle"> <font color="Green"> Your email <strong>'+ emailaddress+'</strong> is OK.</font> '); } else { $j("#fld_username").attr('disabled',true); $j("#fld_password").attr('disabled',true); $j("#cmd_register_submit").attr('disabled',true); $j("#fld_emailaddress").removeClass('object_ok'); // if necessary $j("#fld_emailaddress").addClass("object_error"); $j('#email_ac').html(msg); } } }); });

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  • Squeezing all the SEO out of a URL as possible.

    - by John Isaacks
    I am working on an ecommerce site, I told our SEO consultant that I plan to make the URL scheme: /products/<id>/<name>. This is similar to Stackoverflow's URLs which are /questions/<id>/<title>. He asked me if I could change the URL scheme to /p/<id>/<name> instead. I know why he wants this change, the word "products" isn't needed to find the correct product, and it doesn't offer any SEO, so shortening it to just p would make the relevant keywords in the <name> weigh more. His main priority is maximizing SEO, but the part that I don't think he is considering is how this effects the semantics of the site. Also having the word "products" looks like it has meaning and a reason for being there, just having a p looks chaotic and ugly to me. I also don't think it makes that much of a difference does it? Stackoverflow doesn't use /q/<id>/<title> and they do just fine, I do realize that theres many factors at play here though, not just the URL. So I want some outside opinions on which is the better way and why?

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  • SPWeb.Url returns wrong URL

    - by Jason
    I have a web application in SharePoint that has been extended to another zone (Extranet). The access URL for the default zone is http ://server1, and the URL for the extranet zone is https: //www.server1.com. Now, when I access the site via the extranet zone, I find that SPContext.Current.Web.Url returns http ://server1. I would have expected https ://www.server1.com, since that's how I'm accessing the site. What am I doing wrong?

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  • How to code a URL shortener?

    - by marco92w
    I want to create a URL shortener service where you can write a long URL into an input field and the service shortens the URL to "http://www.example.org/abcdef". Instead of "abcdef" there can be any other string with six characters containing a-z, A-Z and 0-9. That makes 56 trillion possible strings. My approach: I have a database table with three columns: id, integer, auto-increment long, string, the long URL the user entered short, string, the shortened URL (or just the six characters) I would then insert the long URL into the table. Then I would select the auto-increment value for "id" and build a hash of it. This hash should then be inserted as "short". But what sort of hash should I build? Hash algorithms like MD5 create too long strings. I don't use these algorithms, I think. A self-built algorithm will work, too. My idea: For "http://www.google.de/" I get the auto-increment id 239472. Then I do the following steps: short = ''; if divisible by 2, add "a"+the result to short if divisible by 3, add "b"+the result to short ... until I have divisors for a-z and A-Z. That could be repeated until the number isn't divisible any more. Do you think this is a good approach? Do you have a better idea?

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  • C# Byte[] to Url Friendly String

    - by LorenVS
    Hello, I'm working on a quick captcha generator for a simple site I'm putting together, and I'm hoping to pass an encrypted key in the url of the page. I could probably do this as a query string parameter easy enough, but I'm hoping not too (just because nothing else runs off the query string)... My encryption code produces a byte[], which is then transformed using Convert.ToBase64String(byte[]) into a string. This string, however, is still not quite url friendly, as it can contain things like '/' and '='. Does anyone know of a better function in the .NET framework to convert a byte array to a url friendly string? I know all about System.Web.HttpUtility.UrlEncode() and its equivalents, however, they only work properly with query string parameters. If I url encode an '=' inside of the path, my web server brings back a 400 Bad Request error. Anyways, not a critical issue, but hoping someone can give me a nice solution **EDIT: Just to be absolutely sure exactly what I'm doing with the string, I figured I would supply a little more information. The byte[] that results from my encryption algorithm should be fed through some sort of algorithm to make it into a url friendly string. After this, it becomes the content of an XElement, which is then used as the source document for an XSLT transformation, and is used as a part of the href attribute for an anchor. I don't believe the xslt transformation is causing the issues, since what is coming through on the path appears to be an encoded query string parameter, but causes the HTTP 400 I've also tried HttpUtility.UrlPathEncode() on a base64 string, but that doesn't seem to do the trick either (I still end up with '/'s in my url)**

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  • curl: downloading from dynamic url

    - by adam n
    I'm trying to download an html file with curl in bash. Like this site: http://www.registrar.ucla.edu/schedule/detselect.aspx?termsel=10S&subareasel=PHYSICS&idxcrs=0001B+++ When I download it manually, it works fine. However, when i try and run my script through crontab, the output html file is very small and just says "Object moved to here." with a broken link. Does this have something to do with the sparse environment the crontab commands run it? I found this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1279340/php-ssl-curl-object-moved-error but i'm using bash, not php. What are the equivalent command line options or variables to set to fix this problem in bash? (I want to do this with curl, not wget) Edit: well, sometimes downloading the file manually (via interactive shell) works, but sometimes it doesn't (I still get the "Object moved here" message). So it may not be a a specifically be a problem with cron's environment, but with curl itself. the cron entry: * * * * * ~/.class/test.sh >> ~/.class/test_out 2>&1 test.sh: #! /bin/bash PATH=/usr/local/bin:/usr/bin:/bin:/sbin cd ~/.class course="physics 1b" url="http://www.registrar.ucla.edu/schedule/detselect.aspx?termsel=10S<URL>subareasel=PHYSICS<URL>idxcrs=0001B+++" curl "$url" -sLo "$course".html --max-redirs 5 As I was searching around on google, someone suggested that the problem might happen because there are parameters in the url. (Because it is a dynamic url?)

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  • Spring - Redirect after POST (even with validation errors)

    - by Taylor L
    I'm trying to figure out how to "preserve" the BindingResult so it can be used in a subsequent GET via the Spring <form:errors> tag. The reason I want to do this is because of Google App Engine's SSL limitations. I have a form which is displayed via HTTP and the post is to an HTTPS URL. If I only forward rather than redirect then the user would see the https://whatever.appspot.com/my/form URL. I'm trying to avoid this. Any ideas how to approach this? Below is what I'd like to do, but I only see validation errors when I use return "create". @RequestMapping(value = "/submit", method = RequestMethod.POST) public final String submit( @ModelAttribute("register") @Valid final Register register, final BindingResult binding) { if (binding.hasErrors()) { return "redirect:/register/create"; } return "redirect:/register/success"; }

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  • Rails - building an absolute url in a model's virtual attribute without url helper

    - by Nick
    I have a model that has paperclip attachments. The model might be used in multiple rails apps I need to return a full (non-relative) url to the attachment as part of a JSON API being consumed elsewhere. I'd like to abstract the paperclip aspect and have a simple virtual attribute like this: def thumbnail_url self.photo.url(:thumb) end This however only gives me the relative path. Since it's in the model I can't use the URL helper methods, right? What would be a good approach to prepending the application root url since I don't have helper support? I would like to avoid hardcoding something or adding code to the controller method that assembles my JSON. Thank you

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  • Grails g:paginate tag and custom URL

    - by aboxy
    Hello, I am trying to use g:paginate in a shared template where depending on the controller, url changes e.g. For my homepage url should be : mydomain[DOT]com/news/recent/(1..n) For search Page: www[DOT]mydomain[DOT]com/search/query/"ipad apps"/filter/this month and my g:paginate looks like this: g:paginate controller=${customeController} action=${customAction} total:${total} For the first case, I was able to provide controller as 'news' and action as 'recent' and mapped url /news/recent/$offset to my controller. But for the search page, I am not able to achieve what I want to do. I have a URL mapping defined as /search/$filter**(controller:"search",action:"fetch") $filter can be /query/"ipad apps"/filter/thismonth/filter/something/filter/somethingelse. I want to be able to show the url as above rather than ?query="ipad apps"&filter=thismonth&filter=something&filter=somethingelse. I believe I can pass all the parameters in params attribute of g:paginate but that will not give me pretty URL. What would be the best way to achieve this? Please feel free to ask questions If i missed anything.Thanks in advance.

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  • Django URL Conf Returns Incorrect "Current URL"

    - by natnit
    I have a django app that is mostly done, and the URLs work perfectly when I run it with the manage.py runserver command. However, I've recently tried to get it running via lighttpd, and many links have stopped working. For example: http://mysite.com/races/32 should work, but instead throws this error message. Page not found (404) Request Method: GET Request URL: http://mysite.com/races/32 Using the URLconf defined in racetrack.urls, Django tried these URL patterns, in this order: ^admin/ ^create/$ ^races/$ ^races/(?P<race_id>\d+)/$ ^races/(?P<race_id>\d+)/manage/$ ^races/(?P<text>\w+)/$ ^user/(?P<kol_id>\d+)/$ ^$ ^login/$ ^logout/$ The current URL, 32, didn't match any of these. The request URL is accurate, but the last line (which displays the current URL) is giving 32 instead of races/32 as expected. Here is my urlconf: from django.conf.urls.defaults import * from django.contrib import admin admin.autodiscover() urlpatterns = patterns('racetrack.races.views', (r'^admin/', include(admin.site.urls)), (r'^create/$', 'create'), (r'^races/$', 'index'), (r'^races/(?P<race_id>\d+)/$', 'detail'), (r'^races/(?P<race_id>\d+)/manage/$', 'manage'), (r'^races/(?P<text>\w+)/$', 'index'), (r'^user/(?P<kol_id>\d+)/$', 'user'), # temporary for index page replace with welcome page (r'^$', 'index'), ) urlpatterns += patterns('django.contrib.auth.views', (r'^login/$', 'login', {'template_name': 'races/login.html'}), (r'^logout/$', 'logout', {'next_page': '/'}), ) Thank you.

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  • FACEBOOK LINTER ERROR: value for property 'og:image:url' could not be parsed as type 'url'

    - by Martin Devarda
    I've read all threads in stack overflow about this issue, but my problem persists. THE PROBLEM IS ON THIS PAGE: http://www.organirama.it/minisite-demo/001.html THE PAGE CONTAINS THIS TAGS <meta property="og:title" content="A wonderful page" /> <meta property="og:type" content="video.movie" /> <meta property="og:url" content="http://www.organirama.com/minisite-demo/001.html" /> <meta property="og:image" content="http:/www.organirama.com/minisite-demo/photos-small/001.png" /> <meta property="og:site_name" content="Organirama"/> <meta property="fb:admins" content="1468447924"/> LINTER ERROR Object at URL 'http://www.organirama.com/minisite-demo/001.html' of type 'video.movie' is invalid because the given value 'http:/www.organirama.com/minisite-demo/photos-small/001.png' for property 'og:image:url' could not be parsed as type 'url'. WHAT I DISCOVERED The problem seems somehow related to the domain. Infact, if I make og:image point to another image on another domain, everything works.

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  • How to give user confirmation message before ActionLink based on validation

    - by RememberME
    I have the following link. On click, I'd like to check the item.primary_company field and if populated, give the user a warning and ask if they would like to continue. How can I do this? <a href="<%= Url.Action("Activate", new {id = item.company_id}) %>" class="fg=button fg-button-icon-solo ui-state-default ui-corner-all"><span class="ui-icon ui-icon-refresh"></span></a> EDIT I've changed to this, but nothing happens when clicked. Also, I don't know how to reference the item to do the check on the primary_company field. I only want to message to show if item.primary_company.HasValue. I'd also like to show item.company1.company_name in the confirm message. <a href="#" onclick="return Actionclick("<%= Url.Action("Activate", new {id = item.company_id}) %>");" class="fg=button fg-button-icon-solo ui-state-default ui-corner-all"><span class="ui-icon ui-icon-refresh"></span></a> <script type="text/javascript"> function Actionclick(url) { alert("myclick"); if ( confirm("Do you want to activate this company's primary company and all other subsidiaries?")) { location.href(url); } }; </script>

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